Embalming Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
process of chemically treating the dead human body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to retard organic decomposition and to restore an acceptable physical appearance
A
Embalming
2
Q
an amorphous nonvolatile solid or soft side substance, a natural exudation from plants
A
resinous
3
Q
resins combined with oil
A
balsamic
4
Q
separation of compounds into simpler substances by the action of microbial and. autolytic enzymes
A
decomposition
5
Q
4 things entailed in embalming
A
sanitation, disinfection, temporary preservation, restoration
6
Q
a process to promote and establish conditions which minimize or eliminate biohazards
A
sanitation
7
Q
the destruction/inhibition of most pathogenic organisms and their products in or on the body
A
disinfection
8
Q
the science of treating the body chemically so as to temporarily inhibit decomp
A
temporary preservation
9
Q
treatment of the deceased in the attempt to recreate natural form and color
A
restoration
10
Q
4 classifications of embalming
A
Vascular
Surface
hypodermic
cavity
11
Q
the use of vasular systems of the body for preservation, disinfection and restoration; usually accomplished through injection of embalming solutions into the arteries and drainage from the veins
A
vascular embalming
12
Q
direct contact of internal or external body tissues with embalming chemicals
A
surface embalming
13
Q
injection of embalming chemicals directly into the tissues through the use of a syringe, needle, or trocar
A
hypodermic embalming
14
Q
direct treatment other then vascular embalming by aspiration and then injection of chemicals using a trocar
A
cavity
15
Q
best possible source of ID for identification of body
A
DNA
16
Q
worst possible source of ID for IDing a body
A
personal effects
17
Q
an official elected or appointed to investigate suspicious or unnatural deaths; doesn’t do inquest
A
medical examiner
18
Q
an official of a local community who holds inquests concerning sudden, violent, and unexplained deaths
A
coroner
19
Q
an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects/surfaces to destroy disease-causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores
A
disinfection
20
Q
movement of particles from an area of greater density to an area of lesser concentration
A
diffusion
21
Q
“rule of thumb” for creating a solution
A
one gallon per 50lb of body weight; generally 2.5 index
22
Q
3 types of disinfection
A
Primary
concurrent
terminal
23
Q
OSHA regulation that deals with IDing and limiting exposure to occupational hazards
A
Hazardous communication statndard
23
Q
Formaldehyde Rule
A
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1048
24
the maximum legal limit exposure over a time-weighed 8hr work shift; 0.75ppm
Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
25
Exposures for no more than 15 mins and not repeated more than 4 times per work day; 2ppm
Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)
26
the specific point at which an 8hr exposure in unsafe; 0.5ppm
Action level
27
an evaluation of exposure that is time- weighted over an 8 hr time period
Time weighted average
28
Blood-borne pathogen standard
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030
29
those items of protection worn to minimize exposure to hazards
Personal protective equipment
30
what does OPIM stand for
other possible infectious material
31
minute particles of blood and water become atomized and suspended in air when water under pressure meets the blood drainage or when flushing an uncovered flush sink
aerosolization
32
tubular instrument of varying diameter and shape, preferably with a plunger that is inserted into a vein to aid in drainage of blood to restrict the exit of vascular embalming fluid
drain tube
33
piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needle sticks, human bites, cuts and abrasions; getting punctured
parenteral entry
34
The Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is now aligned with what?
