Emergency Medicine Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Aspects of A-E assessment

A

Identify a problem and deal with it as going along…

  • Airway - patent? look, listen and feel –> head tilt + chin lift, jaw thrust, airway adjunct
  • Breathing - RR, O2 Sats (>94% - scale 1, 88-92% - scale 2 if COPD), resp exam, ABG –> Oxygen (15L/min O2 non-rebreather mask)
  • Circulation - HR, BP, CRT, cardio exam –> IV fluids
  • Disability - BM, pupils (PEARL - pupils equal and reactive to light), GCS/AVPU, abdo/neuro exam
  • Exposure - assess everything but not all at the same time –> calf tenderness, bleeding, bruising, rashes etc.

NOTE: if put in intervention say to examiner I would reassess previous steps e.g. A&B if gave IV fluids are there any changes

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2
Q

Anaemia Ix? Mx?

A

Ix: FBC, haematinics, B12/folate, OGD

Blood transfusion threshold: Hb <70 or <80 AND ACS

Other options: Fe infusion, ferrous fumarate

NOTE: anaemia can exacerbate chest pain/ACS

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3
Q

Significance of Atorvastatin + Clarithromycin?

A

Drug-drug interaction –> risk of liver damage + rhabdomyolysis

Withhold atorvastatin

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4
Q

Critical drugs - DO NOT EMIT when put on NBM in hospital

A
  1. Parkinson’s drugs (Levodopa, Carbidopa)
  2. Antiepileptics (Na Val, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam)
  3. Antiretrovirals (-avir)
  4. Steroids (long-term)

Routes –> patches, IV, NG tube

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5
Q

Alcohol withdrawal management?

A
  1. Chlordiazepoxide (decreasing regimen + PRN) - prevent alcohol withdrawal Sx (anxiety, shakes etc.) + CIWA scoring (dose increased inf CIWA score increases)
  2. Pabrinex (thiamine, B1) - prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy (ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion)
  3. Bloods - coagulation (injury, bleeds), LFTs
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6
Q

Major hemorrhage GI Mx?

A

High risk of variceal bleed:

  • MASSIVE –> balloon tamponade
  • Assess - A-E approach:
    • Circulation –> blood transfusion (Hb <70) but if haemodynamically unstable and waiting give IV fluids
    • Drugs
      • IV Terlipressin(/Somatostatin) - blanked vascoconstriction
      • Ceftriaxone/Norfloxacin (apparently helps outcomes)
    • Intervention - endoscopic band ligation​​

F1 essentials: 2x large bore cannula, VBG, G&S + X-Match, bleep the bleed registrar (arrange endoscopy)

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7
Q

When carrying out confusion assessment, what should you compare to?

A

Make sure to compare to baseline not what you would perceive as normal

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8
Q

Constipation in elderly patients:

  • Common drugs causing constipation?
  • How would you Ix constipation?
  • How would you Ix urinary retention?
  • How would you Mx urosepsis?
A

Drugs causing constipation:

  • Opioids e.g. codeine
  • CCBs e.g. amlodipine
  • Fe supplements
  • Anticholinergics e.g. atropine
  • Bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate
  • Parkinson’s drugs e.g. L-dopa

Ix:

  • Constipation - stool chart + PR exam
  • Urinary retention - bladder scan, catheterise, urine dip + MC&S

Mx Urosepsis:

  • Sepsis 6 - 3 in (O2, IV fluids, abx), 3 out (BC, VBG, UO)
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9
Q

Delirium definition? Common causes?

Delirium screen breakdown? Mx?

A

Def: Acute confusional state caused by a physical condition

Causes: U PINCHES ME

  • Urinary retention
  • Pain
  • Infections
  • Nutrition
  • Constipation –> stool chart + PR exam
  • Hydration
  • Endo & electrolytes
  • Stroke
  • Medications & alcohol
  • Environmental

Delirium screen:

  • FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, BC, Ca, TFTs, B12/folate
  • Urine dip + MC&S
  • CXR, possibly CT-head

Management: Tx cause

  • Conservative: lighting, clocks, 1:1 nursing, adequate hydration, laxatives, involve family/carers
  • SOS (risk to themselves/others):
    • Lorazepam (PO/IM/IV)
    • Haloperidol (PO/IM) - be careful if Parkinson’s –> worsens Sx
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10
Q

How to think about inf for abx? What are the best broad-spectrum abx? Abx for pseudomonas cover?

