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Emergency Medicine > Emergency Medicine2 > Flashcards

Emergency Medicine2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q200. bilateral facet dislocation…? stable?

A

A200. flexion injury; subluxation of the dislocated vertebra; very unstable

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2
Q

Q201. Cullen’s sign? Gray-Turner’s sign?

A

A201. ecchymosis of the abdomen signifies late retroperitoneal hemorrhage; Gray-Turner’s: same, but of the flanks

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3
Q

Q202. 12% of patients with hyperthyroidism will suffer…?

A

A202. Pathologic fracture

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4
Q

Q203. serious associated injuries are present in up to 95% of patients with a dislocated…?

A

A203. hip

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5
Q

Q204. a pt with a posterior hip dislocation holds the hip how?

A

A204. flexed, adducted, and internally rotated

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6
Q

Q205. most common ortho injury seen in the ED?

A

A205. knee - in particular, MCL (medial collateral ligament)

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7
Q

Q206. 50% of patients with ACL injury have a concomitant…?

A

A206. Meniscal tear

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8
Q

Q207. lachman’s test?

A

A207. flex the knee to 30 degrees and pull anteriorly on the tibia

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9
Q

Q208. donahue’s unhappy triad?

A

A208. ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus tear

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10
Q

Q209. Injury to the ________ occurs in 50% of knee dislocations…

A

A209. popliteal artery

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11
Q

Q210. injury to the tibial nerve causes…?

A

A210. inability to stand on tiptoes

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12
Q

Q211. which ankle fracture warrants a careful radiologic examination? of what specifically?

A

A211. medial malleolar fracture; proximal shaft of the fibula (Maisoneuve fracture)

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13
Q

Q212. 10% of calcaneal fractures are associated with…?

A

A212. lumbar fractures

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14
Q

Q213. when do you call for an ortho consult?

A

A213. compartment syndrome; irreducible fractures; circulatory compromise; open fracture; anything that requires surgery

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15
Q

Q214. what is the most frequent complication of orotracheal intubation?

A

A214. Right main stem bronchus intubation

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16
Q

Q215. Patients with COPD, asthma, or CHF that are awake but cannot remain in the supine position may be intubated how…?

A

A215. Nasotracheal intubation

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17
Q

Q216. Most serious complication of nasotracheal intubation?

A

A216. Intracranial passage of the tube

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18
Q

Q217. advance airway adjuncts?

A

A217. fiberoptic intubation; retrograde intubation; combitube; laryngeal mask airway

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19
Q

Q218. What is the preferred surgical airway for kids? Adults?

A

A218. Kids - needle cricothyroidotomy; Adults - surgical cricothyroidotomy

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20
Q

Q219. if an airway will be needed for greater than 2-3 days, a surgical cricothyoidotomy should be converted to…?

A

A219. a tracheostomy

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21
Q

Q220. slit lamp exam consists of…?

A

A220. evaluate the integrity of the cornea, conjunctiva, and the anterior chamber; fluorescein to light up corneal defects

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22
Q

Q221. central retinal artery occlusion occurs in which people?

A

A221. men in their 60s

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23
Q

Q222. fundoscopic exam in central retinal artery occlusion?

A

A222. pale retina with cherry red fovea

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24
Q

Q223. what is amaurosis fugax?

A

A223. type of TIA - sudden vision loss (Shade over eye), transient, due to carotid-origin embolic shower

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25
Q

Q224. classic triad of optic neuritis?

A

A224. marcus gunn pupil; central vision loss; red vision desaturation

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26
Q

Q225. flashing lights, spider webs, or floaters that interfere with vision may be a sign of…? what meds should NOT be given?

A

A225. retinal detachment; DON’T anticoagulate

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27
Q

Q226. painful red eye - most often due to which things?

A

A226. conjunctivitis, corneal abrasion, or foreign body

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28
Q

Q227. which conjunctivitis produces copious DC?

A

A227. gonorrhea

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29
Q

Q228. punctuate lesions in conjunctivitis?

A

A228. viral cause

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30
Q

Q229. treatment of conjunctivitis?