Globally Harmonzied System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)
35
Log of Work- related Injuries and Illnesses; classification of work- related injuries and illnesses and provides the information on the extent and severity of each case
OSHA Form 300
36
yearly Summary of total cases in each category
Form 300A
37
Injury and Illness Incident Report
Form 301
38
legal necessity of embalming
when died of communicable disease, transporting across state lines, burial not taking place within 24 hrs, when having a public viewing
39
Key stone to the Funeral Rule
General Price List
40
the mandatory disclosures on the GPL
1: right to select only the goods and services desired
2:embalming is not legally required
3:alternative containers for D-Cremation
4:basic services fee
5:Casket price list
6:outer burial container price list
41
irreversible cessation of all vital functions; irreversible total cessation of metabolic activity
death
42
in a dying state; in the agonal period; period immediately before somatic death
moribund (agonal period)
43
the semi-convulsive twitches that often occur before death
death struggle
44
a prolongation of the last violent contraction of the muscles into the rigidity
cadaveric spasm
45
condition in which the manifestations of life are feebly maintained; very faint
apparent death
46
dead human body used for medical purposes; including transplantation, anatomical dissection and study; donated to science
cadaver
47
the elements remaining after cremation of a dead human body
cremated human remains
48
study of death
thanatology
49
death of the organism as a whole; body dead, not cells
somatic death
50
a phase of somatic death lasting from 5-6 min in which life may be restored
legal (clinical) death
51
tripod of life; any one stops adn you die; not dead until warm and dead
Heart, lungs, brain
52
irreversible somatic death
biological (irreversible)
53
death of the individual cells of the body; cells may stop functioning after 10-20hrs; always follows somatic death
cellular death
54
before death
antemortem
55
pathological death due to a lack of 0xygen to cells
necrosis
56
caused by pressure to capillaries from staying in bed and cutting off blood flow to outer cells of body
decubitus ulcers; bed sores (pressure sores)
57
necrosis of tissues of part of the body, usually due to deficient or absent blood supply
gangrene
58
the three types of gangrene
wet
dry
gas
59
antemortem, physiological death of the cells of the body followed by their replacement with living tissue
necrobiosis
60
period that begins after somatic death
postmortem
61
4 factors influencing onset of postmortem cellular death; occurs abt 20hrs after somatic death
cause of death
environmental conditions
condition of body
medication preceding death
62
abnormal amount of body fat
corpulence
62
single best way to tell if someone is dead
decomposition
63
signs of death
decomp
odor
cessation of circulation/respiration
complete muscular relaxation
algor mortis: cooling down
rigor mortis: onset after 4-6 hrs and onset 4-6
livor mortis
changes of the eye
64
postmortem, INTRAvascular, red-blue discoloration resulting from hypostasis of blood
livor mortis, cadaveric lividity
65
what will neutralize rigor mortis
buffer
66
4 changes of the eye after death
clouding or cornea: immediate
loss of luster of conjunctiva: turns gray
flattening of eyeball: 4 hrs after; no pressure
lack of pupil dilation: immediate
67
signs are _, symptoms are _
objective; subjective
68
any procedure used to prove a sign of death
tests for death
69
4 Expert tests for signs of death
stethoscope: heart sounds
ophthalmoscope: pupil response
encephalogram: electronic life detection
injections of dyes for circulation: not done now
70
3 Inexpert tests (historical) signs of death
ligature test
ammonia injection
feel for pulse at radial artery
71
antemortem (agonal) changes
Thermal
Blood
moisture
Bacterial translocation
Gases in the tissues
Therapeutic agents
72
decreased in body temp immediately before death; caused by decreased circulation
agonal algor
73
increase in body temperature immediately before death; may be caused by a full stomach
agonal fever
74
settling of blood or other fluids to dependent portion of the body
hypostatis
75
the process of converting soluble protein to insoluble protein by heating or contact with a chemical such as an alcohol or an aldehyde; the solidification of a solution into a gelatinous mass
congealing (coagulation)
76
a specific form of coagulation; INTRAvascular: the increase of viscosity of blood brought about by the clumping of particulate formed elements in the blood vessels
agglutination
77
an agonal or postmortem redistribution of host microflora on a host-wide basis; from intestinal areas to blood vascular system due to capillary permeability changes
bacterial translocation
78
The ulnar artery lies along the ___________ border of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle.
lateral
79
What is the purpose of adding eosin and erythrosine to arterial fluid?
They impart a color to the tissue
80
What is the purpose of ponceau in embalming fluids?
It will impart a color change
81
The injection pressure which just overcomes the vascular resistance and causes the embalming fluid to enter the arterial system at a moderate and uniform rate is
ideal
82
Which of these is a commonly used moisture absorbing substance in hardening compound?
