Emergency medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Target time for treatment 95% A+E pts?

A

4 hours

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2
Q

Factors increasing A+E strain?

A

warm, dry and sunny weather; local music festivals; national sports teams winning (mainly assault); major natural disasters; Mondays and Fridays/Saturdays (drinking)

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3
Q

How to deal with inappropriate A+E attendance and who?

A

triage by nurse; GPs working alongside ED Drs; patients prefer ED sometimes and can put strain on it rather than go to primary care where problem can be solved without a trip to the ED; may get some patients that turn up loads and are ‘crying wolf’

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4
Q

Major burn definition?

A

15% burn surface area (BSA) or 10% in child

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5
Q

When referred to burns specialist unit?

A

major then require resus and burns specialist treatment; also referred = inhaled, face, hands, feet, genitalia

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6
Q

First aid treatment for burns?

A

remove burnt clothing; irrigate for 10 mins (cool sterile saline); chemical burns = continuous irrigation; keep clean, cover with cling film, warm pt to stop shock

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7
Q

Assessing airways in burns?

A

assess from ICU; high flow O2; accurate hx vital (suspicion if injury in enclosed space); intubate if hypoxaemia/hypercapnia

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8
Q

S+Ss inhalational burns?

A

injury to face/neck, singed nasal hair, carbonaceous sputum, voice change, dyspnoea, soot area; systemic oedema can happen after fluid resus

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9
Q

Treatment for inhalational burns?

A

give continuous 100% O2 until carboxyhaemoglobin levels known, if raised continue until 10% for 6 hours; if high COHb levels then can be high cyanide from burning foam and suspect if also tissue poisoning; anaesthetist assessment needed, usually intubation with nasogastric before swelling needed (uncut endotracheal tube with >7.5mm diameter so bronchoscope passed)

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10
Q

C spine/chest injuries result in what?

A

can result in pneumothorax or flail chest (explosion)

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11
Q

Fluid resus in burns victims what and regime?

A

– extreme inflammatory response means lots of Hartmann’s needed to stop shock, using Parkland’s formula (vol in mils = 4 x body weight in kg x BSA % of burn); give 50% of this in first 8 hours then other half in next 16; may need other specific fluids; avoid colloid in first 24hrs due to colloid permeability; blood and clotting where needed and avoid IV in burnt skin; all products should be warmed and arterial and venous monitoring; minimum 0.5ml urine output for formula to work

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12
Q

How to measure BSA?

A

estimated by rule of nines (SEE BOOK FOR WALLACE RULE OF NINES) or palm of pt to estimate 1% BSA; Lund and Browder chart more accurate but longer to do; need to modify for burns in children

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13
Q

What S+Ss can be misleading and shouldn’t be taken into acc when assessing burn depth?

A

erythema, mild redness, blisters, oedema

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14
Q

What is a superficial burn?

A

red, painful with blistering but hair follicles intact

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15
Q

Deep dermal burn?

A

red, painful, peeling sheets rather than blistering, a few hair follicles intact

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16
Q

Full thickness burn?

A

pale and charred grey/black, no erythema, no hairs intact, skin is insensate, leathery and causes constriction if circumferential

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17
Q

Burn management?

A

• Analgesia should be given as painful; elevate to minimise risk of compartment syndrome and peripheral pulses monitored

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18
Q

Prognostic factors for burns?

A

BSA, pre-morbid conditions, inhalational injury and age

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19
Q

Most likely to drown?

A

usually in <5yrs and in adults can be associated with alcohol

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20
Q

Difference between distress and drowning?

A
  • Distress = pending danger as shouting for help but still afloat but struggling
  • Drowning = person already started to suffocate and usually silent
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21
Q

Initial management of drowning pt?

A

no CPR in water, immobilise C-spine, keep pt prone when out of water as water helps maintain venous return so don’t want venous collapse, hypoxaemia causes cardiac arrest so 100% oxygen and intubation with high PEEP (water dilutes surfactant so atelectasis more common)

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22
Q

Management of drowning pt after admission?

A

observe pt after drowning; can get pulmonary oedema; monitor = haemoptysis, basal crackles, CXR changes, hypoxia; asymptomatic after 4hrs discharge; 2wk CXR after to see if infected with anything

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23
Q

Other things to bear in mind with drowning pts?

A

hypothermia can mask clinical death so keep resussing until back at hospital aggressively (no pulse, breathing, muscle rigidity); hyperkalaemia = poor prognosis, ECG and end-tidal CO2 for diagnosing cardiac arrest

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24
Q

Causes of electric shock injuries?

A

utility working, poorly earthed appliances, appliances near water

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25
Q

Consequences from electric shocks?

A

physiological changes, thermal tissue destruction, secondary damage from muscle spasm and falls

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26
Q

Poor prognostic factors and explanations for electric shocks?

A

type of current (AC more dangerous than DC as can cause muscle spasm so victim won’t let go of source, AC cause VF and DC causes systole); energy delivered (applied voltage x current; can cause extreme heating meaning internal/external burns, coagulation necrosis); current pathway (where it goes through body, head and chest is worse); resistance encountered (fluid and electrolyte tissues conduct well; bone is most resistant and skin thickness can limit amount of current into body, hearts and nerves do badly so check these as they conduct electricity the best); contact duration (briefer = better)

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27
Q

Treatment of electric shocks?

A

turn source off; paradoxical triage (treat apparent dead first; resus long and aggressively); more fluids needed if burnt than normal burns as can go deeper; check of rhabdomyolysis; treat arrhythmias; usually can cause compartment syndrome in legs

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28
Q

3 types of lightning strike injuries?

A

direct = strikes and enters ground through pt; side flash = lightning hits object first then jumps sideways; ground strike = strikes nearby and travels through ground to pt

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29
Q

Consequences of lightning strikes?

A

pt usually unaware what happened and confused with tympanic rupture; safe to touch pt; full trauma assessment; visual acuity assessed (can cause electrical cataracts)

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30
Q

Immediate S+Ss of lightning strikes?

A

asystole due to secondary hypoxic arrest; generalised muscle aches and neuro usually resolve in 24hrs

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31
Q

Associations with altitude problems?

A

• Usually from skiing, trekking or working; ascend faster than bodies can acclimatise

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32
Q

Patho of acclimatisation?

A

in ascent pO2 drops from barometric pressure drop, this means chemoreceptors respond to the hypobaric hypoxia by increasing resp rate and depth; kidneys prevent resp alkalosis by excreting bicarb and reabsorbing hydrogen ions; long-term increase in EPO increases RBCs and takes weeks

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33
Q

Rules for ascension to reduce risk of altitude sickness?

A

above 3000m = each night’s sleep should only be 300m higher with a rest of 2-3 days or 1000m ascended; >5500m will be physical and mental deterioration

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34
Q

Diagnosis and S+Ss acute mountain sickness (ACS)?

A

headache plus one of GI upset, fatigue/weakness, dizziness, difficulty sleeping couple of hours after ascent; common at >2500m, high cerebral blood flow, mild cerebral oedema, oxidative stress from oxygen free radicals

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35
Q

Moderate and severe management of ACS?

A

managed by rest, hydration, analgesia, antiemetics for mild; severe = acetazolamide (250mg/8h po) and/or dexamethasone (4mg/6h po) but can’t descend on dexamethasone

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36
Q

RFs for ACS?

A

rate of ascent, absolute altitude, blunted ventilatory response to hypoxia, level of exertion, home above >900m, previous AMS, concurrent URTI, neck irradiation/surgery

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37
Q

Patho and definition of high-altitude cerebral oedema?

A

potentially fatal encephalopathy, change in mental state and/or ataxia usually preceded by AMS; patho = vasogenic cerebral oedema from disruption of BBB with/out cytotoxic oedema; needs more descent than HAPE

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38
Q

Treatment high-altitude cerebral oedema?

A

acetazolamide, dexamethasone, consider O2, portable hyperbaric chamber, descent

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39
Q

S+Ss and patho high-altitude pulmonary oedema?

A

– more common than HACE; usually 2-4 days after ascending to >3000m; S+Ss = cough, dyspnoea at rest, haemoptysis, lethargy, tachycardia, tachypnoea, cyanosis, crackles; patho = patchy pulmonary vasoconstriction so stress failure of pulmonary caps and pulmonary oedema

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40
Q

RFs high-altitude pulmonary oedema?

A

strong hypoxic vasoconstrictor response, concurrent resp infection, congenital absence of pulmonary artery

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41
Q

Treatment high-altitude pulmonary oedema?

A

descent, portable hyperbaric chamber, O2, nifedipine, acetazolamide and dexamethasone, sildenafil PO, inhaled salmeterol

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42
Q

What is acetazolamide and what is it for?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor causing more bicarb excretion from kidneys and aids acclimatisation; can use as prophylaxis 250mg/12h for those with previous AMS or rapid ascent; doesn’t hide AMS symptoms; helps sleeping; may have an allergy and give test dose prior to travel

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43
Q

Precautions to take if working at high altitudes?

A

climb high, sleep low; avoid undue exertion; avoid alcohol/sedating antihistamines/sedating hypnotics; feel unwell is from altitude unless proved otherwise; don’t ascend with AMS S+Ss; never leave AMS pt alone; descend if HAPE or HACE

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44
Q

Important points for wound management (6 points)?

A

o Irrigation with 0.9% saline asap
o Infiltrate with lidocaine (works by blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels to stop depolarisation) 3mg/kg or 7mg/kg adrenaline, lidocaine is vasodilator so clears itself systemically and adrenaline vasconstricts to help reduce bleeding is useful and lidocaine is needed over 3mg/kg – SEE PAGE 773 FOR SPECIFIC DOSE CALCULATION
o Can add some local anaesthesia 1% for suturing and put into devitalised tissue
o Remove debris, foreign objects and material and necrosis; trim ragged edges; avoid excessive resection of facial tissue as reconstruction tricky; abrasions scrubbed/debrided thoroughly immediately
o Avoid skin tension/wound inversion and use absorbable subcut sutures to bring skin together; use interrupted monofilament on the skin, 6’0 on the face and 5’0 or thicker elsewhere; brush suture knots away after 1 week
o Remove sutures: face = 5 days, upper limb/body = 7-10, lower limb = 14

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45
Q

Alternatives to sutures?

A

steri-strips = good for non-hairy strips and don’t get wet or rub, can be used with buried dermal absorbable sutures; glues (dermabond) = after haemostasis put on top of accurately apposed and dry skin edges, avoid thick layers as exothermic reaction can hurt, 30secs to dry then another layer, don’t get inside wound, don’t soak or scrub it

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46
Q

When to use abx in wound management?

A

animal bite, hand wound

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47
Q

Problems with pretibial lacerations?

A

poor blood supply and vulnerable to flap wounds (flap retracts back so can’t appose)

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48
Q

Treatment for pretibial lacerations?

A

iron out all flap, evacuate haematoma so no tension, skin closure with adhesive strips not sutures as can be loosened, wound glue, dress and give supportive bandage and elevation; review = infection, necrosis, wound tension

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49
Q

Wound healing limitations?

A

less easy with higher age, malnutrition, DM, steroids, smoking, peripheral vascular disease, irradiation

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50
Q

What is chloramphenicol for?

A

cosmetic on face when scarring due to infection

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51
Q

What is keloid and hypertrophic scarring?

A

keloid scarring = exaggerated as excess type 3 collagen production beyond wound and progressively; hypertrophic scarring = exaggerated scarring in the wound usually across a joint; both keloid and hypertrophic commoner in darker skin

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52
Q

Problem and treatment for a hammered finger?

A

subungual haematoma, relieve blood pressure by trephine hole in the nail with a 19G needle, no force needed

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53
Q

Problems with a swallowed fish bone and treat?

