Emergency Medicine Flashcards
(116 cards)
Dx
- IgE-mediated, immediate onset reaction to protein antigen
- prior sensitizing exposure to antigen required
Anaphylaxis
Dx
- occurs on initial exposure to antigen
- not IgE mediated but clinically identical to anaphylaxis
Anaphylactoid reaction
When does biphasic anaphylactic reaction occur?
4-32h after initial episode
- due to release of secondary mediators, causing late-phase response
- > IL4, IL5, TNF-alpha
What is protracted anaphylaxis?
- refractory resp distress or hypotension despite appropriate medical rx
Type of hypersensitivity reaction
- immediate hypersensitivity - IgE mediated (e.g. urticaria)
Type I
Type of hypersensitivity reaction
- cytotoxic reaction - IgM and IgG mediated (e.g. Goodpasture syndrome)
Type II
Type of hypersensitivity reaction
- immune complex reaction - soluble immune complexes and complement mediated (e.g. serum sickness)
Type III
Type of hypersensitivity reaction
- delayed-type reaction - lymphocyte mediated (e.g. contact sensitivity)
Type IV
What cells degranulate in anaphylaxis?
Mast cells and basophils
- release of preformed primary mediators (histamines, proteases, eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors, and heparin)
- due to membrane bound IgE on cells
Common causes of urticaria?
- IgE mediated
- direct mast cell release
- complement mediated
- arachidonic acid metabolism
- physical (cold, sun, etc)
- mastocytosis
Management of anaphylaxis?
ABCs
- d/c antigen exposure
- 2 large bore IV
- cardiac and O2 monitoring
EPI
- 0.3-0.5 mg IM adults
- 0.01 mg/kg IM kids (max dose 0.3mg)
- repeat 5-15min x1 if no response
- epi drip if no response and pt in extremis
0. 1mL of 1:1,000 epi diluted in 10cc NS at 1-2cc/min IV
methylprednisolone 1-2mg/kg IV (leukotriene production in delayed phase response)
diphenhydramine 1mg/kg IV (block H1 receptors)
ranitidine 1mg/kg IV (block H2 receptors)
- observe 6-8h
Standard management in bites?
- irrigate!!!
- tetanus, rabies vaccine, prophylactic abx prn
- check FB in wound
What do you administer to hypotensive pt not responding to bolus treated for anaphylaxis, if pt on b-blocker?
refractory hypotension = glucagon IV
What us Skeeter syndrome?
- local immune reaction to mosquito bites
What are mosquito vectors?
- malaria
- West Nile virus
- yellow fever
- dengue
- filariasis
What are tick vectors?
- Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- Lyme disease
What is potential pathogen in human bites that is resistant to Piperacillin and Ticarcillin?
- Eikenella corrodens
Treatment for human/dog/cat bite with established infection or prophylaxis for high risk bite?
Amoxicillin/Clavulante or Doxycycline (kid>9 yr), Ceftriaxone
Treatment mod-severe infection from human/dog/cat bite?
Ceftriaxone IM/IV +/- metronidazole
or Ticaricillin/clavulante or Pip-Tazo
if Pen allergy in adult
Ciprofloxacin +/- clindamycin
Pen allergy in kid
TMP/SMX +/- clindamycin
3 distinct zones of tissue in full thickness burns?
- zone of coagulation - white, charred central portion, necrotic tissue
- zone of stasis - red, may blanch with pressure initially but fragile blood supply may give way to AVN
- zone of hyperaemia - red, blanches with pressure, intact blood supply
Classification of burns
- thermal
- electric
- chemical
- radiation
Sequelae of electric burns?
- cardiac arrhythmia
- MSK injury to muscle/ligament/bone (high resistance of tissues) - compartment syndrome +/- rhabdo
- renal ATN due to CK
- CNS LOC, paralysis, resp depression, amnesia
- eye cataracts and keraunoparalysis from lightening (fixed dilated pupils)
Do you neutralize acid/alkali burns?
NO - exothermic reaction can worsen burn
-> irrigate with WATER
Do alkali burns cause coagulation or liquefaction more commonly?
- Liquefaction
alkali dissolves protein and collagen (liquefaction) penetrating deeper than acid burns