A

A229. broad spectrum antibiotics, pain meds

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31
Q

Q230. soft contact wearers are especially prone to infection by.?

A

A230. pseudomonas

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32
Q

Q231. severe unilateral eye pain, decreased visual acuity and photophobia…?

A

A231. iritis

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33
Q

Q232. treatment of iritis?

A

A232. cycloplegic such as homatropine(not a mydratic)

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34
Q

Q233. severe unilateral HA, eye pain, N/V assoc with loss of vision….?

A

A233. narrow angle glaucoma

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35
Q

Q234. which drugs decrease aqueous production?

A

A234. acetazolomide and topical b blockers

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36
Q

Q235. which chemicals causes coag necrosis? liquefaction necrosis?

A

A235. acids; alkali

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37
Q

Q236. treatment of chemical burn…

A

A236. IRRIGATE

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38
Q

Q237. what’s hyphema?

A

A237. blurred vision after blunt trauma (dull eye pain)… bleeding

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39
Q

Q238. basic approach to all toxicity patients in the ED?

A

A238. ABCs; Decontamination; Elimination; Antidotes

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40
Q

Q239. key things on physical exam for toxicity exposures….?

A

A239. Vital signs; pupils; toxidromes; autonomic signs; motor signs; mental status; skin

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41
Q

Q240. describe anticholinergic toxidrome?

A

A240. “mad as a hatter, dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a stove.” Also - decreased GI motility, urinary retention, mydriasis.

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42
Q

Q241. describe muscarinic toxidrome?

A

A241. DUMBELLS

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43
Q

Q242. narcotic toxidrome?

A

A242. respiratory depression,; hypotension,; depressed sensorium, miosis

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44
Q

Q243. sympathomimetic toxidrome? compare with anticholinergic toxidrome?

A

A243. very similar except sympathomimetic involves diaphoresis

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45
Q

Q244. withdrawal toxidrome?

A

A244. agitation,; hallucination,; mydriasis,; diarrhea,; cramps,; lacrimation,; tachycardia,; insomnia,; seizures

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46
Q

Q245. major toxic effect of acetaminophen?

A

A245. metabolite NAPQI causes centrilobular hepatocellular damage

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47
Q

Q246. treatment of acetaminophen toxicity?

A

A246. 4 hour level on rumack-matthew nomogram,; activated charcoal,; N-acetyl-cysteine (to regenerate glutathione)

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48
Q

Q247. methanol toxicity?

A

A247. formic acid metabolite - causing a gap acidosis and direct optic nerve toxicity

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49
Q

Q248. treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

A248. 4MP or EtOH

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50
Q

Q249. which drugs can cause anticholinergic syndromes? tx?

A

A249. antihistamines, antipsychotics, TCAs… treatment - physostigmine

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51
Q

Q250. symptoms of calcium channel blocker toxicity? tx?

A

A250. bradycardia and hypotension; treatment - CaCl2, glucagon, epinephrine, DA

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52
Q

Q251. CO toxicity symptoms

A

A251. HA,; N/V,; flu-like symptoms,; CNS depression,; tachy,; hypotension

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53
Q

Q252. treatment of CO toxicity?

A

A252. 100% O2

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54
Q

Q253. GHB?

A

A253. date rape drug - euphoric and amnestic effects

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55
Q

Q254. refractory seizures could be caused by what toxicity?

A

A254. INH

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56
Q

Q255. Organophosphates can cause which toxidrome?

A

A255. muscarinic

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57
Q

Q256. naloxone?

A

A256. opioid antagonist

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58
Q

Q257. standard of care for salicylate poisoning?

A

A257. activated charcoal; also consider alkalinization of urine and blood with bicarb

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59
Q

Q258. benzo receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse coma from benzo OD…? what’s the problem with this drug/

A

A258. flumazenil; can lower the seizure threshold in pts with TCA OD and induce benzo withdrawal

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60
Q

Q259. loxosceles bites can be treated with…?

A

A259. dapsone

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61
Q

Q260. signs and symptoms of TCA OD?