A
  • where is the infection? e.g. resp, skin, cardio etc.
  • what are the common organisms that cause these infections? mainly G+ve or -ve?

G+ve: staph, strep, C. diff –> pneumonia, skin inf, colitis, sepsis

  • B-lactams:
    • Penicillins (peptidoglycan cell wall) - amox, co-amox, fluclox, tazocin
    • Cephalosporins (cover -ve’s as well) - ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, cefalexin
    • Carbapenems (holy grail) - meropenem
    • NOTE: ESBL (extended spectrum b-lactamase) - bacteria that are not sensitive to Pen + Cephalosporins
    • NOTE: Carbapenemase - resistant to carbapenems as well
  • Macrolides - for pen allergic = Clari, erythromycin
  • Glycopeptides - vancomycin, teicoplanin (good if pen allergic)
  • Oxazolidinones - linezolid (rarely used)

G-ve: E.coli, P. aeruginosa, K. pneumo, salmonella –> UTI, pneumonia, GI inf

  • Aminoglycosides (nephrotoxic –> monitoring) - gent, amikacin
  • Fluoroquinolones - cipro/levo/moxifloxacin
  • NOTE: broad spectrum so some +ve cover

Other antibiotic types:

  • Tetracyclines - doxy
    • Broad-spectrum intracellular pathogens (chlamydia, mycoplasma) –> STIs, pneumonia
  • Nitroimidazoles - metro
    • Anaerobes (c. diff, bacterial vaginosis) –> aspiration pneumo, abscesses
    • NOTE: nitrofurantoin (related compound) - concentrates in bladder –> UTI

Best broad-spectrum abx:

  • Co-amox: most G-ve AND +ve AND anaerobes
    • Does not cover pseudomonas + Neisseria spp.
  • Tazocin: as above AND pseudomonas
    • Does not cover Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • Meropenem: EVERYTHING (bar carbapenemase bacteria)

Abx for pseudomonas cover: gentamicin, amikacin, ciprofloxacin, ceftazidime

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11
Q

Opioids:

  1. Strength of different opioids
  2. Forms of oral morphine
  3. Guide to giving morphine
  4. When to give oxycodone
  5. Breakthrough analgesia
  6. Conversion between opioid doses
A

Strength:

  • Weak - codeine, dihydrocodeine
  • Moderate - tramadol (surgeons love)
  • Strong - morphine, oxycodone, buprenorphine, fentanyl

Oral morphine has 2 forms:

  • Oral morphine has 2 forms:
    • Immediate-release (e.g. oromorph) - max 4-hourly
    • Modified-release (e.g. MST Continus/Zomorph/Morphgesic SR) - 12-hourly (BD) OR 24-hourly (OD)

Guide to morphine:

  1. If can’t tolerate oral e.g. vomiting alot –> oral dose/2 = IV (& SC) dose
  2. Immediate-release PRN (max 4-hourly) –> see how much using
  3. If using a huge amount –> convert to modified-release (12/24-hourly):
    • Add up total daily PRN dose = X
    • 24-hourly = X (OD); 12-hourly = X/2 (BD)

​When to give oxycodone: renal impairment (eGFR <30mL/min)

  • Immediate-release: oxycodone oral solution, oxynorm
  • Modified-release: oxycontin
  • NOTE: same logic as above

Breakthrough analgesia:

  • Oral morphine/oxycodone
  • 1/10-1/6 of total daily dose of modified-release morphine

Example: 60mg Oromorph –> 30mg MST BD + 6-10mg breakthrough dose

Conversion - 10mg oral morphine:

  • Oxycodone - 5mg oral (x/2), 2.5mg IV (x/4)
  • Tramadol/Codeine - 100mg oral/IV (x*10) - NOTE: codeine has no IV option
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12
Q

What should you always check for elderly patients?

A
  • Polypharmacy
  • Physical & cognitive baseline
  • Bowels & bladder
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13
Q

Septic shock definition? Neutropenic sepsis criteria & abx Tx?