A

examine throat and tonsils, bone usually only grazed mucosa; if stuck remove with forceps; refer to ENT if fail

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54
Q

Problems with fish-hooked barbed finger and treatment?

A

infiltrate with plain lidocaine and push barb through finger unless important structures; cut barb off once through and remove hook

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55
Q

How to do a plaster cast for undisplaced forearm fxs?

A

remove anything stopping circ (rings); protect yourself and pt with apron; measure length for backslab (knuckles to below elbow); cut piece of plaster-impregnated bandage 5x longer and fold 5x; cut off corner for thumb hole and one on other side for the elbow; roll stockinette over forearm above elbow; wind roll of wool around this to protect from plaster; immerse hard plaster in water and apply to arm dorsum; reflect stockinette above and below over the hard plaster to protect at the edges; put bandage right around everything; takes 4mins to set; arm in sling for 1 day then encourage shoulder, elbow and finger movement

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56
Q

Cautions for plaster casts?

A

return to ED if fingers swell/blue/can’t move them; don’t get plaster wet; do not lift heavy objects with hand

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57
Q

How to remove a tight ring?

A

trauma and pregnancy; no.4 silk suture through ring distal to proximal, wind the suture at the distal end around the finger, then unwind from the proximal end distally; lubrication + compression + traction; can use a ring cutter

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58
Q

Caught penis in zip management?

A

lots of lubrication with mineral oil; cut bridge of zip with strong wire cutters so zip falls apart; can use Savile Row technique (lidocaine and gently unzip)

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59
Q

Mammal bites management in not risky?

A

clean well with soap and water/debride; avoid suturing unless deffo needed; give abx like co-amoxiclav

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60
Q

High risk for mammal bites?

A

> 50yrs, immunosuppressed, wound to hand/face/foot, delayed presentation, crush, reaches underlying structures

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61
Q

Treatment for monkey bites?

A

use valaciclovir to stop cercopithecine herpesvirus 1 leading to encephalitis

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62
Q

Dog bites treatment?

A

can give crush wounds so image, can transfer Pasteurella multocida streps and fusibacteria; check rabies and tetanus

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63
Q

S+Ss snake bites?

A

only adder in UK usually in summer in long grass; S+Ss = nausea, ptosis, reduced GCS, weakness, coagulopathy, muscle pain

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64
Q

Treatment for a snake bite?

A

immobilise limb and hospital (don’t do wound sucking, incisions, bandages and tourniquets), identify species asap; ABC = resp paralysis, hypotension, cardiac arrest, seizures

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65
Q

Investigations for snake bites?

A

check clotting time, renal function, CK, D-dimer, FBC, urine for myoglobinuria, venom detection kits

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66
Q

Specific treatments for snake bites?

A

UK use European viper venom antiserum, adrenaline to hand, if outside of UK antiserum in Liverpool/London, only admit if systemic symptoms under 2 hours for adders (advise rest, abx for secondary infection and antihistamine for swelling as can damage 4-5days after)

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67
Q

Specific treatments for lesser weaver fish stings?

A

5-20 min in water as hot as tolerated/>45degrees

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68
Q

S+Ss scorpion stings and treatment?

A

S+Ss = high/low bp, renal failure, LVF; treat = lidocaine, antidotes, prazosin/levocarnitine may help

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69
Q

What foreign objects swallowed that need romving?

A

; if ingested mainly children/drug smugglers and do X-ray, if below level of diaphragm then discharged and observed, button batteries can cause oesophageal necrosis and need urgent removal

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70
Q

S+Ss chronic oesophageal compaction?

A

poor feeding, FTT, stridor, PUO, repetitive aspiration pneumonia

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71
Q

Treatment for chronic oesophageal compaction?

A

most pass it, may need Foley catheter and bougienage if obstruction and endoscopy for impacted oesophagus

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72
Q

Treatment for bee stings?

A

scrape out with knife/credit card quickly; sting lasts longer if left in; pheromones released attracting more bees so run away; fatal >200 stings; treat = ice, calamine, antihistamines if severe itch, treat anaphylaxis

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73
Q

Definition of major trauma?

A

multiple, serious injuries that could cause serious disability/death; high global mortality cause; mostly in 17-45yrs male from sport

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74
Q

3 peaks of death from trauma?

A

trimodal distribution: first peak from major neurovasc disruption and not easy treat; second peak = head, thorax, limb, abdo haemorrhage; 3rd peak = sepsis and organ failure days later; mainly death in 1st two stages

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75
Q

Definition of hypotensive?

A

low if <90; low if >40 lower than normal, MAP <65

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76
Q

What does CABCDE stand for?

A

Control catastrophic haemorrhage, airway with C-spine protection, Breathing with ventilation, Circulation with haemorrhage control, Disability (Neuro status), Exposure/Environment (any limb injuries, pt warm, some bedside test, analgesia); THIS IS PRIMARY SURVEY IN TRAUMA

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77
Q

What to do if NEWS2 >7?

A

escalate to senior and immediate review, sepsis 6, hourly fluid monitoring, contact critical care, consultants

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78
Q

What to do if catastrophic injury?

A

clear any clots obscuring bleeding source; direct pressure; more direct pressure; indirect pressure; torniquet (2/3 inches above, not first line, less severe); haemostatic agents (ceelox)

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79
Q

How long to secure airway in catastrophic injury?

A

try and secure in 45 mins; rapid sequence induction = for even more severe and should happen quicker (for absolute indications for intubation)

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80
Q

Relative indications for intubation?

A

haemorrhagic shock when metabolic acidosis happening, agitated pt, multiple painful injuries, transfer to another hosp

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81
Q

Absolute indications for intubation?

A

Can’t maintain airway in any consciousness; can’t keep oxygenation with less invasive manoeuvres; can’t maintain normocapnia; deteriorating consciousness; significant facial injuries; seizures

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82
Q

Airway and c-spine management and main indications?

A

immobilise C-spine, provide O2, assess airway, go to RSI if indicated; 3 main indications for immobilisation = mechanism or injury, head/neck/facial injury and low GCS

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83
Q

Pathophysiology of clinical shock?

A

inadequate perfusion, cellular hypoxia, energy deficit, lactate build up (anaerobic resp), metabolic acidosis (vasoconstriction), cell membrane dysfunction, intracellular lysozyme release, cap endothelial damage, cell death

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84
Q

Causes of clinical shock?

A

distributive (neurogenic and endocrine [addison’s crisis]), endocrine, septic, cardiogenic (ischaemic, arrhythmia), spinal, obstructive (tension ptx, PE, tamponade), hypovolaemic, anaphylactic, haemorrhagic

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85
Q

Treatment pathway for clinical shock?

A

DR ABC; hypovolaemic (fluids lots and some vasopressor), septic/anaphylactic (fluid, vasopressor and sometimes inotrope), cardiogenic (maybe fluid but lots of inotrope)

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86
Q

Basic life support for choking and not breathing?

A

• DRS ABC; CPR (100bpm, 5cm depth); for choking encourage coughing then 5 back blows then 5 abdo thrusts then alternate then CPR

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87
Q

ABCDE in advanced life support in trauma?

A

ABCDE; A = airway, jaw thrust to protect C-spine (sometimes chin lift), 100% O2; B = breathing and auscultate lungs and heart, percuss chest; C = circ and haemorrhage control (2 points of venous access, replace blood if over 1.5L, younger and symptomatic tends to be severe, cardiogenic/neurogenic shock, use hypotensive resuscitation); D = disability (GCS/AVPU, pupillary reflexes, lateralising injury, spinal cord, BM, head injury); E = exposure (rewarm body if hypothermia; secondary survey after all this)

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88
Q

What is ATMIST stand for and when is it applied?

A

age, time, mechanism, injuries, signs, treatments (how to handover in trauma)

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89
Q

What is SBAR stand for and when is it applied?

A

in normal handover; situation, background, assessment, recommendation

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90
Q

Reasons to send to a major trauma centre?

A

o Assessing vital signs and level of consciousness – GCS <14, sustained systolic <90, RR <10 or >29 or abnormal paeds value
o Assess anatomy of injury – chest injury with altered physiology, traumatic amputation, penetrating trauma (neck, chest, abdo, back, groin), suspected open/depressed skull fx, suspected pelvic fx, spinal trauma from abnormal neuro, trauma with facial/circumferential burns, time critical (>20% burns)
o Evaluate mechanism of injury – traumatic death in same passenger compartment, falls >20ft, person trapped under vehicle, bullseye window
o Others – trauma with: >55yrs, >20wks preggaz, bleeding disorder, morbidly obese

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91
Q

Main adjuncts to primary survey?

A

• CT scan within 30 mins rather than XRs and reported within 60; peripheral XRs in secondary survey also urinary catheters for outflow, NGT insertion if no facial injuries, ABG in cold pts for O2

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92
Q

What is a FAST and pros and cons of its use in major trauma?

A

focussed assessment sonography in trauma; don’t use if delays CT, low negative predictive value (good for ruling in not ruling out), good for triaging in major incident scenario

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93
Q

Portable CXR for in major trauma?

A

portable easily acquired; evaluate flail chest, massive pneumothorax, haemothorax, ET tube placement and widened mediastinum; lung contusion can look like atelectasis as blood fills lung from ruptured vessels; straight fluid line in lung is haemothorax and pneumothorax as air pushing against blood; flail chest just looks like a bit of rib cage floating

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94
Q

Airway management?

A

weigh C-spine injury against hypoxia etc; look at rib fxs; reasons to intubate = GCS <9, sustained seizures, facial/airway trauma, high aspiration risk, flail segments, resp failure

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95
Q

How to logroll a pt?

A

moving from bed to bed; keep spine secure and warn pt and person at head in charge; can disrupt: internal clots, induce spinal and pelvic movement, heighten distress; can move supine in a scoop too; try not to move if don’t have to

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96
Q

XR of spine features looking for?

A

look at bones, cartilage, soft tissues and alignment; soft tissue should be less than 1/3 width of vertebrae above C4 but then after less than its width on XR; can view C-spine through mouth as well (PEG view)

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97
Q

What is a jefferson’s fx?

A

C1/atlas fx; from load on top of head; usually a burst/4 part fx in posterior and anterior arches

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98
Q

What is a hangman fx?

A

C2; high force hyperextension; involved pedicles of C2 and anterior displacement of body and pedicle C2

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99
Q

Teardrop fx?

A

fx of anterior and inferior aspect of vertebra from traction of anterior longitudinal ligament connecting them both; from severe hyperextension; soft tissue swelling as well

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100
Q

Flexion teardrop fx?

A

opposite mechanism to above; bit lower; anterior cord compression

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101
Q

Burst fx?

A

squash vertically into vertebra and bursts out from vertical load

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102
Q

What is a normal facet alignment?

A

C-spine injury without radiological abnormality (SCIWORA); dislocation can return back spontaneously or remain in dislocated position; do an MRI if suspect this

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103
Q

When to do intraosseus access and how?

A

no peripheral venous access; so go for this to deliver drugs if having difficulty finding a vein (trauma, DKA, severe burns); pushed into bone matrix to infuse through bone marrow into systemic circ; take sample of glucose, venous blood gas, electrolytes, haemoglobin first here before giving drugs

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104
Q

CIs for intraosseus access?

A

failed attempt, infections, trauma at site, surgery near site; can lead to compartment syndrome and fxs but this is rare; remove asap to prevent osteomyelitis

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105
Q

Initial fluid management for damage control resuscitation?