A

A260. anticholinergic sx,; cardiac dysfunction,; intractable seizures,; and hyperthermia

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62
Q

Q261. treatment of TCA toxicity?

A

A261. decontamination with MDAC; Sodium bicarb administration; Benzos for seizure management; Alpha agonists for hypotension

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63
Q

Q262. prerenal failure due to..?

A

A262. decreased renal perfusion; (volume depletion, low CO, abnormal renal hemodynamics)

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64
Q

Q263. most common cause of intrinsic renal failure?

A

A263. longstanding HTN

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65
Q

Q264. majority of hospital-assoc episodes of ARF are caused by…?

A

A264. ATN

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66
Q

Q265. postrenal failure caused by?

A

A265. obstructive uropathy

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67
Q

Q266. FENA <1 in which condition?

A

A266. Prerenal failure

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68
Q

Q267. Urine Na <20 in which condition?

A

A267. Prerenal failure

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69
Q

Q268. treatment of prerenal failure?

A

A268. volume replacement, d/c offending meds

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70
Q

Q269. intrinsic RF treatment?

A

A269. monitor fluid status,; restrict protein,; correct electrolyte abnormalities

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71
Q

Q270. dispo for patients with ARF?

A

A270. admit

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72
Q

Q271. what drugs can cause ARF in pts with renal artery stenosis?

A

A271. ACE inhibitors

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73
Q

Q272. #1 cause of death in 1-44 year olds?

A

A272. Trauma (specifically, MVCs)

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74
Q

Q273. Preparation for a trauma case includes?

A

A273. History from EMTs; Prep the trauma bay; Airway box; O2 and suction; IVF and supplies

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75
Q

Q274. Indications for intubation?

A

A274. GCS <8; Inadequate breathing; Unable to protect airway

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76
Q

Q275. Chin lift is contraindicated if…?

A

A275. A C-spine injury is suspected

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77
Q

Q276. Radial pulse should have a BP of at least…? Femoral?

A

A276. 80 mmHg; 70

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78
Q

Q277. what % of ECF is plasma?

A

A277. 40181

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79
Q

Q278. which drug is an ineffective pressor in hypovolemic patients?

A

A278. dopamine

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80
Q

Q279. GCS consists of which 3 categories?

A

A279. eye opening,; verbal response,; moto response

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81
Q

Q280. most rapid means to lower ICP?; what other method?

A

A280. Hyperventilation; mannitol

82
Q

Q281. volume of blood in an adult?

A

A281. 5 L (7% of ideal body weight)

83
Q

Q282. physiologic response to acute hypovolemia?

A

A282. In order:; Tachycardia; narrowed pulse pressure (increased diastolic press); slowing of cap refill; decreased systolic pressure

84
Q

Q283. raccon eyes, and battle sign?

A

A283. late findings in basilar skull fractures

85
Q

Q284. assessment of C-spine in trauma?

A

A284. posterior midline - any tenderness?; focal neuro deficit?; A&O; evidence of intoxification?; any painful injury that may distract the pt?

86
Q

Q285. FAST?

A

A285. quick, non-invasive method of examining the abdomen and pericardium for blood

87
Q

Q286. how to check for pelvic fracture?

A

A286. press down and in on both iliac crests simultaneously

88
Q

Q287. urine myoglobin can be elevated secondary to…?

A

A287. massive muscle breakdown (rhabdo)

89
Q

Q288. treatment of rhabdo?

A

A288. IVF,; sodium bicarb,; and mannitol

90
Q

Q289. calculate cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

A289. MAP - ICP

91
Q

Q290. Cushing’s reflex? sign of?

A

A290. HTN, bradycardia, hypopnea; sign of increased ICP

92
Q

Q291. in traumatic head injury, what is the target MAP?

A

A291. 90mmHg

93
Q

Q292. intubation considerations for elevated ICP?

A

A292. intubate early but WITHOUT ketamine

94
Q

Q293. seizure prophylaxis with head bleeds?

A

A293. dilantin

95
Q

Q294. how does cardiac tamponade present? findings?