A

Septic shock = sepsis + haemodynamic instability

Neutropenic sepsis:

  • Neutrophils <0.5
  • Temp >38 degrees
  • Tx = Tazocin
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14
Q

How to determine different causes of shock & Tx?

A
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15
Q

Emergency station common topics

A
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16
Q

If incomprehensible noises during acute station what do I do?

A

GCS measurement:

  • Eyes (4)
  • Voice (5)
  • Movement (6)
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17
Q

Opiate overdose Tx? What if patient becomes unrousable again?

A

IV access –> STAT dose naloxone 400mcg - after 1-min of no improvement –> 800mcg

Stay by the bedside until improved resp rate

If the patient becomes unrousable again - Naloxone has a short half-life so may still be opioid toxic –> Naloxone infusion

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18
Q

Dx if haemodynamically unstable + melaena? What would you do? What type of blood is given?

What if you don’t know what caused the bleed?

A

Upper GI bleed

Activate major haemorrhage protocol -2222, call seniors, contact gastro reg on call

O ‘-ve’ blood initially then group-specific/cross-matched

If can’t get history assume variceal in nature –> IV abx broad-spectrum + Terlipressin (vasoconstriction - less blood loss)

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19
Q

How do you confirm anaphylaxis with blood test?

A
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20
Q

Anaphylaxis Mx (acute & chronic)

A

ABCDE

  • Stop suspected cause
  • Secure airway, give 100% oxygen, +/- intubate if respiratory obstruction imminent
  • IM 0.5mg adrenaline (1:1000)
  • Treat bronchospasm – salbutamol +/- ipratropium

Going forward:

  • Maintain fluids + monitor pulse oximetry, ECG and BP
  • If still hypotensive, may need transfer to ICU and an IVI of adrenaline +/- aminophylline (bronchodilator) and nebulised salbutamol

After acute episode:

  • Admit to ward and monitor ECG, monitor for 6hrs for biphasic reaction
  • Measure mast cell tryptase 1-6 hours after = confirm anaphylaxis
  • Continue chlorpheniramine
  • Suggest MedicAlert bracelet with name of culprit allergen
  • Teach about self-injected adrenaline & give auto-injector
  • Skin prick tests showing specific IgE to help identify allergens to avoid
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21
Q

Sepsis definition? Septic shock def?

A

Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysreg host response to infection

Septic shock = persistent hypotension (<90/MAP <65) or lactate >2 despite fluid resus (30ml/kg)

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22
Q

What is qSOFA score?

A

qSOFA = risk of ITU admission/death at the point of presentation with sepsis

  • Hypotensive, altered mental status, tachypnoea (>22)
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23
Q

What is sepsis 6?

A

3 in, 3 out

All within 1hr

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24
Q

Metformin use, impaired renal function + acidosis - what is going on?