A

o Early haemostasis with surgery, splintage or angiography
o Treat the lethal triad
o Reduce crystalloid/colloid use if can (dilutes blood and doesn’t contain blood coagulants so can increase trauma based coagulopathy)
o Early RBC, plasma, platelets use 1:1:1
o Hypotensive resus
o May need damage control surgery

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106
Q

Hypovolaemic shock S+Ss?

A

tachypnoea, pallor, hypotension, anxiety, tachycardia, bradycardia, arrest

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107
Q

Causes of hypovolaemic shock?

A

blood on the (external haemorrhage) and 4 more (chest, abdo, pelvis and long bones = humerus, radius, femur, fibula, tibia, metacarpals)

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108
Q

Total blood volumes in adult, child and neonates?

A

70mls/kg in adults; 80 mls/kg in kids and 90 mls/kg in neonates

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109
Q

Osmolality definition?

A

osmoles per kg of solvent

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110
Q

Osmolarity definition?

A

osmoles per litre of solution

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111
Q

Tonicity definition?

A

ability of a solution to cause water movement

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112
Q

What electrolyte moves out of cells during burns and crush injuries?

A

K+

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113
Q

What is a crystalloid?

A

dissolved in water (Hartmann’s), more of this needed to give to pt than colloid

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114
Q

What is a colloid?

A

suspension and not mixed (gelloplasma etc); most fluid resus now with colloid

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115
Q

How to do a maintenance fluid calculation?

A

o For 0 - 10 kg = weight (kg) x 100 mL/kg/day; For 10-20 kg = 1000 mL + [weight (kg) x 50 ml/kg/day]; For > 20 kg = 1500 mL + [weight (kg) x 20 ml/kg/day]
o Replace deficit over 12/24 hours; 4mls/kg then 2 mls/kg then replace with 1mls/kg
o Need to do a U+Es everyday minimum if doing fluid resus

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116
Q

Treatment for internal haemorrhage?

A

– IV tranexamic acid (1g over 10min then 1g over 4h) in 3hrs of injury; avoid crystalloid (can contribute to hypothermia, haemodilution of clotting factors and Hb so worsens coagulopathy); can have permissive hypotension as higher bp hydrostatic forces can disrupt clotting; aim for bp: 70-80mmhg in penetrating trauma, 90mmhg in blunt and cerebration in awake pt; resus after haemostasis achieved

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117
Q

Best fluids to use?

A

see RBC, FFP and platelet ratio above (1:1:1); but the best is warm fresh whole blood but only really used by military due to difficulty storing; also fibrinogen for early clotting

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118
Q

What is trauma induced coagulopathy and how to assess and treat?

A

treat if clinical suspicion from the lethal triad; lab tests hard to determine; younger can compensate and mask the blood loss and hypoxia (cryptic shock); can assess lactate, base excess, central venous oxygenation for blood loss; starting to do point of care coagulation testing; give Orh-ve blood until blood type determined and beriplex if warfarin

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119
Q

When to fluid resus?

A

systolic below 90, HR >130mmHg, reduced consciousness, obvious massive ongoing blood loss

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120
Q

Causes of shock?

A

from hypovolaemia; haemothorax with chest drain, abdo = surgery, splint long bones and pelvis for haemorrhage control, other causes of shock = neurogenic (spinal), cardiac tamponade, drug effects and tension pneumothorax

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121
Q

What is FAST?

A

free fluid in pericardium/peritoneum (blood for trauma); 90% sensitivity and 200mLs+ detected; not for liver/spleen tears and hollow viscous injuries; extended FAST (eFAST) for haemo and pneumothoraces better than CXR, for hypotensive pt and no obvious bleeding; can be performed immediately after primary survey during secondary and non-invasive (don’t need diagnostic peritoneal lavage)

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122
Q

What is the lethal triad?

A

• Three parameters interacting in major trauma – cascade of inflammatory mediators with neuroendocrine compensatory mechanisms can lead to death from organ failure; hypothermia, coagulopathy and acidosis interaction can all be caused by and cause each other that makes pt condition worse

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123
Q

Definition of hypothermia?

A

<35degrees but <36 in trauma

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124
Q

RFs for hypothermia?

A

elderly, intoxicated, burnt and exposed

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125
Q

Patho for hypothermia?

A

dampens CVS compensation against hypovolaemic shock and worsens tissue hypoxia

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126
Q

Acidosis patho?

A

tissue hypoperfusion and lactic acid production with resp acidosis from hypoventilation (flail chest, COPD, opiates); temp and pH influence clotting and platelets so small changes = life-threatening coagulopathies which is exacerbated by haemorrhage

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127
Q

Coagulopathy patho?

A

¼ of severely injured and 4x mortality increase; can be from haemorrhage and haemodilution due to fluid resus, in minutes from tissue hypoperfusion, pre-existing medical conditions and anti-coagulating drugs

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128
Q

Lethal triad, what to do on scene?

A

early hypothermia and haemorrhage control (apply pressure to bleeds and pelvic binder for internal; use blankets [bear hugger] and warmed fluids)

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129
Q

Mnemonic for secondary survey?

A

Has My Critical Care Assessed Patient’s Priorities Or Next Management Decision? (Head/skull, Maxillofacial, C-spine, Chest, Abdo, Pelvis, Perineum, Orifices, Neuro, MSK, Diagnostic care)

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130
Q

Overview of RTA assessment?

A

• Some clinical signs may not appear til later due to compensation and catecholamines; assessing injuries before removing from scene is v helpful; need a good handover from first on scene to hospital; pictures useful

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131
Q

4 components leading to injury?

A

vehicle impacting with object; occupants hit in vehicle; organs jerked to a halt (rupture liver, aortic arch over 40mph); impact from unrestrained objects/people

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132
Q

4 points of occupant injury?

A

impact of vehicle with object; pelvic and femoral fxs from handlebars and fuel tank; impact of landing; organs jerked to halt

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133
Q

Questions to ask and general signs from RTA leading to injuries?

A

airbag deployed; state of car; other passengers; major injury visible; seatbelt worn and what type; relate vehicle damage to passenger injuries
• Bullseye on windscreen – facial fxs and internal head injuries
• Impact onto steering wheel – severe chest injuries/abdo compression (diaphragmatic rupture); seatbelt worn = clavicle, sternal, internal organ damage
• Intruding dashboard – compress femur and dislocate hip posteriorly; patellar injury
• Intruding engine compartment – tibia/fibular injuries/trapped feet
• Lateral impact – worse than frontal impacts; complications = aortic dissections, lateral chest/abdo/pelvic compression injuries
• Rear impact – lower back and whiplash
• Fall from height – onto heels = calcaneum fx, pilon ankle fx, tibial plateau fx, hip injury, spinal compression, base of skull fx

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134
Q

What is see saw movement of chest in resp mean?

A

obstruction as abdo sucked into chest during inspiration

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135
Q

Most serious feature of chest injury?

A

hypoxia (give 15L O2 in rebreather bag)

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136
Q

ATOM FC stands for what in primary survey?

A

Airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive pneumothorax, flail chest, cardiac tamponade

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137
Q

Airway obstruction S+Ss and treatment?

A

trauma to neck/face/larynx (also posterior dislocations of clavicular head); S+Ss = noisy breathing, stridor, altered voice; suction available for vomit and stop aspiration; after recovery position and jaw thrust doesn’t work use guedel airway (don’t insert if resisting – nasal airway, intubate, gentle suction)

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138
Q

Tension pneumothorax S+Ss and treatment?

A

from penetrating injury making one way valve to thoracic cavity; can collapse lung and less venous return with other lung compression; S+Ss = diminished breath sounds, hyperresonance, distended neck veins, deviated trachea, hypoxia, tachycardia, hypotension (less venous return from increased intrathoracic pressure); treat = large-bore cannula into 2nd intercostal space in midclavicular line to decompress, chest tube if not work

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139
Q

Open pneumothorax S+Ss and treatment?

A

sucking chest wound (wound seals on expiration and more air in when inspire – turns to tension); immediate occlusion with sterile dressing taped on 3 sides so flutter-valve; complete seal with chest drain

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140
Q

Massive haemothorax S+Ss and treatment?

A

> 1500mL blood in hemithorax; causes = wounds to intercostal vessels, great vessels, heart; S+Ss = hyporesonant; treat = large-bore chest drain (32G) with IV fluid/blood and maybe auto-transfusion of blood; may need thoracotomy; can cause haemopneumothorax

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141
Q

Flail chest S+Ss and treatment?

A

section of fractured ribs with no bony continuity with rest of chest wall; can cause = serious hypoxia from bad chest wall movement and pulmonary contusions; S+Ss = looks abnormal on respiration; treat = high flow O2, may need to intubate/ventilate depending on resp distress; can get pulmonary contusions in blunt trauma too

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142
Q

Cardiac tamponade S+Ss and treatment?

A

clinical diagnosis with Beck’s triad (rising JVP, falling BP and muffled HS) but easier with potable US; treat = pericardial aspiration before thoracotomy if needed; pericardial aspiration = 18G needle left to xiphisternum, aim at left shoulder with needle down, elevate legs for venous return; this is only temporary (can fail if clotted blood) and definitive treatment is pericardiotomy; afterwards = need cardiothoracic input, frequent ECHOs, invasive monitoring in ITU

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143
Q

Injuries of chest identified in secondary survey?

A

simple pneumothorax, simple haemothorax, tracheobronchial tree/aortic dissection, blunt cardiac injury, oesophageal rupture

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144
Q

Problems with simple pneumothorax?

A

can develop to tension

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145
Q

Management simple haemothorax and problems?

A

<1500ml, if lung/blood vessel lacerations no surgery needed, large-calibre chest tube if big enough to be visualised on CXR, if left can clot leading to lung entrapment and infection

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146
Q

Problems and management tracheobronchial tree/aortic disruption?

A

usually death at scene and urgent treatment, CXR and clinical diagnosis, if left can cause resp distress/bowel strangulation

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147
Q

Problems with blunt cardiac injury?

A

most die on-scene, ECG and US monitoring (serious arrhythmias), if troponin rise can be cardiac contusion

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148
Q

Problems with oesophageal rupture?

A

= if v unwell compared to injury, with left pleural effusions and/or pneumomediastinum

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149
Q

Definition and causes of ventilation perfusion mismatch?

A

when blood volume circulating the lungs doesn’t get a high perfusion of O2 even when 100% O2 (low O2); usually due to shunts in lung and alveoli not ventilated (causes: alveolar collapse (atelectasis)/bronchoconstriction – pneumonia, post-op, lying down; oedema)

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150
Q

Definitions of the different stages of CKD?

A

stage 1 = 1.5x, <0.5ml/kg/hr for >6 hours; stage 2 = 2x creatinine, <0.5ml/kg/hr for >12 hours; stage 3 = 3x creatinine, <0.3/kg/hr for 24 hours or anuria >12 hours or RRT

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151
Q

Patho of electrolytes in renal failure?

A

when renal failure K+ and H+ stay in capillaries and Na+ stays in tubules as pumps for these stop working (hyperkalaemia and acidaemia)

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152
Q

STOP causes of renal impairment?

A

sepsis/shock, toxins, obstruction, pressure optimisation

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153
Q

Pre-renal causes of renal failure?

A

S and P (S = hypovolaemic, septic [cap walls become leaky and less fluid, less O2 to proximal convoluted tubules so die and get acute tubular necrosis], cardiogenic [less blood pumped round]; P = )

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154
Q

Renal causes of renal failure?

A

T (acute interstitial nephritis = renal lesion meaning decline in kidney function and means inflammatory infiltrate in kidney interstitium [from NSAIDs]; T = tubular toxicity, contrast from scans, gentamicin esp with furosemide)

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155
Q

Post-renal causes of renal failure?