Plaster of Paris
83
air edema (hospital induced edema)
antemortem subcutaneous emphysema
84
necrosis in a wound infected by an ANAerobic gas forming bacillus; most common etiologic agent is Clostridum perfinges
gas gangrene
85
condition that results when the body part that dies has little blood and remains aseptic; the arteries but not the vein are obstructed and shrivles up
dry gangrene
86
necrotic tissue that is moist as a result of inadequate venous drainage, may be accompanied by bacterial infection; swells and turns black
wet gangrene
87
a therpeutic agent that dilates the vessels and aids in distribution; caution, swelling could accompany
vasodilator
88
from within the body
intrinsic factors
89
from outside the body
extrinsic factor
90
amount of clothing covering the body; temp and humidity of environment; temp of patient at time of death
extrinsic factors
91
what killed them
cause
92
how did it get there
manner
93
postmortem, Intravascular, red-blue discoloration resulting from hypostasis of blood
livor mortis (cadaveric lividity)
94
loss of moisture from body tissue which may occur antemortem
dehydration (dessication)
95
dehydration known as ""; desiccation all the way through
surface evaporation
96
absorption of the fluid portion of blood by the tissues after death resulting in postmortem edema
imbibition (postmortem edema)
97
liquid flows to dependent portion of body
gravitation of serum
98
the intravascular increase of viscosity of blood brought about by the clumping of particulate formed elements in the blood vessels
agglutination of formed elements
99
self destruction of cells, decomp of tissue by enzymes of their own formation without microbial assistance
autolysis
100
organelle that exists within a cell, but separate from the cell; contains hydrolytic enzymes that break down proteins and certain carbohydrates;
lysosomes
101
an organic catalyst produced by living cells and capable of autolytic decomp
enzyme
102
bacterial decomposition of carbohydrates
(which break down sugars)
fermentation
103
decomp of sugars
saccharolysis
104
decomp of proteins
proteolysis
105
decomp of proteins by the action of enzymes from ANAerobic bacteria; more odor
Putrefaction
106
decomp of proteins by enzymes of Aerobic bacteria
decay
107
decomp of fats
lipolysis
108
split by taking up elements of water; breaks down peptide bonds
hydrolysis
109
postmortem evacuation of any substance from an external orifice of the body as a result of gas pressure
purge
110
#1 & 2 signs of decomposition
1.Odor
2.color
111
building blocks of which proteins are constructed an the end products of protein digestion or hydrolysis; result of comp of proteins
amino acids
112
a product of comp of fats; decomp of lipids
fatty acids
113
any one of a group of nitrogenous organic compounds formed by the action of putrefactive bacteria on proteins
ptomaines
114
ammonia. ammonium compounds. hydrogen. hydrogen sulfide. mercaptan. nitrogen. carbon dioxide. water. methane. phosporic acid. sulfuric acid
end products
115
a compound of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen; sugars, starches, and glycogen
carbohydrates
116
organic compound found in plants and animals; can be broken down into amino acids,
proteins
117
order of decomposition of the body compounds
Carbohydrates
proteins
fats
bones
118
first organs of putrefaction
lining membrane of trachea and larynx
*except for brain of an infant or pregnant uterus
119
last organs of putrefaction
non-pregnant uterus or large blood vessels
120
pH balance of blood
7.35 -7.45
121
pH during rigor mortis
5-6
122
pH of advanced decomposition
alkaline: 11ish
123
postmortem stiffening of the body muscles by natural body processes
rigor mortis
124
order of rigor appearance and disappearance
starts in eyes works out; leaves in same order
125
physical methods or reducing rigor mortis
flexing
extending
rotating
massaging
126
extravascular color change that occurs when hemoglobing, released by hemolysis of red blood cells, seeps through the vessel walls into the body tissues
postmortem stain
127
can postmortem stain be removed during normal arterial injection and venous drainage
NO
128
how to determine if postmortem stain
press on skin and spot wont go away
129
the RISE in temp after death due to continued cellular metabolism
postmortem calorcicty
130
embalming machine that uses an electrical pump to create pressure
pressure machine (Centrifugal Force Machine)
131
3 main companies the produce pressure machines
porti-boy
duotronic
sawyer
132
apparatus that is connected to the water supply and develops a suction
hydroaspirator
133
a device that uses a motor to create suction for the purpose of aspiration
electric aspirator
134