A

Metformin induced lactic acidosis

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25
Elderly, T2DM, hyperglycaemia, hypernatremia - what is going on?
HHS (hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state)
26
What is a T1 hypersensitivity reaction? (anaphylaxis)
IgE mediated mast cell degranulation & histamine release
27
Anaphylaxis to penicillins - cross-reactivity?
3% to 3rd-gen cephalosporins - so ideally avoid
28
Fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, deranged LFTs, eosinophilia - Dx?
Drug reaction with eosinophilia and Systemic Sx (DRESS)
29
Contact of a patient with meningococcal meningitis - do what?
Cipro 500mg STAT dose (2g IM Ceftriaxone if pregnant)
30
G-ve diplococci on CSF gram stain?
Neisseria meningitides
31
Encapsulated yeast on india ink staining of CSF?
Cryptococcal meningitis (in HIV)
32
TCA overdose - features? Ix? Mx?
Features: * Anticholinergic - dry mouth, blurred vision, dilated pupils * Cardiac - sinus tachy, arrhythmia, vasodilation * CNS -reduced GCS, seizures, delirium Ix: ECG, blood gas Mx: A-E approach * Sodium bicarbonate 8.4% - arrythmias & QTc prolongation * No features/Ix findings after 6hrs = discharge
33
Reduced GCS, pupillary changes, resp depression - Dx?
Sedative toxidrome - opiates, barbituates, benzos, baclofen, clonidine
34
Confusion, autonomic dysfunction, neuromuscular hyperactivity - Dx?
Serotonin syndrome
35
Adult with head injury what imaging to do? Signs of basal skull fracture?
36
7th (& 3rd) CN palsy following head injury indicates what?
Basal skull fracture
37
Depressed skull fracture (open head injury) - Mx?
IV abx + tetanus booster
38
Headaches + poor concentration after head injury
Post-concussion syndrome
39
Mannitol/hypertonic saline is used for what neurologically?
Osmotic diuretic used to acutely lower ICP
40
Unilateral ptosis + down & out eye + fixed dilated pupil indicates what?
3rd nerve palsy
41
Inability to abduct eye after head injury?
6th nerve palsy - false localising sign w/ raised ICP
42
Status epilepticus - def? Triggers in epilepsy? Mx?
Tonic-clonic seizure ≥ 5 mins or ≥ 2 seizures without complete neurological recovery between * Refractory = continued despite using ≥2 antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) incl benzo. Triggers in epilepsy: * drug withdrawal, dose change, non-compliance * Intercurrent illness, metabolic derangement * Drugs lowering seizure threshold: * abx (penicillin, cephalosporins, metro, isoniazid, imipenem) * TCA, Aminophyline * Cyclosporin, Tramadol
43
Alcohol withdrawal seizures - when?
12-24hrs after last drink - CIWA score
44
Acute paralysis + dysarthria following Tx for hyponatremia?
Osmotic demyelination syndrome
45
Focal weakness following seizure?
Todd's paralysis
46
Absent p-waves, tall tented T-waves, broad QRS complexes?
Hyperkalaemia
47
Sharp chest pain relieved by leaning forward, saddle-shaped ST-segment on ECG?
Pericarditis (secondary to uraemia)
48
Polyarthropathy, fractures & calcific skin lesions on a background of CKD?
Renal osteodystrophy
49
How do you treat ph\<7 on blood gas in DKA?
Ask for senior support --\> they would give dilute 1.26% bicarbonate to bring pH up to 7 but no higher After this improvement will occur spontaneously DO NOT USE 8.4% BICARBONATE
50
What is the lethal triad of trauma? Mx?
* Hypothermia (reduced circulating volume) * Acidosis (LA) * Coagulopathy (coag factor consumption and reduced operation from hypothermia) NOTE: normally happens in severe trauma with sign. blood loss **Mx:** trauma laparotomy
51
Fluids: * Normal maintenance requirements for the patient if NBM (H20, Na, K, UO)? * Maintenance fluids * Resus fluids
Normal requirements if NBM: * H20 - 25-30ml/kg/day (cardiac disease is 20-25) * Na - 1-2mmol/kg/day * K - 0.5-1mmol/kg/day * Glucose - 50-100g/day (prevent ketosis) * UO should be \>0.5ml/kg/hr Maintenance fluids - traditional fluid regimen of '1 salty + 2 sweet' * 1L saline 0.9% + 20mmol KCl (over 8hrs) * 1L dextrose 5% + 20mmol KCl (over 8hrs) * 1L dextrose 5% + 20mmol KCl (over 8hrs) * NOTE: surgeons often prescribe Hartmann's instead of NaCl as isotonic --\> less likely to cause hyponatremia (above regimen provides too much H2O & too much Na) Resus fluids - 500ml fluid bolus 0.9% NaCl over 15-20 minutes (250ml if HF)
52
How to Tx asystole?
IV adrenaline
53