A

O (can be stones and calculi or cancer)

o For all forms acute kidney injury - CVVH machine or haemodialysis

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156
Q

Types and definitions of resp failure?

A

pO2 <8kpa; type 1 = low O2, low/normal CO2; type 2 = low O2, high CO2 (stop being able to hyperventilate to get rid of O2), respiratory acidosis

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157
Q

Types of O2 flow for different resp failure types?

A
  • EPAP – expiratory positive air pressure; for low O2 problem; same as CPAP (continuous positive air pressure)
  • IPAP – inspiratory for high CO2
  • NIV – non-invasive ventilation
  • BiPAP – biphasic positive air pressures; includes inspiratory and expiratory for type 2
  • Treatment – PEEP (positive end expiratory pressure) for oedema to push fluid back into capillaries
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158
Q

What does a high base excess mean?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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159
Q

What does a high pCO2 mean?

A

Resp acidosis

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160
Q

What does normal pH with high/low pCO2 mean?

A

Compensating

161
Q

Sepsis definition?

A

life threatening organ dysfunction by dysregulated host response to infection (body response to infection damages itself)
o HAT – hypertension, altered mental state, tachypnoea (resp rate above 20)

162
Q

Patho of sepsis?

A

TLRs activate macrophages releasing inflammatory cytokines; arachidonic pathway activated; coagulation system activated (pro-thrombotic) and anticoagulation down regulated; decrease contractility, vasodilate, RV dilatation, arrhythmias, PAH (TLRs, cytokines and NO)

163
Q

What is septic shock?

A

sepsis and hypotension unresponsive to fluid and lactate more than 2

164
Q

What’s BUFALO?

A
sepsis 6 (blood cultures, hourly urine output, intravenous fluid challenges, broad spectrum abx, serum lactate, high flow O2)
•	EARLY TREATMENT IMPORTANT
165
Q

Give the GCS scoring system?

A

eyes (4 – spontaneous, to speech, to pain, none); verbal (5 – orientated, confused, words, sounds, none); motor (6 – obeys commands, localising, normal flexion, abnormal flexion [decorticate], abnormal extension [decerebrate], none)

166
Q

When do blast injuries occur?

A

– domestic (gas explosion), industrial (mining), military/terrorist bombings; multiple casualties

167
Q

4 phases of blast injuries and explanations for each?

A

o PRIMARY INJURIES – absence of external features so easily missed; types = compress gas-filled spaces from pressure generated (ears, intestinal perforation, haemorrhage, fatal air embolism in coronary/cerebral arteries), pulmonary barotrauma most common cause of death for those that survive, intra-alveolar haemorrhage can cause ARDS
o SECONDARY INJURIES – from missiles and projectiles giving blunt and penetrative trauma; most common injuries
o TERTIARY INJURIES – victim thrown by blast and striking surrounding objects
o QUARTERNARY – other injuries = burns, asphyxia, crush, toxic substance exposure (radiation, CO, cyanide)

168
Q

Psych support for blast injuries?

A

stop the aim of the terrorist (fear and panic); long-term = chronic intrusive thoughts, anxiety, PTSD, poor conc

169
Q

First on scene for blast injuries to bear in mind?

A

• Don’t approach scene until know it’s safe; don’t disturb crime scene unless to help pt

170
Q

Problems with trauma in the elderly?

A

• Kyphosis, resp difficulties, less preload and more afterload so lower (less body water, peripheral vasculature more rigid, less myocardium) CO, IHD; frailty; polypharmacy

171
Q

Why more likely to have ICP that ruptures brain vessels in the elderly?

A

• ICP more likely to rupture vessels in brain as more rigid but less CSF; more space due to brain atrophy so can bleed more whilst compensating before it’s too late

172
Q

Complications of elderly trauma?

A
  • Prognosis of survival of head injury declines after 56yrs
  • High risk of C-spine injury as more rigid and fixed and softer bones and methods to immobilise an be hazardous to elderly
  • More likely to get secondary pneumonia and larger risk from minor injuries in thoracic injuries
  • Abdo – protection weaker and examination unreliable
173
Q

I HATE FALLING in elderly for trauma RFs?

A

inflammation of joints, hypotension, auditory and visual abnormal, tremor, equilibrium problem (balance), foot problem, arrhythmias (heart block/valvular), leg-length discrepancy, lack of conditioning (generalised weakness), illness, nutrition, gait disturbance

174
Q

Influencing factors in gunshot wounds?

A
  • Either high (military rifles) or low (handguns more likely to lacerate/crush) velocity
  • Influencing factors – weapon used, bullet speed, distance, trajectory, yaw (how tip deviates in flight) and tumble (how travels directly through body)
175
Q

Injury usually from gunshot wounds?

A

most lethal to head then myocardium; chest usually cause haemopneumothorax

176
Q

Definition of primary and secondary head injuries?

A

• Primary = at the time; secondary = mins/days after from neurophysical and anatomical (high ICP, cerebral oedema, expanding haematomas, seizures, infection, hypoxic/hypoperfusion)

177
Q

What things to measure first in head injuries?

A

o AVPU, pupillary size and response, motor score of GCS (most predictive outcome), sensory if able to

178
Q

Leading causes of head injuries?

A

assaults, falls, RTAs; alcohol gives most complications and can mask it

179
Q

Things to check in head injury?

A

unequal pupils big red light in unconscious; assess power, tone, reflexes, sensory upper/lower/left/right; check for priapism and anal tone (spinal injury), spinal shock syndrome can also cause transient neuro features; low bp with low pulse = sympathetic disruption in c-spine

180
Q

Types of head injuries?

A

cranial (skull fx and c-spine); intracranial (diffuse axonal injury, extradural injury, subdural bleed, subarachnoid bleed, intracerebral bleed, cerebral contusion)

181
Q

Head injury imaging criteria?

A

head injury + low GCS need head CT within 1 hour and report with 1 hour scan; if no Rfs then pts on anti-coagulants need one within 8hrs

182
Q

RFs for urgent CT head?

A

GCS <13, GCS <15 2hrs post injury, open/depressed/basal skull fx, fit after, focal CNS deficit, >1 ep vomiting; any LOC/amnesia with: >65yrs, dangerous mechanism of injury, coagulopathy, retrograde amnesia >30mins

183
Q

Adding c spine CT with CT head criteria?

A

GCS <13 initially, intubation, multi-region trauma; any suspicion of spinal trauma + >65yrs/dangerous mechanism/focal CNS deficit/paraesthesia in any limbs

184
Q

Management of head injury?

A

admit with consultant specialist in head trauma; if not concerning then discharged with head injury advice leaflets

185
Q

Minor head injury considerations in elderly?

A

symptoms and INR not always reliable; consider INR reversal if high to stop ICH (higher risk with clopidogrel than warfarin); minimise haematoma expansion

186
Q

What is a high ICP definition?

A

> 20mmHg

187
Q

Patho high ICP?

A

mass can be accommodated up until a point by displacement of vessels and CSF but after a while will cause hypoperfusion

188
Q

Treatment of high ICP?

A

enhance perfusion by normalising ICP and monitoring mean arterial pressure (MAP), target MAP = 90mmHg and CPP >60mmHg

189
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A

for indicating high ICP = bradycardia, irregular resps, widened pulse pressure

190
Q

Medical management of head injuries?

A

avoid hypotension (bp>90 but better over 100, use isotonic solutions for normovolaemia, don’t overload or use glucose), avoid hypercapnia and hypoxia (O2>11 kpa, CO2 4.5-5 kpa to optimise CPP, hyperventilation reduces CO2 so cerebral vasoconstriction and lower ICP but not for too long as can cause hypoperfusion), opiates (mitigate stress response from intubation and increase ICP), mannitol (0.25-1g/kg of 20% solution causes osmotic diuresis to reduce ICP in acute but careful of systemic hypotension), seizure control (IV lorazepam/buccal midazolam to stop high ICP, can also use prophylaxis), raise head to 30 degrees (improve jugular venous return), avoid of hyperglycaemia and hyperpyrexia, urgent neurosurgical input; secure airway GCS <8; try and get normal ICP/gluc/O2/CO2

191
Q

Borders of abdo?

A

T4 (nips) to groin and to iliac crests posteriorly, diaphragmatic rupture can mean contents in chest

192
Q

Key questions for abdo injury?

A

peritoneum breached, intra-peritoneal organs damaged, don’t deny analgesia for fear of masking signs

193
Q

Penetrating trauma in abdo overview?

A

high-velocity missiles harder to predict than stab wounds; liver most commonly injured; surgery if posterior rectus sheath breached; only no surgery for v superficial

194
Q

Most common injuries and how in blunt trauma in abdo?

A

deceleration can mean bowel comes from mesentery, liver from vena cava, bladder from its neck, pancreas from retroperitoneum and aorta; spleen most commonly injured (suspect rupture if shock, abdo tenderness/distension, left shoulder tip pain, overlying rib – bit like ectopic pregnancy and may not be as painful as other abdo trauma)

195
Q

How pts unstable in abdo trauma and management?

A

from bp, shock, GI/GU/PR bleeding, evisceration, peritonitis; immediate laparotomy; FAST scan for haemoperitoneum; portable CXR quickly; hypotensive resus and cross match >6L blood

196
Q

Management stable pts in abdo trauma?

A

still suspicious as bp doesn’t drop til 30% blood loss; mainstay invest = constant vitals, abdo examine, FAST scans; CVP/CT/US can be misleading; consider diagnostic laparoscopy for seeing damage to peritoneum/diaphragm; observe for minimum 24hrs

197
Q

Management in asymptomatic pts with anterior abdo stab wounds?

A

many don’t penetrate abdo cavity and more don’t need surgery; wound assess first to see if rectus fascia intact and comprehensive wound exploration to see if can discharge (can use local anaesthesia); further invest if needed = FAST scans and serial examinations; careful for chest exploration for pneumothorax, use contrast CT rather than exploration for posterior tracking wounds

198
Q

Why do emergency laparotomy in abdo trauma?

A

peritonism, radiological evidence of free air, GI haemorrhage, persistent/resistant haemodynamic instability (won’t respond to treat)

199
Q

Why to do radiology in trauma?

A

• Unrecognised haemorrhage contributes to lethal triad and deaths in trauma

200
Q

What type of radiology first line in trauma?

A

use interventional radiology to stop haemorrhaging (transcatheter embolization and stents to realign and plug up bleeds) without the stress of surgery; this can be for abdo but also endovascular techniques for organs (spleen [don’t lose immunity from splenectomy], liver etc)

201
Q

What surgical interventions first line in trauma?

A
  • Move towards trying to do endovascular techniques before surgery if can (didn’t use to be the case in the past) even in those who are haemodynamically unstable
  • Still no rigid guidelines and should go by what most senior person thinks
202
Q

What is RAPTOR?

A

resuscitation with angiography, percutaneous techniques and operative repair suite is a new concept where interventional radiology, surgery and resus equipment in one place

203
Q

Common things to think about in pelvic injuries?

A

• Only when >2 fxs in pelvis is its protection unstable and usually need to worry about internal injuries more; usually break in 2 places

204
Q

How to assess a pelvic injury?

A

don’t rock the pelvis (can disturb tamponade of retroperitoneal haematoma, exacerbating haemorrhage); gently compress to assess stability; Tile classification is best (CHECK PAGE 794 FOR DIFFERENT TYPES)

205
Q

What is AP compression in pelvic injury?

A

open book injury (pubic symphysis wider than 5mm); crush injury; v bad news bears

206
Q

What is vertical shear in pelvic injury?

A

vertical, unilateral fractures of pubic rami; bucket handle; malgaigne (ipsilateral so fxs on same side)

207
Q

What is lateral compression in pelvic injury?