an apparatus that relies on gravity to create pressure required to deliver fluid (0.43 lbs per foot of elevation)
gravity injector
135
historical instrument resembling a large hypodermic syringe attached to a bottle apparatus; used to create pressure or a vacumm
hand pump
136
historical self contained, soft rubber manual pump designed to created pressure to deliver fluid as it passes through one-way valves
bulb syringe
137
an electrically heated blade which may be used to dry moist tissue, reduce swollen tissue and restore contour; use liberal amounts of massage cream
electric spatula
138
equipment used to dry the hair of the deceased
hair dyer
139
desinged to eliminate the physical strain of moving caskets and bodies by hand
body lifts
140
oven/appliance used for sterilizing
sterilizers
141
types of tables
embalming
dressing
142
a table used for the dressing of the deceased; doesn't tilt, no drain and folds in the middle
dressing table
143
temp that refrigeration units should be maintained
38-40F
144
OSHA required emergency safety device providing a steady stream of water for flushing the eye
eyewash station
145
OSHA required safety device for a release of a copious amount of water in a short time
quick drench shower
146
OSHA required receptacle for proper disposal of sharps
sharps container
147
OSHA required container used for bio-hazardous waste
bio-hazardous waste container
148
how many times does OSHA require the air to be replaced by an exhaust system
6 per hour min.
149
those items of protection worn to minimize exposure to hazards
PPE
150
water pressure important for hydroaspirator; positive flow water system
specialized plumbing
151
a tube used to inject embalming fluid into the blood vascular system
arterial tube
152
a mechanical device used to impel specially designed metal pins into bone
needle injector
153
an embalming instrument consisting of a handle and blade fused together as one unit and used to make incisions
scalpel
154
an instrument that is used for blunt dissection and in raising vessels
aneurysm hook/needle
155
may be sharp/sharp, sharp/blunt, blunt/blunt, or bandage scissors; straight/curved
scissors
156
instrument used to guide vein tubes into vessels
groove director
157
instrument used to maintain the elevation of the vessels above the surface of the skin
separator (bone separator)
158
instrument used to clamp vessels, various-sizes, straight or curved
hemostats (lock forceps)
159
mutli-purpose instrument commonly used for holding cotton swabs, wiping out and disinfecting the eyes, restoration treatment and closing the eyes; also may hold open veins
spring forceps
160
general purpose instrument which is primarily used to spread incisions and to afford more working room
retractors (spreader)
161
used to shave
razor
162
tubular instrument of varying diameter and shape, preferably with a plunger, that is inserted into a vein to aid in drainage of blood and to restrict the exit of vascular embalming fluid
drain tube
163
used on arterial tubes to stop the flow of fluid
stopcocks
164
used to close cuts and incisions by suturing with ligature
suture needles
165
used to aspirate the the throat by means of the nostrils
nasal tube aspirator
166
used to aspirate the body cavity embalming to aspirate the cavities and inject cavity fluid
trocars
167
used to inject embalming chemicals and tissue builder into the body tissues
hypodermic syringe and needle
168
used to insert trocar buttons into trocar punctures
trocar button applicator
169
purpose is to hold aterial tubes in the arteries
arterial fixation forceps
170
chemicals which inactivate saprohytic bacteria render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which such bacteria thrive, and which will arrest decomposition by alterin enzymes and lysins of the body as wll as converting the decomposable tissue to a form less susceptible to decomp
preservative embalming chemicals
171
a chemical that lightens a skin discoloration
bleaching agent
172
chemicals that are used to destroy/inhibit most pathogenic bacteria and their products
disinfectant chemicals
173
material used to provide a barrier or seal against any type of leakage of fluid/blood; powder/liquid forms, external and internal use
sealing agents
174
a liquid holding another substance in solution; used to remove stains from the body, and thinning agent
solvents
175
types for cotton (2)
roll
towel (web-reel)
176
a thin plastic dome-shaped disk used to restore contour just beneath the eyelids
eyecap
177
a device used in the mouth in shaping the contour of the lips; used to support the lips and give normal contour when deceased does not have teeth/dentures
mouth formers
178
use powder first; unionall, coveralls, panties, stocking
plastic goods
179
used with suturing needles to suture cuts and incisions