Which airway device provides protection for the lungs from regurgitated stomach contents? Which airway device is often used in cardiac arrest?
Tracheal tube - seal off airway = protection from aspiration i-gel (supraglottic) airway = easier to place (than tracheal tube)
54
confusion, coarse tremor, jerking leg movements + bipolar disorder - Dx?
Lithium toxicity
55
Fat emboli presentation? DDx?
Trauma --\> multiple fractures * Followed by early-onset (within 24 hours) hypoxia, dyspnea, and tachypnea * Followed by Neuro findings - acute confusional state/altered GCS/seizures/focal deficits * Finally petechial rash (1/3 cases) DDx: PE (but no neuro Sx)
56
Drugs for cardiac arrest?
DC shock (150J biphasic) Adrenaline 1mg IV (10ml 1:10,000) Amiodarone 300mg IV (if shockable rhythm)
57
Trauma patient initial Mx?
Airway and _cervical spine_ Next - CT-head + CXR
58
Common tumour markers - hormones, enzymes, tumour antigens, monoclonal abs?
Hormones: * **Calcitonin** - medullary thyroid carcinoma * ACTH, ADH - small cell bronchial carcinoma (paraneoplastic) * beta-HCG - testicular germ-cell tumours, choriocarcinoma Enzymes: * **NSE** (neurone specific enolase) - small cell lung cancer (70% of untreated patients) * ALP - paget disease of bone, mets to bone/liver * LDH - detects necrosis e.g. in ovarian cancer, testicular germ cell tumours, lymphomas, Ewing's sarcoma Tumour antigens: * **AFP** - hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma * **PSA** - prostatic carcinoma (or BPH/prostatitis) * CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) - post-op colorectal carcinoma; lacks the specifity or sensitivity to establish a diagnosis of cancer Monoclonal abs: * **CA 19-9** - pancreatic, gastric, hepatobiliary carcinoma * CA 15-3 - breast carcinoma * CA 125 - ovarian carcinoma
59
Most accurate way to assess burns area?
Lund and Browder chart
60
Emergency focused Hx?
A – **Allergies** M – **Medications** P – **Past Pertinent medical history** L – **Last Oral Intake** E – **Events Leading Up** To Present Illness / Injury
61
Post-op process? Peri-operative RFs? Post-op complications?
Process: * A-E * Focused Hx * Input (fluid, food) --\> Output (urine, drain, stool) * Review prev admission Hx + operation note * Review Ix e.g. blood, scan, histology * Escalation plan (ITU, ward-based care), DNAR status RFs: * Patient - obesity, IS, malnutrition, steroids, DM * Operation - contamination/soiling, foreign body, prosthesis, duration Complications: * Immediate \<24hrs: haemorrhage, anaesthetic (anaphylactic, hypotension, agitation) * Early (3-4 days): * Pyrexia - Chest, Catheter, Cut, Cannula, Central venous line, Calf (DVT) * Anastomotic leak, collection, paralytic ileus, prosthesis inf * Late: * Anaemia * Malnutrition * Dumping syndrome (if vagus nerve severed --\> stomach dumps food into duodenum without digestion --\> very tired after eating) * Reoccurrence * Incisional hernia * Chronic pain
62
Blood transfusion reactions - Immediate? Delayed?
Immediate (\<24hrs): * Immune: * Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (ABO incompatibility) * Anti-A/B abs activating complement pathway --\> inflammatory cytokine release * Features: * Early - fever, low BP, anxiety, red urine * Late - low BP, widespread haemorrhage secondary to DIC * Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) * Donor abs against recipient HLA antigens (neutrophil, leukocyte) * Within 6hrs - sudden dyspnoea, severe hypoxemia, low BP, fever * Resolves with supportive care within 2-4 days * Anaphylaxis - allergic to protein components in donor transfusion * Itchy rash, angioedema, SoB, vomiting, lightheaded, low BP * Non-immune: * Bacterial infection * Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) * Acute/worsening resp compromise/pul oedema up to 12hrs post-transfusion Delayed (\>24hrs): * Immune: * Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR) * Abs to antigens e.g. Rhesus/Kidd * 3-13 days post-transfusion * Sudden drop in Hb, fever, jaundice, haemoglobinuria * Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) * Abs against donor leukocytes/HLA antigens * Fever during transfusion, no haemolysis * Normally if received multiple transfusions/women with multiple pregnancies * Post-transfusion purpura (PTP) * Adverse reaction to blood/platelet transfusion when body produces allo-abs to introduced platelets' antigens --\> destroy patient's platelets --\> thrombocytopenia * 5-12 days post-transfusion * Graft versus host disease (GvHD) * After receiving transplanted tissue from a genetically different person * WBCs in donated tissue (graft) recognise recipient as foreign --\> attack host cells * Can also occur in blood transfusion if blood has not been irradiated/treated with approved pathogen reduction system * Non-immune: * Viral infection * Malaria * Prions