A

A294. hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD, and pulsus paradoxus; electrical alternans on ECG; may present with pulseless electrical activity

96
Q

Q295. which condition can lead to hypotension, absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, distended neck veins, and high airway pressures?

A

A295. tension pneumothorax

97
Q

Q296. hypoxia occurs if an open pneumothorax is greater than?

A

A296. 2/3 trachea diameter

98
Q

Q297. flail chest?

A

A297. 3 or more rib fractures in 2 or more sites with paradoxical motion of chest wall with inspiration

99
Q

Q298. how to demonstrate fluid in the pericardium in tamponade?

A

A298. echocardiogram, or ED U/S

100
Q

Q299. treatment of tension pneumothorax?

A

A299. angiocath in the 2nd intercostals space in the mid-clavicular line; chest tube if hemorrhagic or simple pneumothorax suspected

101
Q

Q300. treatment of cardiac tamponade?

A

A300. subxyphoid pericardiocentesis

102
Q

Q301. splenic injury can cause pain referred to…? eponym?

A

A301. left shoulder…Kehr’s sign

103
Q

Q302. which chief complaints warrant a stat EKG?

A

A302. chest pain/pressure/discomfort; SOB; hypotension; weakness/dizziness; syncope; abdominal pain especially in elderly; palpitations; N/V especially in elderly, diabetics

104
Q

Q303. shortened PR interval suggests?

A

A303. alternate, abnormal conduction pathway like WPW syndrome

105
Q

Q304. elongated PR interval suggests?

A

A304. some form of AV block

106
Q

Q305. quick and dirty way of determining the axis of the heart?

A

A305. leads I and aVF… both up - normal; aVF down - LAD; I down - RAD; both down - RAD

107
Q

Q306. DDx of U waves?

A

A306. hypokalemia; hypercalcemia; meds (digoxin, quinidine); thyrotoxicosis

108
Q

Q307. Describe possible characteristics of an unstable cardiac patient?

A

A307. Pulseless; Hypotension; AMS; Ischemic chest pain; CHF

109
Q

Q308. treatment basics for unstable cardiac patients?

A

A308. cardioversion (synch or un-synch) per ACLS protocol, then IV meds or other therapy

110
Q

Q309. treatment of sinus tachycardia?

A

A309. treatment the UNDERLYING CAUSE

111
Q

Q310. how can you tell there’s paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia? tx?

A

A310. abnormal/absent P waves; Tx: unstable –> synch cardioversion; stable –> AV node blockade via adenosis, calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil), b-blockers, manuevers

112
Q

Q311. treatment of a fib?

A

A311. unstable –> synch cardioversion; stable w/ rapid vent. response –> AV blockade: calcium channel blockers, b blockers, digoxin; anticoagulation

113
Q

Q312. pts with pre-excitation syndromes - be careful not to…?

A

A312. block the AV node by conventional meds

114
Q

Q313. premature ventricular contractions, etiology?

A

A313. 4 H’s - hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypoxia, hyperthyroidism; drugs; heart disease

115
Q

Q314. what is trigeminy?

A

A314. every 3rd beat is a PVC

116
Q

Q315. treatment of PVCs?

A

A315. iv lidocaine or amiodarone; iv magnesium sulfate; procainamide

117
Q

Q316. treatment of pulseless v tach?

A

A316. immediate UNSYCNHED cardioversion

118
Q

Q317. treatment for unstable v tach?

A

A317. synchronized cardioversion, then amiodarone or lidocaine drip

119
Q

Q318. treatment for stable v tach?

A

A318. medical cardioversion with lidocaine, amiodarone, adenosine, or procainamide

120
Q

Q319. etiology of torsades?

A

A319. ischemic heart disease; MI; hypo-electrolyte states

121
Q

Q320. treatment of stable torsades?

A

A320. electrical overdrive pacing; also consider Mg sulfate

122
Q

Q321. treatment of Vfib?

A

A321. unsynchronized cardioversion,; ACLS protocols,; and correction of lytes abnormalities

123
Q

Q322. pulseless electrical activity etiology?