suture ligature
180
used in mouth closure; inserted into the needle injector and forced into the mandible and maxilla
injector needles
181
super glue, aron alpha, rubber cement
adhesive
182
used on cases where the lips/eyelids are difficult to close properly (use stay cream before going to adhesives
lip and lid cement
183
that consideration given to the dead body prior to, during, and after the embalming procedure
embalming analysis (case analysis)
184
metabolic by-products that contain nitrogen, such as urea and uric acid; tend to neutralize embalming chemicals
nitrogenous waste products
185
loss of blood to the point of not being able to support life
exsanguinated
186
amount of time between death and embalming
postmortem interval
187
order of initial treatment of the body
1.disinfection of oral and nasal cavities
2. remove and record all clothing/ personal effects
3.disinfection of clothing when necessary
4.remove medical dressings
5.bathe/ external disinfection
188
method of mouth closure in which a suture is passed through the septum of the nose and through the mentalis muscle of the chin; AKA frenulum suture
musculature suture
189
method of mouth closure in which a suture is passed through the septum of the nose and around the mandible
mandibular suture
190
location of eyeline closure
inferior one-third of eye socket (abut)
191
a paste to fix/fill; mastic compound
mortuary putty
192
consideration and precautions for each artery are based upon
accessibility
arterial occlusion (blockage)
193
a line drawn/visualized on the SURFACE on the skin to represent the approximate location of some deeper-lying structure
linear guide
194
a descriptive reference for locating arteries and veins by means of anatomical structures that are known
anatomical guide
195
point of ORIGIN and point of TERMINATION in relation to adjacent structures; used to designate the boundaries of arteries
anatomical limits
196
cervical triangle
common carotid,internal jugular and vegus nerve
197
a point from sternoclavicular articulation to the anterior surface of the lobe of ear
linear guide of CCA
198
along medial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle
anatomical guide
199
begins at the level of sternoclavicular articulation and terminates at the level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage
right common carotid anatomical limit
200
begins at the level of second costal cartilage and terminates at the superior border of the thyroid cartilage
left common carotid anatomical limit
201
where to make incision for supraclavicular location
medial one-third
middle one-third
202
where to make incision for parallel method
along posterior border of the inferior one-third of sternoclediomastoid muscle
203
center of venous drainage
right atrium
204
center of circulation
arch of aorta
205
accompanying vein of cartoid artery; lateral/ superficial to artery
internal jugular
206
along the inferior border of the mandible just anterior to the angle of the mandible
facial artery anatomical guide
207
place of incision for facial arteries
along anatomical guide; both sides
208
from the center of the base of the axiallary space to center of forearm just below bend of elbow
brachial linear guide
209
lies posterior to the medial border of the belly of the biceps brachii muscle
brachial anatomical guide
210
begins at the inferior border of the tendon of the teres major muscle and terminates at a point just inferior to the antecubital fossa
brachial anatomical limits
211
place of incision for brachial artery
along linear guide (approx middle of guide)
212
accompanying vein for brachial; medial and superficial
basilic
213
on surface of the forearm from center of the antecubital fossa to center of base of index finger
radial linear guide
214
just lateral tot eh tendon of flexor carp radialis muscle
raidial guide
215
place of incision for radial arteryl
linear guide at the wrist
216
on surface of forearm from center of antecubital fossa to a point between fourt and fifth digits (ring and pinkie fingers)
ulnar linear guide
217
lies lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle
ulnar anatomical guide
218
through the center of the base of axillary space and parallel to long axis of the upper extremity when abducted
axillary linear guide
219
posterior to the medial boarder of the coracobrachialis muscle
axillary anatomical guide
220
begins at the lateral border of the first rib and terminates at the inferior border of the tendon of the teres major muscle
axillary limits
221
place on incision for the axillary artery
along the anterior margin of the hairline of the axilla
222
begins at the sternoclavicular articulation and terminates at the lateral border of the first rib
right subclavian anatomical limits