A

oblique fxs of pubic rami, sacral fx, impaction, diastasis of pubis symphysis; lateral force from crush or something

208
Q

S+Ss in pelvic fx?

A

leg length discrepancy, abdo distension, loin bruising, perineal/scrotal haematoma, # line on PR/PV exam (if rectal injury then can get sepsis)

209
Q

S+Ss GU injury in pelvic injury?

A

urethral injury in 15% males; extra-peritoneal bladder rupture can give false +ve FAST scan; blood at tip, frank/microscopic haematuria, PR exam to assess bowel integrity and presence of blood, urology if urethral damage suspicion (blood at tip) and retrograde urethrography performed; may need suprapubic catheterisation

210
Q

Reducing blood loss in pelvic injury?

A

apply pelvic splints (put over greater trochanters) but don’t compress to less than normal circ; use orthopaedic scoops not logrolls; check foot pulses and urine often; high chance of mortality from shock

211
Q

Associated injuries to pelvic fx?

A

usually internal injuries, splenic lesions, diaphragm and bladder ruptures, liver lacerations, urethral lesions, intestinal lesions and kidney rupture

212
Q

Radiology for pelvic injury?

A

FAST scan for intraperitoneal fluid; only XR if don’t need CT; use endovascular embolization for haemorrhage control; fx can be fixed when pt stable

213
Q

Stats for trauma in pregnancy?

A

affects 1 in 12 pregnancies and leading cause of maternal death

214
Q

Mitigating risks to trauma in pregnancy?

A

road safety, educate on seatbelt use, educate on falls (more susceptible from weight gain and joint laxity)

215
Q

Consequences of trauma in pregnancy?

A

blunt trauma usually causes placental abruption and high risk of feto-maternal haemorrhage; penetrative is better maternal but poorer foetal survival; foetal death usually from hypoxia secondary to cardiovascular disruption

216
Q

Management of trauma in pregnancy?

A

3rd trimester+ put woman in left lateral tilt position to stop aortocaval compression and increases CO by 30%; give Rh-ve mothers IM anti-D within 72hrs abdo trauma; primary survey normal but in secondary also do vaginal/perineal/rectal examination and continuous foetal monitoring; foetal distress in asymptomatic mum = early sign of hypovolaemia; get gestational age quick help predict outcome and treatment; resus of mother is resus to foetus; mother gets priority

217
Q

Indication for C section after trauma in pregnancy?

A

laparotomy to assess internal organs, uterine rupture, foetal distress with viable foetus, maternal cardiac arrest within 5 mins of CPR (no foetus improves CPR

218
Q

Functions of the liver?

A

o Protein, clotting factors, bile and glucagon synthesis
o Alcohol, drugs, ammonia, bilirubin detox
o Energy, vitamins and mineral storage
o Part of immune system

219
Q

Consequences of liver failure?

A

• ALF (acute liver failure) – acute liver injury results in jaundice, coagulopathy (INR >1.5) and hepatic encephalopathy, in 12 weeks; rare with high mortality; occurs after insult to liver

220
Q

Definitions for acute, hyperacute and subacute liver failure?

A

o Hyperacute – within 7 days ALF (usually paracetamol)
o Acute – 8 to 28 days (HBV cause)
o Subacute – 29 days to 12 wks

221
Q

Common causes of ALF in the UK?

A

paracetamol, mushrooms, legal highs, anabolic steroids, herbal medicines; hep A and E with B, abx and MDMA; HELLP in pregnancy

222
Q

Patho for paracetamol?

A

Metabolised through CYP450 to make N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (toxic metabolite) detoxed by glutathione (in OD may not be enough glutathione)

223
Q

Factors increasing paracetamol hepatotoxicity?

A

Staggered OD, excessive alcohol, malnutrition, HIV, cancer, chronic liver disease, liver enzyme inducer drugs (antiepileptics, rifampicin, spironolactone)

224
Q

Treatment paracetamol OD?

A

n-acteylcysteine, abx, fluids, rest

225
Q

Inhalational and IV anaesthesia examples?

A

INHALATIONAL (sevoflurane, desflurane [mostly in the obese – not good for greenhouse gases], isolfurane); IV (propofol, thiopentone); IV propofol is the best for inducting

226
Q

Recommendation speed for IV?

A

give any IV drug over 1 minute so even spread and slower if low CO (reduce side effects like hypotension); give opioid before anaesthesia so less needed to sedate

227
Q

Types of analgesia?

A

opioids (morphine, codeine, diamorphine, oxycodone, dihydrocodeine), synthetic opioids (pethidine, fentanyl, alfentanil, remifentanil); synthetic partial agonists (buprenorphine); antagonists of opioids (naloxone)

228
Q

Recommendation for dosage of opioids depending on route?

A

as 50% metabolised first pass by liver so give half the dose parenterally than orally for same dosage (10mg oral = 5mg parenteral); PCA = patient controlled analgesia

229
Q

Patho of morphine metabolism and OD?

A

metabolised to morphine 6 glucuronide and more potent but cleared quickly in normal renal function but can build up in failure and quickly cause resp depression (not in <30% renal function) can use oxycodone instead

230
Q

Types of muscle relaxants?

A

neuromuscular blocking agents (block ach at binding site; depolarising [suxamethonium] or non-depolarising [atracurium or rocuronium])

231
Q

Treating opioid induced resp depression?

A

IV fastest route; titrate drug accordingly and don’t give all at once (1ml in 10ml saline); short half-life of naloxone and be careful of OD in addicts; one ampoule is usually enough for an adult

232
Q

Drug targets?

A

ion channel (ach receptor at nmj), G protein coupled (opioid receptors), enzyme inhibitors (anticholinesterases, COX inhibitors)

233
Q

Types of local anaesthetics?

A

lidocaine, xylocaine (lido with adrenaline), spaff, prilocaine (least toxic), bupivacaine (most toxic, use for post-op analgesia); myelinated fibres harder to block and need stronger conc of anaesthesia

234
Q

Max dosage lidocaine 2%?

A

300mg

235
Q

Max dosage mepivacaine 3% plain?

A

300mg

236
Q

Max dosage articaine 4%?

A

500mg

237
Q

Max dosage prilocaine 4% plain?

A

400mg

238
Q

`Max dosage bupivocaine 0.5%?

A

90mg

239
Q

Toxicity symptoms opioids?

A

tingling, CV collapse, tinnitus

240
Q

CIs opioids?

A

regular paracetamol reduces morphine efficacy by 20%; NSAIDs should be fine

241
Q

Drugs for sedation and antagonist to it?

A

midazolam (1mg at a time); flumazenil is antagonist to benzos; can cause apnoea if too much midazolam

242
Q

Types of anti-emetics?

A

5HT3 antagonists (ondansetron), antihistamines (cyclizine), antidopaminergic (metoclopramide)

243
Q

What does a high lactate mean?

A

lactic acidosis from dehydration, blood problems (leukaemia), liver disease/damage meaning it can’t break down lactic acid

244
Q

Dx of scalp/facial haematoma management?

A

discharge with advice and safety net with symptoms of possible ICP/brain injury (unless on anticoags)

245
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing PE?

A

CTPA (CT pulmonary angiography)

246
Q

What is PERLA?

A

pupils equal and reacting to light and accommodating

247
Q

Troponin results for suspected ACS?

A

> 5 = repeat in 2 hours and if increase by 7 then ACS; >50 = ACS

248
Q

Difference between exudative and transudative pleural effusion?

A

exudative = malignancy/infection, protein >30, fluid sucked out; transudative = HF, protein <30, fluid pushed out

249
Q

Treatment for ACS?

A

300mg aspirin, fondaparinux, ticagrelor

250
Q

Investigation targeted at ACS?

A

Troponin T

251
Q

Investigation targeted at PE?

A

D-dimer

252
Q

What is ABCD2 for TIA?

A

A — Age: 60 years of age or more (1 point) B — BP (at presentation) 140/90 mm Hg or greater (1 point) C — Clinical features Unilateral weakness, 2 points Speech disturbance without weakness, 1 point. D — Duration (60 minutes or longer, 2 points, 10–59 minutes, 1 point) D — presence of diabetes: 1 point

253
Q

What happens with high risk from ABCD2?

A

MRI, carotid US and consult neuro

254
Q

What is CHADSVASC for AF?

A

congestive HF (1), hypertension (1), age >75 (2), DM (1), stroke/TIA/systemic embolism (2), vascular disease (1), 65-74yrs (1), sex = female (1)

255
Q

What is a moderate to high risk score from CHADSVASC and what should be done?

A

Above 2 and consider anticoag

256
Q

What is HASBLED?

A

hypertension, abnormal renal/liver function, stroke, bleeding, labile INRs, >65yrs, drugs/alcohol; higher the score the more carefully should consider if need anticoagulants

257
Q

Aortic stenosis/ejection systolic murmur?

A

Collapse from vasovagal syncope

258
Q

Pleuritic chest pain causes?

A

PE, pulmonary oedema, pleural effusion

259
Q

AEIOU tips mnemonic for causes of collapse?

A

alcohol, epilepsy, infection, OD, uraemia, trauma, insulin, poisoning, stroke

260
Q

T waves tall cause?

A

Hypokalaemia

261
Q

Consequences of COVID?

A

Pneumonitis, hypercoagualable state so leads to stroke/PE and can show up on D dimer test

262
Q

What is zero point survey/STEPUP?

A

self [danger to self], team [leader, roles allocated, briefing], environment [danger, space, light etc], patient [primary survey – ABCDE], update [check pt status], priorities [identify team goals and set mission trajectory]); secure the airway, give O2, assess cardioresp function (O2 sats, HR, bp, BM

263
Q

Drugs for fitting pt if no IV access?

A

Status epilepticus (seizure longer than 5 mins or more than 1 seizure in 5-minute period) so buccal/rectal midazolam 10mg first line in children/young people/adults; check if on opioids (can give resp depression), so for methadone in IVDU, previous coma from benzos, lung problems (CNS depression, severe resp depression, compromised airway)

264
Q

Drugs for pt if IV access?

A

IV access then give IV lorazepam 4mg

265
Q

SEs of benzos?

A

give women and partners (of childbearing age) info of AEDs and benzo effects on neurodevelopment of unborn children (sodium valproate risks if on it), give with combined hormonal contraception/COCP; dependence problems and withdrawal effects (confusion, muscle twitching, seizures, paranoia, depression etc)

266
Q

If benzo therapy not working for fitting pt?

A

Diazepam 10mg if midazolam and lorazepam unavailable; second dose of benzos if unresponsive; after this then additional maintenance treatment with AEDs (IV phenytoin)

267
Q

Things to check whilst on IV phenytoin?

A

Rate of infusion changed if hypotension/arrhythmias/renal/hepatic impairment; ECG monitoring and EEG

268
Q

Alternatives to IV phenytoin?

A

also can use sodium valproate but probs not in women of childbearing age or IV levetiracetam

269
Q

Causes of status epilepticus?

A

alcohol withdrawal; hypoglycaemia; poorly controlled epilepsy; stroke; renal failure; liver failure; encephalitis; HIV; drug abuse; genetic diseases (fragile X/angelman syndrome); head injuries

270
Q

Invest and treatments of causes of status epilepticus?

A

chlordiazepoxide, thiamine/pabrinex (alcohol withdrawal); methadone (opioid addiction/withdrawal); FBC, U+Es, LFTs, calcium, glucose, clotting, antiepileptic drug levels, serum drug levels, EEG, ECG, blood gases to assess acidosis; evacuate haematoma in brain (craniotomy); mannitol for high ICP; encephalitis = benzylpenicillin etc

271
Q

Medical complications of status epilepticus?