63
Types of airway management? Airway management procedure?
Artificial airway types: * Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) - prevent tongue blocking the airway/upper airway muscle relaxation in unresponsive individual (no cough/gag reflex) * Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) - used in responsive individuals/jaw clenched (more risk of soft tissue damage) * Endotracheal airway (ETA) with intubation - if can't breath on their own (need mech ventilation)/planned surgery requiring general anaesthetic, protects the airway from aspiration * Supraglottic airway devices - step prior to intubation (elective procedures, cardiac arrests, prehospital airway Mx) * Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) - temporary open airway during anaesthesia or life-saving measure during difficult airway intubation (≥ 3 attempts of 10mins each) * iGel - as above but prevent aspiration & has port for NG tube insertion Airway management: * Basic (non-invasive): * Head tilt & chin lift * Jaw thrust * Bag-valve mask * Advanced (invasive/specialised): * OPA/NPA * Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)/iGel * ETA with intubation * Rapid sequence induction (RSI) of anaesthesia & intubation * Cricothyroidotomy (emergency procedure - between thyroid & cricoid cartilage) * Tracheostomy (2nd/3rd tracheal rings - surgical procedure for temp/permanent intubation)
64
Management of poisoning \<1hr since ingestion, conscious, protected airway?
oral activated charcoal within 1hr
65
Treatment of high INR? Target?
* Any bleeding: stop Warfarin AND _IV_ vit K slowly * **If major bleed = ADD dried PCC/FFP** * INR @24hrs --\> continue Tx if INR high, continue Warfarin when INR \<5 * INR \>8: stop Warfarin AND _oral_ Vit K * INR @24hrs --\> continue Tx if INR high, continue Warfarin when INR \<5 * INR 5-8: miss dose of Warfarin --\> reduce maintenance dose Target: 2.5 (2-3 range)
66
Drugs for cardiac arrest?
DC shock (150J biphasic) Adrenaline 1mg IV (10ml 1:10,000) Amiodarone 300mg IV (if shockable rhythm)
67
Drugs for anaphylaxis?
Adrenaline 0.5mg IM (0.5ml 1:1000) Hydrocortisone 200mg IV Chlorphenamine 10mg IV
68
Seizure drugs?
Lorazepam 4mg IV (diazepam 10mg PR if no IV access)
69
Hypoglycaemia drugs?
20% glucose 75ml IV (repeat as needed) over a time period up to 20 mins * 2nd line - glucagon 1mg IM (if no IV access, not ideal if anticoagulated as IM + causes nausea/flushing * NOTE: risk of aspiration of glucose gel in an unconscious patient
70
Hyperkalaemia drugs?
10% Ca gluconate 10ml IV over 5 mins THEN 10 units Actrapid insulin added over 30 mins AND 100ml 20% glucose
71
Bradycardia drugs?
Atropine 500mcg IV (repeat every 3-5mins to max 3mg)
72
SVT drugs?
Adenosine 6mg IV (then 12mg then 12mg) * Must be given as bolus + flushed quickly via large vein
73
VT drugs (without adverse signs)?
Amiodarone 300mg IV over 20-60mins
74
Rapid tranquillisation of agitated patient @risk to self/others - drugs?
**Lorazepam 1-2mg PO/IM** or Olanzapine 5-10mg PO/IM * Give oral if possible, give half if elderly/renal impairment
75
Critical drugs - DO NOT EMIT when put on NBM in hospital
1. Parkinson's drugs (Levodopa, Carbidopa) 2. Antiepileptics (Na Val, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam) 3. Antiretrovirals (-avir) 4. Steroids (long-term) - stopping abruptly --\> Addisonian crisis Routes --\> patches, IV, NG tube
76
Opiate overdose Tx? What if patient becomes unrousable again?
IV access --\> STAT dose naloxone 400mcg - after 1-min of no improvement --\> 800mcg Stay by the bedside until improved resp rate If the patient becomes unrousable again - Naloxone has a short half-life so may still be opioid toxic --\> Naloxone infusion
77
Torsade de Pointes (TdP) - Tx?
Broad-complex irregular tachycardia where the size and shape of the QRS varies complex to complex within any given lead (polymorphic) * Increased QT interval increases the risk e.g. drugs (clari, amiodarone) Magnesium sulfate IV 2g over 10 minutes