223
begins at the level of the second costal cartilage and terminates at the lateral border of the first rib
left subclavian anatomical limits
224
brachiocephalic artery accompanying vein
right brachiocephalic vein
225
arches over the heart and goes down along the anterior portion of the spine
arch of the aorta
226
used to embalm newborns or babies
abdominal aorta
227
drains ascending aorta and the arch
superior vena cava
228
drains descending aorta
inferior vena cava
229
medial border of the psoas major muscle
external iliac artery anatomical guide
230
femoral triangle
inguinal ligament
adductor longus muscle
satrorius muscle
231
on surface of thigh from center of inguinal ligament to center point on the medial condyle of the femur
femoral linear guide
232
through the center of the femoral triangle bounded LATERALLY by the Sartorius and MEDIALLY by the Adductor longus
femoral anatomical guide
233
begins at a point posterior to the center of the inguinal ligament and terminates at the opening in the adductor magnus muscle
femoral anatomical limits
234
place of incision for femoral artery
along any portion of the superior two-thirds of the linear guide, as close as possible to the inguinal ligament
235
through the center of popliteal space parallel to the long axis of lower extremity
popliteal artery linear guide
236
begins at opening of adductor magnus muscle and terminates at the interior border of popliteus muscle
popliteal anatomical limits
237
place of incision for popliteal artery
parallel incision on posteromedial aspect of the thigh just superior to popliteal space
238
from lateral border of the patella to the anterior surface of the ankle joint
anterior tibial linear guide
239
place of incision for anterior tibial artery
along lateral margin of inferior one-third of the crest of tibia
240
from center of popliteal space to point midway between medial mallelous and the calcaneus
posterior tibial artery linear guide
241
place of incision for posterior tibial artery
midway between the medial malleolus and calcaneal tendon
242
from the center of the anterior surface of the ankle joint to a point between the first and second digits
dorsalis pedis artery linear guide
243
place of incision for dorsalis pedis artery
along the superior one third of the linear guide
244
what artery do you use for a full term infant
abdominal aorta; 4" long; inject up and down
245
an transverse incision
lies at right angles to the long axis of the body; sclerotic vessel may break in half with this incision
246
a longitudinal incision
down the long axis of the vessel; sclerotic vessels wont break with this incision but may start to split down the vessel
247
a t-incision
combination of transverse and longitudinal
248
a triangular (wedge) shaped incision
2 opposite diagonal cuts; like an inverted V
249
a stitch that is made from beneath, up through the skin and the needle is crossed from side to side on each stitch
baseball stitch
250
a stitch made through the skin from outside the incision and up through the opening of the incision alternating side to side
inverted baseball
251
a stitch that is the same as the single intradermal, except the stitch penetrates completely the skin
draw (worm)
252
hidden stitches
single/ double intradermal
253
a stitch that uses a large full curved suturing needle strung with a strong ligature;
lock
254
a stitch which passes the ligature through both sides of the incision from the outside going from side to the other
whip (roll)
255
embalming machine that uses an electrical pump to create pressure either pulsating or non-pulsating
motorized force pump; centrifugal force machine
256
types of centrifugal force machines (3)
duotronic, porti-boy, sawyer
257
the pressure indicated by the injector needle when the injector motor is running and the arterial tubing is clamped off
potential pressure
258
amount of pressure with rate of flow valve open
actual pressure
259
the pressure that is the difference between potential and actual
differential pressure
260
how many inches above the injection site is needed to create one lb of pressure when using a gravity injector
28"
261
a historical instrument used to created either pressure for injector or vacuum for aspiration
hand pump
262
a self contained, soft rubber manual pump designed to create pressure to deliver fluid as it passes through one-way valves; is only used to deliver fluids
bulb syringe
263
types of air pressure apparatuses
mechanical and hydraulic
264
a force applied/acting against resistance
pressure
265
the pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls measured in millimeters of mercury
blood pressure
266
the amount of pressure produced by an injection device to overcome initial resistance within or on the vascular system