A

A322. MATCH4ED; MI; Acidosis; Tension pneumo; Cardiac tamponade; H4- hypothermia, hyperkalemia, hypoxia, hypovolemia; Embolism (pulm); Drug OD

124
Q

Q323. treatment of ventricular asystole?

A

A323. IVF, epinephrine, atropine; Transvenous pacing

125
Q

Q324. for Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block, what tx? What won’t work?

A

A324. transcutaneous or transvenous pacing; Admit for implantable pacemakers; Atropine won’t work

126
Q

Q325. treatment for 3rd degree AV block?

A

A325. immediate temporary pacemaker

127
Q

Q326. you should consider a new LBBB to be _______ until proven otherwise?

A

A326. acute MI

128
Q

Q327. Indications for temporary cardiac pacing?

A

A327. hemodynamically unstable bradycardia; bradycardia that fails to respond to tx; refractory tachycardia dysrhythmias; early bradyasystolic arrest

129
Q

Q328. how does digoxin cause toxicity?

A

A328. blockade of the NaKATPase; increased vagal tone and increased AV nodal blockade

130
Q

Q329. EKG signs of WPW?

A

A329. short PR interval; Delta wave; wide QRS; adult tachycardia

131
Q

Q330. EKG signs of hypokalemia?

A

A330. more prominent U waves; flattened t waves

132
Q

Q331. EKG signs of hyperkalemia?

A

A331. hyperacute T waves; wide QRS that eventually blends with the T wave to form a sine wave appearance

133
Q

Q332. EKG signs of hypocalcemia?

A

A332. prolonged QT; terminal T wave inversion

134
Q

Q333. EKG signs of hypercalcemia?

A

A333. shortened QT interval

135
Q

Q334. associated symptoms of ACS?

A

A334. dyspnea, diaphoresis, nausea, lightheadedness, or sense of weakness

136
Q

Q335. define stable angina?

A

A335. symptoms precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin

137
Q

Q336. define unstable angina?

A

A336. Exertional angina of recent onset; angina of worsening character; angina at rest

138
Q

Q337. describe myoglobin as a cardiac marker?

A

A337. elevated as early as one hour and peaks at 4-12 hours; nonspecific

139
Q

Q338. describe CKMB as a cardiac marker?

A

A338. rises in 3-4 hours, peaks at 12-24 hours; can be elevated in skeletal muscle injury

140
Q

Q339. describe troponin as a cardiac marker?

A

A339. rises in 3-6 hours, peaks 12-24 hours; most specific and sensitive

141
Q

Q340. acute MI tx?

A

A340. MOAN B H; morphine; oxygen; aspirin; nitroglycerin; beta blockade; heparin

142
Q

Q341. in pump failure.. which pressors for hypotension in a volume unresponsive patient..?

A

A341. sbp 80-100 - dobutamine; sbp 70-80 - dopamine; sbp <70 - levophed

143
Q

Q342. pericarditis - presentation?; pain is worsened by..?

A

A342. sharp stabbing precordial or retrosternal chest pain… pain worsened by inspiration or lying flat

144
Q

Q343. associated symptoms of pericarditis?

A

A343. low grade fever; dyspnea; dysphagia; tachycardia

145
Q

Q344. test of choice for detection and f/u of pericarditis?

A

A344. echo

146
Q

Q345. treatment for pericarditis

A

A345. NSAIDs for 1-3 weeks

147
Q

Q346. aortic dissections typically occur in what group?

A

A346. uncontrolled hypertensive males ages 50-70

148
Q

Q347. physical findings in aortic dissection?

A

A347. asymmetric pulses with BP differences between extremities; very hypertensive; severe distress; JVD; palpable pulsatile mass or tenderness

149
Q

Q348. chest tube required for what size pneumothorax?

A

A348. >15%

150
Q

Q349. Nitro’s relief of cardiac vs esophageal pain?

A

A349. Cardiac w/in 5 minutes, esophageal w/in 10 minutes

151
Q

Q350. life threatening etiologies of abdominal pain…?

A

A350. ruptured AAA,; perforated viscous,; intestinal obstruction,; ectopic pregnancy,; mesenteric ischemia,; appendicitis,; and MI

152
Q

Q351. INITIAL TEST OF CHOICE FOR BILIARY TRACT DISEASE, AAA, ectopic, or free peritoneal fluid?

