Embryology in USS Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What is the Foetal Anomaly Screening Programme? (FASP)

A

It sets guidelines and standards for foetal screening and anomaly detection

This ensures high standards of screening and national consistency

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2
Q

When are the pregnancy points of screening?

A
  1. first trimester

(10-14 weeks)

  1. second trimester

(18 - 20/26 weeks)

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3
Q

When is screening undertaken in the first trimester?

What is this?

A

At 10 - 14 weeks

This is known as a dating USS (ultrasound scan)

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4
Q

What is the purpose of a Dating USS?

A
  1. estimating current gestational age

2. calculating the due date (40 weeks)

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5
Q

What tests are also undertaken on women who opt for screening?

A
  1. maternal blood sample

2. nuchal translucency

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6
Q

What is the abnormalities are tested for at 10-14 weeks?

A

Testing for:

  1. T21 - Down’s syndrome
  2. T18 - Edwards’ syndrome
  3. T13 - Patau’s syndrome
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7
Q

What is involved in the combined screening test in the first trimester?

A
  1. Papp-A
  2. HcG
  3. Nuchal translucency
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8
Q

What is involved in the quad test during first trimester screening?

A
  1. AFP
  2. HCG
  3. uE3
  4. Inhibin A
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9
Q

What is measured in nuchal translucency (NT)?

What is normal?

A

The thickness of the skin at the back of the neck

Normal is < 3.5 mm

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10
Q

What may an abnormal NT scan be due to?

A

It may be excessively oedematous

This is due to blockage of fluid in the developing foetal lymphatic system

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11
Q

Why is nuchal translucency only significant if measured between 10 and 14 weeks of gestation?

A

The foetal lymphatic system is developing and the peripheral resistance of the placenta is high

After 14 weeks, the lymphatic system is developed and will drain away excess fluid

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12
Q

What is the problem with using a nuchal translucency scan after 14 weeks?

A

Any abnormalities causing fluid accumulation may seem to correct

They can go undetected by nuchal screening

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13
Q

What causes Down’s syndrome?

A

Non-disjunction (92%) or translocation (4%)

It affects 1 in 800 births

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14
Q

What is the ethical dilemma involved in deciding whether to terminate a trisomy 21 pregnancy?

A

The severity of the physical and intellectual disability is difficult to predict

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15
Q

How does the intellectual disability in trisomy 21 usually present?

A

Mild to severe

Social skills are usually good

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16
Q

What % of Down’s syndrome babies are affected by congenital heart disease and AVSD/VSD?

A

congenital heart disease - 40%

AVSD/VSD - 80%

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17
Q

What are the typical physical characteristics of a baby with Down’s syndrome?

A
  1. small chin
  2. slanted eyes
  3. flat nasal bridge
  4. single palmer crease
  5. large tongue
  6. shorter stature
  7. sleep apnoea
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18
Q

What % of Down’s syndrome children have visual and hearing problems?

A

80% have visual problems - including cataracts

90% have hearing problems - otitis media

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19
Q

How independent are children with Down’s syndrome?

A

They can live semi-independent lives and attend mainstream schools

20
Q

What is trisomy 18?

What causes it?

A

Edwards syndrome

It is caused by non-disjunction and affects 1 in 3-5000 births

21
Q

What is the median lifespan for someone with Edwards syndrome?

A

5 - 15 days

60% will die in utero

22
Q

What are the physical abnormalities of someone with Edwards syndrome?

A
  1. small stature
  2. microcephaly
  3. cleft lip
  4. low set ears and small jaw
  5. clenched hand/fist
23
Q

What is trisomy 13 and what causes it?

A

Patau syndrome

It is caused by non-disjunction or translocation

it affects 1 in 5-10,000 births

24
Q

What is the median lifespan for someone with Patau syndrome?

A

Median lifespan is 5 - 15 days

60% will die in utero

25
What are the physical abnormalities of someone with Patau syndrome?
1. severe mental disability 2. small stature 3. seizures 4. facial clefts
26
How is the foetal head formed?
From the neural crest and mesoderm Followed by intramembranous ossification
27
What is anencephaly and what is it caused by?
Failure of fetal skull formation leads to the exposure of brain contents to pressure effects
28
What is the mortality and detection rate of anencephaly?
100% mortality rate 98% detection rate in first trimester
29
When does the gastrointestinal tract develop?
It derives from endoderm during week 3
30
What are the 3 parts of the gastrointestinal tract?
1. foregut goes from oesophagus to upper part of duodenum 2. midgut runs to 2/3 along the transverse colon 3. hindgut runs to the rectum
31
What happens to the midgut during the 6th week of development?
It herniates through the umbilical cord It undergoes 270o rotation anticlockwise This is completed by the 12th week
32
What characterises an abnormal herniation?
If herniation remains after 12 weeks
33
What is gastroschisis and how many births does it affect?
Herniation of the intestinal contents This is most commonly the bowel, but may include liver and stomach Affects 4 in 1000 births
34
How is gastroschisis corrected?
Surgery after birth
35
How many births are affected by omphalocele?
1 in 4000
36
How does omphalocele differ to gastroschisis?
1. associated with higher rates of genetic defects 2. involves the umbilical cord 3. poorer outcome
37
What types of screening happen in the second trimester?
Anatomy/anomaly USS This occurs between the 18th and the 20th-26th week
38
What type of USS is included in second trimester screening? What specific conditions are tested for?
Detailed examination of the heart and brain Looking for: 1. spina bifida 2. cleft 3. cardiac defects
39
What is significant about the developmental period of the nervous system?
it is one of the earliest systems to develop (week 3) and last to complete The long period of development means it is susceptible to insult
40
What is the incidence of spina bifida?
1 in 500 to 1 in 2000
41
What causes spina bifida?
A failure of the vertebral arches to close This is most commonly lumbar (75%) and sacral (15%)
42
What can prevent spina bifida?
1. folic acid supplementation
43
What drug is known to increase risk of spina bifida?
Sodium valproate (1%) This is a drug used to treat epilepsy
44
What are the physical impairments that are present due to spina bifida?
The level of physical impairment depends upon the location of defect 1. leg weakness 2. bladder or bowel incontinence 3. sexual dysfunction
45
What is the risk associated with spina bifida?
Risk of developmental delay
46
What causes a cleft lip? What is the incidence?
Failure of fusion by 12 weeks Incidence is 1 in 1000
47
What are midline clefts associated with?
Higher rates of genetic conditions