injection pressure
267
pressure developed as the flow of embalming solution is established and the elastic arterial walls expand and then contract, resulting in filling of the capillary beds and development of pressure filtration
intravascular pressure
268
speed at which fluid is injected; measured in ounces per minute
rate of flow
269
the strength of embalming fluids indicaated by the number of grams of pure HCHO gas dissolved in 100mL of water
index
270
strong (high) index fluids
26-36%
271
medium index fluids
16-25%
272
weak (low)
5-15%
273
types of embalming chemicals (3)
arterial, cavity, accessory
274
chemicals which inactivate saprophytic bacteria render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which bacteria thrive; alters enzymes
preservative
275
disinfectant in the solution
HCHO
276
the ingredient of embalming fluids that retards the natural postmortem tendency of blood to become more viscous or prevents adverse reactions between blood and other embalming chemicals
anticoagulants
277
liquids that serve as a solvent for the numerous ingredients that are incorporated into embalming fluids
vechicls
278
chemicals that reduces the molecular cohesion of a liquid so it can flow through smaller apertures
surfactants
279
substances which will, impart a definite color to the solution
dyes
280
chemicals found in embalming arterial formulations having the capability of displacing an unpleasant ordor (esters & benzaldehyde)
masking agents
281
chemicals added to the solution to deal the varying demands predicated upon the type of embalming, environment and fluid used
modifying agents
282
chemical that increases the ability of embalmed tissue to retain moisture
humectants
283
trocar guide for the right side of the heart
Direct the trocar to intersect a line drawn from the left anterior-superior iliac spine and the right earlobe. After the trocar has passed through the diaphragm, depress the point and enter the heart.
284
trocar guide for the stomach
Direct the trocar point toward the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the left midaxillary line (established by extending a line from the center of the medial base of the axillary space inferiorly along the rib cage)
285
trocar guide for the cecum
Direct the trocar toward a point one-fourth of the distance from the right anterior-superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis; keep the point of the trocar well up near the abdominal wall until within 4 inches of the right anterior-superior iliac spine; then dip the point 2 inches and insert it forward.
286
lividity
antemortem intravascular discoloration
287
carbon monoxide
antemortem intravascular discoloration
288
capillary congestion
antemortem intravascular discoloration
289
ecchymosis
antemortem extravascular discoloration
290
petechia
antemortem extravascular discoloration
291
petechia
antermortem extravascular discoloration
292
hematoma
antemortem extravascular discolortion
293
livor mortis
postmortem intravascular discolortion
294
postmortem stain
postmortem extravascular discolortion
295
tardieu spots
postmortem extravascular discolortion
296
trocar point toward the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the left mid-axillary line
stomach guide
297
point trocar toward a point one-fifth of the distance from the right anterior-superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis
cecum guide
298
point trocar toward intersection of median line and advance to pubic bone, then withdraw about one half inch, dip the point slightly
bladder guide
299
point trocar along a line from the left anterior-superior iliac spine to the lobe of the right ear, Once you pierce the diaphragm, dip point downward
right side of the heart guide
300
If an embalmer elevated a gravity percolator ten feet above the injection site how many pounds of potential pressure would be created?
five
301
What type of anticoagulant will breakup clots by causing the mineral particles of the blood to fall out of suspension?
Precipitants
302
What is lipolysis
The decomposition of fats
303
The temperature at which decomposition of the human body progresses most rapidly is:
98 degrees Fahrenheit
304
Which blood vessel continues as the brachial artery
Axillary artery
305
Which artery should be raised and injected to facilitate the embalming of the body between the antecubital fossa and the wrist?
Axillary
radial
306
What type of solution will have its solvent drawn through a semi-permeable membrane into a more concentrated solution?
Hypotonic solution
307
The individual for whom “Hunters Canal” is named is
John Hunter
308
The largest singular bone of the face is the
mandible
309
The horizontal, horse- shoe shaped portion of the mandible is known as the
body