A

physical disability, mental disability, coma, death

272
Q

Early alcohol withdrawal signs?

A

insomnia, autonomic dysfunction, tremor, N+V, agitation, anxiety, seizures (generalised), hallucinations

273
Q

Treating features of alcohol withdrawal?

A

pabrinex, chlordiazepoxide, benzos

274
Q

Features of delirium tremens?

A

tremors, hallucinations, seizures, confusion, agitations, hyperactivity, LOC, insomnia, fever, high BP, rapid HR, excessive sweating, dehydration

275
Q

Treating delirium tremens?

A

continuous sedation through the administration of benzos; IV fluids; antipsychotic meds for agitation and hallucinations

276
Q

Assessing alcohol dependence?

A

FAST, AUDIT, Glasgow Modified Alcohol Withdrawal Scale (GMAWS)

277
Q

Possible causes of chest pain?

A

MI – serious, possible; angina – not too serious but needs to be treated, very likely; anxiety attack – not serious, possible; PE – serious, possible; gastritis – possible (can lead to ulcers with blood brought up), possible; MSK – depends how much is affecting the person to it’s seriousness (broken bones, flail chest), possible if after trauma; pneumothorax – more in young men, serious if becomes tension; pericarditis – serious, less common; pleural effusion/pulmonary oedema from pneumonia or infection – serious at a certain point; stab/gunshot wound – v serious to chest, unlikely and usually visually seen; aortic dissection; ischaemic cardiac pain

278
Q

RFs for IHD?

A

male gender, active smoker, positive family history; others = previous coronary artery disease, advanced age, diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, aspirin

279
Q

Causes of chest pain associated with chest wall tenderness?

A

pulmonary oedema, PE, pleural effusion, bruising to intercostals/rib fxs, angina, MI, ACS, pericarditis; more likely to be MSK injuries if chest wall tenderness

280
Q

Significance of chest pain on exertion?

A

less likely to be MSK and more likely to be vascular/cardiac/resp cause (ischaemic cardiac cause); more likely to be stable angina than unstable and can be controlled more effectively with medication, not as significant risk to health

281
Q

Bedside test in first few mins of finding coma pt, why and treat?

A

blood glucose (BMs), hypoglycaemia/hypers, diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to cerebral oedema and then to uncal herniation which is imminent death if untreated; can also mean hypokalaemia, pulmonary oedema and fluid loss causing kidney/organ damage; get IV access and give dextrose if hypoglycaemic (5mls per kg)

282
Q

Further assessment of coma pt after ABCD?

A

E – exposure (hypothermia); secondary survey for broken bones/c-spine injury; immediate CT; needs a GCS 12 or less, full neuro exam?; GCS is 7; maintaining airway even though in coma (recommended to secure airway manually if GCS <8); FBC (WBCs, hb); U+Es (hyponatraemia in the elderly, hypo/hyperkalaemia [3.5-4.5 is normal], urea [uraemia from renal failure]); LFTs for liver failure; coag screen; VBG (lactate and pH and CO2 and base excess); head CT

283
Q

Normal temp range in pt?

A

36.5-37.5

284
Q

Give the GCS scorign system?

A

out of 15; eyes (4 – spontaneous, to speech, to pain, none); verbal (5 – orientated, confused, words, sounds, none); motor (6 – obeys commands, localising, normal flexion, abnormal flexion [decorticate], abnormal extension [decerebrate], none)

285
Q

Where to apply pain stimulus?

A

under the eye socket, behind the ear and sternal rub, under the floating ribs

286
Q

Possible diagnoses for coma?

A

head injury (hypotension, hypoxia, extradural haematoma), no head injury (acute CVS event, acute hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia), no head injury/no neuro signs (infection like meningitis, cerebral malaria – abx therapy), no head injury/no neuro signs, infection unlikely (poisoned, toxin like CO, tricyclics, narcotics or something arising from end organ failure like DKA, myxoedema coma, resp failure – use ABG, serum anion gap and serum electrolytes), alcohol (acute intoxication), decorticate (injury to midbrain), decerebrate (brainstem lesion)

287
Q

Treatment for opioid OD?

A

IV naloxone hydrochloride; initially 400micrograms then 800 for up to 2 doses at 1 minute intervals if not responding to preceding dose then to 2mg if still no response; can be given subcut, IM routes (400mg every 2-3mins) only if IV not feasible; also intranasal (1.8mg)

288
Q

Why danger still remains in IVDU treated with naloxone?

A

if still high serum opioid then naloxone has shorter half-life than most opioids like heroine and could be discharged but may go into resp depression again; also may be angry and withdrawal effects

289
Q

Uncal herniation signs?

A

uncal herniation (the bruising are battle scars and then yellow liquid is CSF); will be from high ICP from cerebral oedema/haematoma/extradural haemorrhage from middle meningeal artery after lucid interval; depressed brain fx can introduce infection (meningitis) or focal epilepsy when presses on the brain

290
Q

Causes of tachycardia in major trauma?

A

anxiety, pain, internal bleeding, hypothermia (lethal triad – hypothermia, coagulopathy, acidosis); distributive (neurogenic and endocrine [addison’s crisis]), endocrine, septic, cardiogenic (ischaemic, arrhythmia), spinal, obstructive (tension ptx, PE, tamponade), hypovolaemic, anaphylactic, haemorrhagic

291
Q

Priorities of what to do after assessing major trauma pt?

A

obtain IV access and start IV normal saline, catheterise, FAST scan, feel for foot pulses and manipulate, carry out secondary survey

292
Q

Normal blood tests to do for major trauma?

A

FBC, VBG, U+Es, LFTs, clotting, trop T, D dimer, group and save

293
Q

What is permissive hypotensive resuscitation?

A

use of restrictive fluid therapy (mainly in trauma pt) to increase systemic bp without achieving normotension (get to around 90 systolic which is enough to maintain vital perfusion)

294
Q

What is major haemorrhage protocol?

A

more than 5L of blood loss in 24 hours/150ml per minute; source of haemorrhage (use SCALPeR – scalp and external, chest, abdo, long bones, pelvis, retroperitoneum); approach to control (help, cause, direct pressure/elevation/adrenaline/tourniquets; invasive measures if needed; correct coagulopathy); pulse palpation to guide bp (carotid = 60-70mmHg, femoral = 70-80mmHg, radial = >80); 4 classes of haemorrhagic shock (4th is worse = >200mL and with bradycardia); hypothermia prevention and treatment; damage control resus (DCR – permissive hypotension, early haemostatic resus and damage control surgery)

295
Q

Indications for WBCT?

A

high motor speed vehicle collision, non-trivial motorbike collision, death at scene, fall from height >2m, other concerning mechanism of injury, abnormal FAST/trauma chest/pelvis XR, abnormal vitals; non-contrast, CT brain, face, c-spine, thorax and upper abdo in angiographic/delayed phase, abdo or pelvis in portal venous phase, multiplanar reconstructions of thoracic and lumber spine; interventional radiologist in trauma (help uncover lots of incidental findings and clinical assessment may underestimate injury severity by 30%; they do all the imaging by CT, can use angiography to stop the bleeding on site rather than from outside by pressure, laparoscopy so less recovery time)

296
Q

4 stages of splenic injury?

A

splenic rupture/internal haemorrhage; splenic injury (1 = capsular, 2 = capsular and bleeding on outside, 3 or 4 = shattered); give prophylactic abx and vaccines as lower immunity

297
Q

Consequences of sertraline OD?

A

long QT, QRS and torsades de pointes (can all lead to ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation); hyperthermia

298
Q

Serotonin syndrome S+Ss?

A

CNS (agitation and coma), autonomic instability, neuromuscular excitability, GI upset, tremor, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, rhadomyolysis leading to renal failure

299
Q

Treatment of torsades de pointes with long QT from sertraline OD

A

magnesium sulfate

300
Q

Treatment for serotonin syndrome?

A

activated charcoal, obs, ECG, ABG, electrolyte count, oral/IV lorazepam/diazepam and if too severe then cyproheptadine or chlorpromazine

301
Q

Invest for convulsions?

A

O2, BMs, U+Es, Ca, Mg, Po4, ABG

302
Q

Drugs for muscle relaxing?

A
  1. suxamethonium (caution for hyperkalaemia, rhabdomyolysis, VT, MI), RSI, rocuronium, atracurium [all paralytic agents]
303
Q

How to calculate rate on ECG?

A

standard = 1 small square = 0.04secs (40ms); speed = 25mm/sec; so rate or bpm = 300/no. of large squares between r waves or 1500/small squares between R waves (if fast rhythm); tachy >100 and brady <60; multiply number of R waves by 6 in a strip to get rate too

304
Q

How to read pattern of QRS complexes?

A

regular or irregular (regularly irregular [atrial flutter or ecptopic] or irregularly irregular [AF]); sinus = p wave before each and junctional = missing a p wave

305
Q

How to work out axis deviation?

A

normal = QRS (-30 and 90+); left deviation (-30); right (more than +90); extreme deviation (-90 and 180); how to estimate (lead I and aVF – determine if QRS complex is positive/equiphasic/negative and compare

306
Q

QRS morphology?

A

narrow complex (sinus, atrial, junctional origin), wide complex (ventricular origin, supraventricular with abberant conduction, bundle branch block, hyperkalaemia, pre-excitation like WPW, ventricular pacing, hypothermia); should be 70-100ms (3 small squares); broad usually coz of ectopics (from anxiety, alcohol, energy drinks)

307
Q

P wave morphology meaning?

A

absent (sinus arrest, AF), present (morphology and PR interval may mean sinus, atrial, junctional or even retrograde from ventricles); <0.12s (3 small squares); biphasic in V1; right atrial enlargement = increase in height of wave, left atrial enlargement = widening and deepening of negative bit of P wave, both = combination of the 2; if broad notched waves in lead II then mitral stenosis; if tall-peaked waves in lead II = pulmonary hypertension

308
Q

What is a q wave?

A

pathological = >40ms wide, 2mm deep, 25% depth of QRS, seen V1-3; mean current or prior MI; absent in V5-6 usually from LBBB

309
Q

Meaning of prolonged QT?

A

hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaema, hypocalcaemia, hypothermia, myocardial ischaemia, raised ICP, long QT syndrome, meds/drugs; >440

310
Q

Cause of short QT?

A

<350; hypercalcaemia, short QT syndrome, digoxin

311
Q

What is a j point and what does it mean?

A

where QRS meets ST segment; J wave = hypothermia; elevated or depressed = ST segment abnormality

312
Q

ST segment elevation meaning and what leads mean what type of MI?

A

acute MI, coronary vasospasm, pericarditis, LBBB, left ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular aneurysm, raised ICP; acute STEMI (MI); large = tombstoning; different infarction areas (treat with aspirin, fondaparinux and ticagrelor – if not treated can go into VF and cardiogenic shock and die; PCI is first-line treatment):
 II, III, AVF = inferior – can lead to heart block
 V1, 2, 3 = anterior
 V3 and 4 = septal
 V4, 5, 6 = lateral and lead I and AVL

313
Q

What is an NSTEMI?

A

ST depression and post ischaemia

314
Q

What is an R wave?

A

dominant in V1 (normal in young; right ventricular hypertrophy, RBBB, posterior MI, WPW, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, dystrophy),

315
Q

Association between P waves and QRS complexes?

A

AV association (difficult to distinguish from isorhythmic dissociation), AV dissociation (complete = atrial and ventricular activity is always independent; incomplete = intermittent capture); Mobitz I/II/complete block; best place to look for P wave is lead II

316
Q

What cardiac abnormalities respond to vagal manoeuvres?

