Emergencies Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

Patient presents with acute hypotension, collapse, wheeze/stridor, hoarse voice, swollen lips and tongue and N+V- what is the diagnosis?

A

anaphylaxis reaction

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2
Q

what is the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?

A

exposure to allergen results in IgE antibody production and inflammatory mediator release from mast cells/basophils. This causes local histamine release, which results in bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and increased vessel permeability.

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3
Q

what is the management of acute anaphylaxis?

A
  1. ABC + secure airway + IV access + 100% O2
  2. Adrenaline 0.5mg IM (1:1000) every 5 mins as required (if over 3 times call for help)
  3. 10 mg Chlorphenamine
  4. 200mg IV hydrocortisone
  5. IV saline fluid challenge
  6. Nebulised SABA
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4
Q

what investigation would indicate a true anaphylaxis?

A

test serum tryptase up to 12 hours after the event (indicates degranulation of mast cells)

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5
Q

where is the best location for an IM injection of adrenaline 0.5mg (1:1000)

A

anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

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6
Q

what is the further management of a patient in anaphylaxis after initial resuscitation?

A

observation for 6-12 hours from the onset as biphasic reaction can happen
give epi-pen (x6)
3 day course of oral steroids

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7
Q

most likely diagnosis and some differentials in a patient with central chest pain, radiating to the arm/neck/jaw that is associated with exertion?

A
ACS
costochondritis
PE
GORD
pericarditis 
panic attack
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8
Q

what are some investigations for ACS?

A
CK-MB
Troponin I + T (specific to MI, trop I is more sensitive)
ECG
D-dimer to exclude PE 
ECHO
Angiogram
CXR
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9
Q

management of ACS?

A
MONA/ROMANCE:
Reassure
Oxygen
Morphine 10mg IV (+antiemetic) 
Aspirin 300mg
Nitrates 
Clopidogrel 300mg
Enoxiparin 2.5mg
ECG- if STEMI then PCI asap.
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10
Q

what is unstable angina?

A

angina with increased frequency and unpredictability

chest pain at rest

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11
Q

what does the ECG of unstable angina look like?

A

can be normal
ST depression
or T wave changes

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12
Q

what are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A
4H's and 4T's: 
Hypoxia 
Hypovoalemia 
Hypothermia 
Hyper/hypokalaemia 

Tension penumothorax
Tamponade
Thrombosis- PE
Toxins

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13
Q

management of cardiac tamponade?

A

thoractomy or pericardiocentesis

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14
Q

management of cardiac arrest?

A
ABCDE-secure airway
Oxygen 100%
Start CPR
call 2222/crash call 
IV access + adrenaline 0.5mg (1:1000)
shock if shockable rhythm
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15
Q

how do you calculate GCS?

A
Verbal: 
oriented 5
confused 4
words 3
sounds 2
none 1
Motor:
obeys commands 6 
localises to pain 5
withdraws from pain 4
flexion to pain 3 
extending to pain 2
none 1
Eye opening: 
spontaneous 4
to speech 3
to pain 2
none 1
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16
Q

immediate investigations in unresponsive patient?

A
blood glucose 
ECG
U+E
urine 
blood cultures 
check for trauma sites
17
Q

what are the indications for emergency intubation of a patient?

A
GCS <8
unable to maintain own airway 
inadequate ventilation 
facial injury compromises airway 
inhalation injury
18
Q

what are the clinical features of opiate overdose?

A

pinpoint pupils

respiratory depression

19
Q

management of opiate overdose?

A

IM/IV naloxone (opiate receptor antagonist)

20
Q

what are the clinical features of cocaine/amphetamine overdose?

A
tachycardia 
mydriasis 
euphoria 
agitation 
convulsions
tremor
21
Q

management of cocaine/amphetamine overdose?

22
Q

features of paracetamol overdose?

A

hepatic necrosis: jaundice, RUQ pain, encephalopathy , N+V, oliguria, metabolic acidosis

23
Q

investigations of paracetamol overdose?

A
paracetamol serum level 
LFT
glucose 
U+E
prothrombin time
INR
ABG- metabolic acidosis
24
Q

what is the management of paracetamol overdose?

A

activated charcoal if <1hrs

N-acetylcycsteine if >100mg/L paracetamol at 4hrs

25
what is the kings college criteria for liver transplant?
acidosis raised creatinine PT>100 encephalopathy
26
what are the features of tricyclic overdose?
anticholinergic: dry mouth, blurred vision, retention, dilated pupils CNS: dizzy, headache, confusion cardio: arrhythmias, heart block and reduced seizure threshold seizures
27
management of tricyclic overdose?
activated charcoal if <1-2hrs IV sodium bicarbonate diazepam for seizures IV fluids if hypotensive
28
management of status epilepticus?
``` ABCDE buccal/IM midazolam, rectal diazepam IV lorazepam IV phenytoin Intubation and GA ```
29
what are some of the complications of status epilepticus?
``` hypoxia -> ischaemia rhabdomyolysis leading to AKI (due to rise in creatinine kinase causing increase in myoglobin and deposition in renal tubules) hyperkalaemia -> cell breakdown lactic acidosis aspiration pneumonia ```
30
management of delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal?
``` ABCDE benzo if seizures pabrine (to avoid wernicke) chlordiazepoxide fluid CT head ```
31
what is the primary survey conducted at a trauma call?
``` cABCDE: c- c-spine control A- airway B- breathing with haemorrhage control C-HR, CRP, BP D- pupils, temp, GCS, BM, peripheral neuropathy ```
32
pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax?
gas enters pleural space and pressure builds with each breath, causing mediastinal shift and compression of the heart - cardiogenic shock and death
33
signs of a basal skull fracture?
battle sign - bruising over mastoid process racoon eyes- pre-orbital haematoma CSF otorrhoea/rhinorrhea Haemotympanium
34
features of PE?
``` acute chest pain sharp worse on inspiration dyspnoea haemoptysis reduced spO2 ```
35
what are the ECG findings of PE?
S1Q3T3
36
what are the investigations of
D-dimer CTPA USS doppler
37
management of PE?
LMWH (Subcut dalteparin) or NAOC (fondaparinux) -> for 5 days warfarin for 3 months (6 months if unprovoked)
38
management of DKA?
IV insulin - 0.1 units/kg/hour once blood glucose <15mmol/l start dextrose infusion IV fluid infusion