A

sinus tachy, ectopic atrial tachydysrhythmia (gradual slowing during vagal manoeuvre but resumes on cessation), AVNRT/AVRT (abrupt termination or no response), AF and atrial flutter (gradual response during manoeuvre), VT (no response)

317
Q

T wave morphology?

A

look for inversion, concordance/discordance with QRS, T wave flattening; AVR and V1 already inverted so not abnormal

318
Q

U wave morphology and meaning?

A

are they present or not (hypokalaemia); delayed repolarisation of Purkinje fibres; prominent U waves = bradycardia, severe hypokalaemia, digoxin

319
Q

PR wave elongation?

A

delayed conduction; 1st degree heart block

320
Q

Delta wave meaning?

A

characteristic of WPW (short PR, broad QRS and delta wave); slurred upstroke to the QRS complex

321
Q

Osborn wave meaning?

A

seen in hypothermia; raised ST segment with tiny wave before hand

322
Q

Epsilon wave meaning?

A

in arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; tiny little wave after QRS complex

323
Q

Describe SVT on ECG?

A

narrow complex QRS, regular, no Ps (junctional); vagal manoeuvres to treat can do carotid massage but not in the elderly as can cause a stroke, need to induce bradycardia; adenosine after trying these (short half-life, works on the AV node), if doesn’t work use a beta blocker or CCB

324
Q

Describe RBBB and LBBB on ECG?

A

o M in V1-3 = RBBB

o LBBB - when all QRS are broad

325
Q

Two types of VT and treatment?

A

pulse (can feel pulse – accommodating) and pulseless (can’t feel pulse and deteriorating to cardiac arrest); amiodarone is best for tachycardias (broad and non-broad QRS)

326
Q

Types of electric cardioversion?

A

synchronised shocks (delivered at R wave – stops VF) or asynchronised shock (can be delivered at any time – unconscious and about to die, cardiac arrest)

327
Q

What is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?

A

tachy but QRS peaks are different heights; aka torsades de pointes from mg deficiency and ischaemia

328
Q

What is complete heart block?

A

atria beating completely independent to ventricles and no conduction between them

329
Q

Treatment for bradycardia?

A

check if symptomatic by checking bp; can give up to atropine 3 x 1mg doses to treat symptomatic (<40); if this doesn’t work do external pacing; then JVP line to heart and use transvenous pacing; those are all short term measures and if long term then need pacemaker

330
Q

Another name for Mobitz type 2 heartblock?

A

Wenckebach

331
Q

Differentials for anaphylaxis?

A

asthma, septic shock (hypotension with petechial/purpuric rash), vasovagal episode, panic attack/hyperventilation syndrome, breath holding in a child, systemic mast cell disorders, idiopathic urticaria/angioedema, obstruction by foreign object, seizure

332
Q

Typical rash associated with allergy?

A

urticaria (hives – red, itchy, raised areas of skin anywhere on body; maculopapular rash), can be associated with angioedema on deeper layers of skin

333
Q

Specific points to note in anaphylaxis hx?

A

have they eaten/been exposed to this food/allergen before (more likely to be allergy – type 1 hypersensitivity leading to mast cell activation with histamine and other mediators causing bronchial smooth muscle increase, decreased vascular tone and increase cap permeability); what allergen (food, abx, insect stings) were they exposed to just before having the reaction; has this happened before; do they have other allergies (epi-pen); do they have asthma; what order did symptoms come on; do they suffer from panic attacks; any neuro problems during attack (confusion, agitation, LOC); IV drugs tends to kill sooner (2-3 mins), bee stings in 30ish mins

334
Q

Systems affected in anaphylaxis and sx?

A

airway (lip and tongue swelling, angioedema, nasal congestion, sneezing, tightness of throat, hoarse, stridor), breathing (tachypnoea, bronchospasm, wheeze, increased mucous, exhaustion, confusion, cyanosis, resp arrest), circ (hypotension, tachycardia, arrhythmia, myocardial ischaemia, cardiac arrest), neuro (confusion, agitation, LOC), skin and mucosa (urticaria, erythema, pruritus), GI (stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea), feeling of impending doom

335
Q

Mechanism of anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reactions?

A

Allergic anaphylaxis is an example of immediate type 1 hypersensitivity. The response is caused by the binding of an antigen to an antigen-specific antibody leading to mediating mast cell activation. Histamine and other mediators, including leukotrienes, tumour necrosis factor and various cytokines, are released from mast cells and basophils following exposure to this antigen. This causes bronchial smooth muscle tone to increase (causing wheeze and shortness of breath), decreased vascular tone and increased capillary permeability (leading to hypotension and an urticarial rash). The response is usually uniphasic, although a biphasic response occurs in approximately 20% of individuals; anaphylaxis = immediate systemic reaction from IgE mediated immune response from mast cells and peripheral blood basophils, anaphylactoid = immediate systemic reactions that mimic anaphylaxis but not IgE-mediated immune responses, no previous exposure (direct nonimmune-mediated release of mediators from mast cells and/or basophils or from direct complement activation)

336
Q

Initial treatments for allergic reaction?

A

ABCDE; call for help, lie pt flat, raise pt’s legs if breathing unimpaired (recovery position or in comfortable one as well), recognition seriously unwell, remove the trigger, adrenaline therapy if indicated, hydrocortisone and antihistamines

337
Q

Indication for adrenaline in allergy?

A

best when given early in anaphylaxis; give IM (500 micrograms) unless experienced with IV adrenaline; given when life threatening (stridor, wheeze, resp distress, clinical signs of shock) and give 5 mins later if no improvement

338
Q

Adrenaline dose and route for anaphylaxis?

A

500micrograms IM, 0.5mL

339
Q

Other treatments than adrenaline for anaphylaxis?

A

IV fluid challenge (crystalloid 20mL/kg) for circ, chlorphenamine (10mg IM/slow IV), hydrocortisone (200mg IM or slow IV); O2; salbutamol for bronchospasm

340
Q

Who should be delivering adrenaline for anaphylaxis?

A

alpha receptor agonist (reverses peripheral dilation, reduces oedema; beta-receptor activity dilates bronchial airways, increase myocardial contraction and suppresses leukotriene ad histamine release; beta-2 receptors on mast cells and if given early they inhibit its activation); more likely to have harmful SEs if IV than IM; for specialist use only (specialist anaesthetist, emergency physicians, intensivists) must monitor pt at same time (continuous ECG, O2 sats, frequent non-invasive blood pressure), no recommended dose; can give intracerebral haemorrhage as raises BP if not given properly

341
Q

Factors to consider before discharging after anaphylaxis?

A

keep and observe for at least 6 hours; biphasic reaction could occur afterwards, allergen may still be in system; review by sr clinician, clear safety netting instructions, anti-histamines and oral steroid up to 3 days after considered, consider for adrenaline auto-injector, plan for follow up

342
Q

Follow up arrangements for anaphylaxis?

A

all pts referred to allergy clinic to identify cause and prep them for future; may need to wear a medic alert bracelet; if can identify cause then give epi-pen and allow them to use, get them to talk to pharmacist and tell them how to use

343
Q

Test to help with anaphylaxis diagnosis?

A

3 things = acute onset of illness with sudden progression, skin/mucosal changes, life threatening ABC problems; test = mast cell tryptase (major component of mast cell secretory granules, mast cell degradation means high conc of this from anaphylaxis, better for follow-up treatment not initial) and take one immediately, 1 take 2 hours after onset (at least after 30 mins but before 6-8 hours) and the last after 16 hours

344
Q

How to treat anaphylactoid reaction?

A

anaphylactoid reaction; IV volume infusion, adrenaline and anti-histamines sometimes but start with ABCD

345
Q

Commonest types of anaphylaxis?

A

foods (nuts, fish, milk, shellfish, eggs and some fruits), medicines (abx, NSAIDs, general anaesthesia), contrast agents for imaging, latex, insect stings, idiopathic

346
Q

What info needed for poisoning?

A

how much taken, what was taken, have they done this before, when taken, did they throw up, how did they take it, taken with anything else, what was the intention (accidental or on purpose - suicide), events leading up to, S+Ss, problems with liver/metabolism, was it staggered or single OD, pregnancy

347
Q

Sxs for paracetamol OD?

A

up to 24 hours (no symptoms); 24-72 = raised ALT, AST, RUQ, elevated LFTs, hepatosplenomegaly, oliguria, renal function abnormalities; 72-96 = jaundice, confusion (hepatic encephalopathy), hepatic enzymes raised, hyperammonaemia, bleeding diathesis hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, renal failure, death; 4 days to 2 weeks = recovery 4 days and complete at 7

348
Q

Principal site of paracetamol toxicity?

A

metabolised in liver producing toxic NAPQI which is inactivated by conjugation with glutathione but once this depleted it can cause hepatic necrosis; can also cause renal failure as this is how it is excreted

349
Q

Time to toxicity from paracetamol?

A

peak conc 1-2 hours post ingestion (30 mins for liquid); toxicity starts after 8 hours

350
Q

At risk pts to liver damage?

A

recent OD/staggered OD (more than 2 hours – measure LFTs, INRs [above 1.3 is not normal] instead and start treatment immediately), previous liver damage (hepatitis/alcoholic etc), younger (under 12 yrs), genetic variation, HIV positive, malnutrition

351
Q

Blood tests for paracetamol OD?

A

FBC, U+Es (ca, mg, po4), LFTs, clotting screen, VBG, serum paracetamol conc (at 4 hours), glucose

352
Q

Paracetamol OD serum blood levels taken?

A

how long it takes for levels to rise to amount metabolised and see if liver can handle it (more than 250 mg/kg = problem time), doesn’t come up on a nomogram before this; more than 20 tablets is a problem; takes this long for toxic metabolite to show; wait up until 8 hours for paracetamol levels and then treat

353
Q

How to decide if treat with N-actylcysteine for paracetamol OD?

A

if have timed plasma paracetamol level above or on the line with 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours after ingestion (nomogram – only really for single acute paracetamol ingestions of immediate); if any doubt about time of ingestion should be given without delay; if modified release/IV/massive/multiple drug OD should be discussed with toxicology; don’t need NAC; limits formation and accumulation of NAPQI; can also give oral methionine

354
Q

When wold you start NAC infusion for paracetamol OD?

A

first infusion (150 mg/kg over 1 hour), 2nd 50 mg/kg over next 4 hours, 3rd 100 mg/kg over 16 hours; give within 8 hours of ingestion for best efficacy (almost 100%); if allergic reaction, stop, give anti-histamines and half the dose given

355
Q

Questions for OD?

A

staggered dose, what was his intention, suicidal ideation/self-harm, does he have regrets about his actions now, mood during episode, does he remember episode, has he done this before, any previous psychiatric illnesses/admissions, any PMH, was it planned

356
Q

Scoring system for risk of repeated OD/suicide?

A

sad person’s score (male sex = 1, 15-25 or 59+ = 1, depression = 2, previous suicide/psych care = 1, excessive ethanol/drug use = 1, rational thinking loss = 2, single/widowed/divorced = 1, organised/serious attempt = 2, no social support = 1, stated future intent = 2; 0-5 = safe to discharge, 6-8 = psych consultation, >8 = hosp admission

357
Q

When to use activated charcoal in OD?

A

immediate release 50g activated charcoal within 2 hours and up to 4 hours if >30g paracetamol taken (taken 25g so not necessary); helps absorb the paracetamol before taken up into the body to be metabolised so serum paracetamol conc is lower; reduces absorption 50-90 percent

358
Q

Well’s DVT score?

A

1 point for each: active cancer, bedridden recently >3cm days/surgery, calf swelling >3cm compared to other leg, collateral (non-varicose) superficial veins present, entire swollen leg, localised tenderness along deep venous system, pitting oedema on leg, paralysis/paresis or recent plaster immobilisation, previously documented DVT, alternative diagnosis to DVT more likely = -2, 2+ = likely and should have tinzaparin with doppler and bloods to check (including D dimer)

359
Q

What is ascending cholangitis and S+Ss?

A

murphy’s sign, inspiratory pain, epigastric pain to back, jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, sick, low bp, fever; can develop from cholecystitis (inflammation of the bile ducts) or from gallstone; infection of the bile duct system

360
Q

Treatment ascending cholangitis?

A

need abx (co-amoxiclav or cephalosporin + metronidazole if penicillin allergy with gentamicin); if untreated can lead to biliary sepsis; definitive treatment = ERCP

361
Q

What is S1Q3T3 and what does it indicate in ECG?

A

s wave in lead 1, Q wave in lead 3 and inverted T wave in lead 3 = PE

362
Q

What is the Glasgow Blatchford score for and what does it consist of?

A

Upper GI bleeds; score of 1 or more = hospital referral; Hb, urea, systolic bp, sex, tachycardiac, melena, recent syncope, hepatic disease hx, cardiac failure hx

363
Q

Differentials for chest pain?

A

MI – serious, possible; angina – not too serious but needs to be treated (unstable more likely), very likely; anxiety attack – not serious, possible; PE – serious, possible; gastritis – possible (can lead to ulcers with blood brought up), possible; MSK – depends how much is affecting the person to it’s seriousness (broken bones, flail chest), possible if after trauma; pneumothorax – more in young men, serious if becomes tension; pericarditis – serious, less common; pleural effusion/pulmonary oedema from pneumonia or infection – serious at a certain point; stab/gunshot wound – v serious to chest, unlikely and usually visually seen; aortic dissection; ischaemic cardiac pain; pneumothorax

364
Q

RFs for IHD?

A

male gender, active smoker, positive family history, ethnicity, cholesterol, diabetes, age; others = previous coronary artery disease, advanced age, diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, aspirin

365
Q

Causes of chest pain associated with chest wall tenderness?

A

pulmonary oedema, PE, pleural effusion, bruising to intercostals/rib fxs, angina, MI, ACS, pericarditis; more likely to be MSK injuries if chest wall tenderness

366
Q

Significance of chest pain with exertion?

A

less likely to be MSK and more likely to be vascular/cardiac/resp cause (ischaemic cardiac cause); more likely to be stable angina than unstable and can be controlled more effectively with medication, not as significant risk to health

367
Q

What is Wellen’s syndrome?

A

prodrome for left main stem infarct

368
Q

HEART for assessing ACS?

A

hx moderate suspicious = 1, highly suspicious = 2; ECG = non-specific repolarisation disturbance = 1, significant ST deviation = 2; age 45-64 = 1, >65 = 2; 1-2 RF = 1, >3 RF = 2; initial trop 1-3x normal limit = 1, >3 = 2; low score = 0-3, moderate = 4-6

369
Q

Tests for chest pain?

A

FBC, U+Es, VBG, CK, trop T, LFTs, clotting screen, CK-MB, hs-tropinins; trop measured at presentation and 3 + 12 hours after onset of symptoms to see if MI, use sex specific thresholds; CXR

370
Q

Cardiac enzymes different types?

A

use trop T (best sensitivity); hs troponin = more sensitive at identifying ACS than troponin (troponin is type of protein found in heart muscle and not usually in blood), CKMB = measures amount of isoenzyme CK in blood (CKMB is one form of CK – more for cardiac), injured heart muscle cells release CKMB so CKMB more specific to cardiac damage than muscle/organ damage in body when normal CK released

371
Q

When cardiac enzymes raised?

A

maybe if more than 3-12 hours, if less than this then maybe enzymes not released enough to be detected; could be an NSTEMI and therefore not detected on ECG

372
Q

Drugs given for chest pain with cardiac?

A

GTN spray and morphine; oxygen = not found to improve clinical outcome for ACS but may relieve pain (look at sats), deffo put on O2 for MI

373
Q

How to tell if posterior MI?

A

inversion of T waves in V2, 3, 4

374
Q

Indications for primary PCI?

A

if have acute LBBB, acute MI

375
Q

What is PCI?

A

cardiac catheterisation (insertion of catheter tube and injection of contrast dye with iodine into coronary arteries), use PCI to open up coronary arteries that narrowed/blocked by plaque, will still be awake and fed through arteries via arm/leg to heart; may not be able to do it if no longer in pain as too much necrosis of cardiac tissue

376
Q

Instead of PCI?

A

fibrinolysis; use streptokinase/alteplase; ideally within an hour but should be less than 12 hours/6 hours; acute PE, acute stroke and DVT

377
Q

Fibrinolytic drug and CIs?

A

streptokinase, alteplase, tenecteplase; Cis = acute pancreatitis, aortic dissection, bacterial endocarditis, coagulation defects, history of cerebrovascular disease, pericarditis, recent haemorrhage, recent surgery, currently haemorrhaging

378
Q

Main 3 drugs for ACS?

A

aspirin, fondaparinux and ticagrelor

379
Q

PINCHES ME mnemonic for delirium causes?

A

delirium: pain, infection, nutrition, constipation, hydration, endocrine/electrolyte, stroke, medication/alcohol, environmental

380
Q

AEIOU TIPS for causes of collapse?

A

alcohol, epilepsy, infection, OD, uraemia, trauma, insulin, poisoning, stroke

381
Q

What is deconditioning?

A

decline in physical function of the body as a result of physical inactivity and disuse. The most important feature of deconditioning is a decline in muscle strength and bulk. It is usually reversible. It is often seen in the elderly and the infirm due to bed rest and inactivity

382
Q

What is frailty?

A

An inevitable consequence of ageing; A state due to multiple long term conditions; A condition in which the person becomes fragile; A state associated with low energy, slow walking speed, poor strength; A condition for which nothing can be done

383
Q

How to assess pts for frailty?

A

Walking speed reduced, grip strength low, immune deficits, reduced; ability of withstand an “insult”; Useful in clinical trials, difficult to implement on large scale; Walking speed; timed up and go test (TUGT) used

384
Q

What is the ceiling of treatment?

A

considered to be the predetermined highest level of intervention deemed appropriate by a medical team, aligning with patient and family wishes, values and beliefs

385
Q

What is a ReSPECT form?

A

gives personalised recommendations for person’s care and treatment in a future emergency when unable to make or express choice; made through talking to pt, family, healthcare; it is a non-legally binding form that can reviewed and adapted; recommended summary plan for emergency care and treatment; not just DNACPR as can include other care to refuse like ITU etc or intubation

386
Q

Examination findings for differentials for PE?

A
  1. PE (Well’s scoring over 2, previous DVT sx), MI (pain radiating to jaw or arms and associated with nausea and sweating), MSK (pain felt on palpation), ACS (relieved by rest and GTN), COVID pneumonitis (COVID sx), pulmonary oedema/effusion (stony dull percussion), pneumothorax (hyper resonant percussion)
387
Q

RFs for PE?

A

recent surgery (major, pelvic, hip/knee replacement, post op intensive care), obs (later pregnancy, C section, puerperium), lower limb (fx, varicose veins), malignancy (abdo/pelvic, advanced/mets), reduced mobility (hospitalised, institutional care), previous VTE, cardio (congenital HD, CCF, HT, superficial VT, indwelling central vein catheter), oestrogens (HRT, oral contraceptive), misc (COPD, neuro disability, occult malignancy, thrombotic disorders, long distance sedentary travel, obesity)

388
Q

Clinical findings for PE?

A

dyspnoea, tachypnoea (RR>20), pleuritic chest pain, apprehension, tachycardia (>100), cough, haemoptysis, leg pain, clinically evident DVT (swelling and calf tenderness – Wells score)

389
Q

Investigations for PE?

A

FBC (any problems with blood/infection, polycythaemia [hb], platelets [check if safe to anti-coagulate, not above 10]), U+Es (electrolyte deficiency cause etc, creatinine clearance for anticoagulation and renal clearance for CTPA), ABG (lactate for infection and hypoxia for hyperventilation and increased arterial-alveolar gradient to support PE), LFTs (any problems with liver causing pain), clotting screen (see if it is any different), trop Ts (see if cardiac cause from MI or sometimes PE), ECG (usually sinus tachycardia or normal; can show cardiac or sometimes indicate PE S1Q3T3), D-dimer (can indicate if embolus present but high in most things, rule out not a rule in), CXR (rule out infection/pneumothorax etc, sometimes find wedge infarct for PE), CTPA (gold standard for PE), could do a V/Q scan (isotype lung scan but less specific for PE)

390
Q

What is pretest probability?

A

chance that pt has disease before test result known (from the sx relating to the Wells scoring)

391
Q

What is Well’s PE score?

A

clinically suspected DVT (3 points), PE at least as likely or more than alternative diagnosis (3), pulse rate >100 (1.5), immobilisation >3 days (1.5), surgery last 4 weeks (1.5), previous VTE (1.5), haemoptysis (1), malignancy (1); pts scoring 4 or less = low risk and above are high risk of PE

392
Q

What is a d-dimer?

A

sensitive but not specific investigation (poor positive predictive value); raised in VTE, infection, trauma, cancer and inflammation; used only for PE unlikely pts; is when clot starts breaking down and D-dimer is release (breakdown product of blood clot, enzymatic reaction breakdown of fibrin)

393
Q

Sensitivity vs specificity?

A

sensitive = low false negative rate, specific = low false positive

394
Q

Alternative to CTPA for pregnancy for PE?

A

due to contrast and risk to baby; use V/Q SPECT (ventilation perfusion single photon emission computed tomography)

395
Q

Risks from anticoags?

A

warfarin (heavy bleeding – haematuria, melaena, severe bruising, epistaxis, bleeding gums, vomiting blood, haemoptysis, menorrhagia, stroke, internal bleeding) may interact with other drugs (antivirals, vit K is antagonist), calciphylaxis (painful rash), pomegranate juice increases response to drug, reduce alcohol; alopecia, N+V; warfarin is teratogenic and not for first trimester of pregnancy; INR monitoring daily/alternate days at first then up to every 12 weeks; INR uses PT time test results (may also do platelet count, PT time, activated partial thromboplastin time, fibrin D-dimer, fibrinogen, thrombin time); INR number is a ratio varying according to age, medicines, health problems (bigger number = longer time for blood to clot), should be around 2.5-3.5; check using HASBLED

396
Q

Treatment for PE?

A

use a DOAC if PE and dose of tinzaparin 10-18000 units (LMWH), test them, anticoagulation clinic and see if need to continue LMWH; if massive PE then can do thrombolysis with alteplase and v risky (not usually thrombectomy as 50% mortality)

397
Q

Range for INR aimed for in PE?

A

2.5-3.5 (or 2-3); at least 3 months for confirmed DVT/PE need anticoagulant; should be DOAC (apixaban or rivaroxaban) but if not then LMWH for 5 days then DOAC or LMWH with vit K antagonist for at least 5 days or until INR is 2.0 for 2 consecutive readings

398
Q

What is thrombophilia and examples?

A

imbalance in naturally occurring blood-clotting proteins/clotting factors so more at risk of forming clots; genetic = factor V leiden and prothrombin thrombophilia most common (others = congenital dysfibrinogenemia, hereditary antithrombin deficiency, heterozygous protein C deficiency, heterozygous protein S deficiency); acquired = antiphospholipid syndrome (70% female and more likely if have SLE), prolonged bed rest, cancer, trauma, acquired dysfibrinogenemia