A

A351. US

153
Q

Q352. Plain films can rule out which abdominal emergencies?

A

A352. Perforation or obstruction

154
Q

Q353. Colicky pain usually responds to which drugs? Specifically…?

A

A353. NSAIDs,; esp IV Ketorolac

155
Q

Q354. Triad of pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass…?

A

A354. AAA

156
Q

Q355. _______ is virtually 100% sensitive in detecting AAAs?

A

A355. US

157
Q

Q356. What is usually the primary inciting factor of appendicitis?

A

A356. Obstruction of the appendix usually by an appendicolith

158
Q

Q357. risk factors for cholecystitis?

A

A357. fat, forty, and female

159
Q

Q358. radiation of pain in acute cholecystitis?

A

A358. tip of the right scapula

160
Q

Q359. most useful test if suspicious of cholecystitis?

A

A359. US of RUQ

161
Q

Q360. which agents should not be used in acute gastroenteritis?

A

A360. anti-motility agents (Imodium) because it diminishes diarrheal excretion of organisms

162
Q

Q361. Presentation of patients with acute hepatitis?

A

A361. Jaundice,; dark urine/light stools,; hepatomegaly,; fatigue, malaise,; RUQ pain,; N/V,; and fever

163
Q

Q362. coagulation should be normalized with FFP in which condition?

A

A362. hepatitis

164
Q

Q363. presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

A363. severe, poorly localized colicky abdominal pain associated with recurrent forceful bowel movements; classic - abdominal pain out of proportion to the minimal physical exam findings

165
Q

Q364. Most useful test to diagnose acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

A364. Angiography

166
Q

Q365. Midepigastric abdominal pain usually associated with N/V?

A

A365. Acute pancreatitis

167
Q

Q366. An amylase raised _______ times the upper limit of normal is 98% specific to acute pancreatitis…

A

A366. 1.5

168
Q

Q367. All patients with acute pancreatitis should be….

A

A367. admitted and made NPO

169
Q

Q368. good narcotic choice for pain in acute pancreatitis

A

A368. Meperidine (better than morphine)

170
Q

Q369. fever, abdominal pain, and rebound tenderness…?

A

A369. Peritonitis

171
Q

Q370. Small bowel obstruction is caused by ________ more than 50% of the time…?

A

A370. postoperative adhesions

172
Q

Q371. Most significant complications of small bowel obstruction?

A

A371. Strangulation and bowel infarction

173
Q

Q372. etiology of bronchitis?

A

A372. viruses (influenza, adenovirus, etc.); Mycoplasma; Chlamydia; Bordetella pertussis

174
Q

Q373. Virchow’s triad of the pathophysiology behind PE?

A

A373. Venostasis; Hypercoagulability; Vessel wall damage/inflammation

175
Q

Q374. Classic triad of PE presentation?

A

A374. Hemoptysis; Dyspnea; chest pain

176
Q

Q375. EKG findings in PE?

A

A375. S1; Q3; inverted T3

177
Q

Q376. golden standard for diagnosing PE?

A

A376. pulmonary angiography

178
Q

Q377. ED treatment of CHF?

A

A377. diuretics; nitrates; anlgesics; intubation or CPAP if no improvement

179
Q

Q378. treatment of COPD in the ED?

A

A378. ABCs monitoring; albuterol neb; glucocorticoids; MgSO4 in severe exacerbations; antibiotics (empiric broad spectrum)

180
Q

Q379. ED eval of asthma?

A

A379. Monitors, O2, pulse ox; Peak expiratory flow rate; CXR - to rule out pneumonia

181
Q

Q380. signs of hyperventilation syndrome?

A

A380. tachypnea, chest wall tenderness, carpopedal spasm, Chvostek’s/Trousseau’s sign (hypocalcemia)

182
Q

Q381. this condition likely results from inflammation of CN VII as it courses through the styloid foramen?

A

A381. Bell’s palsy

183
Q

Q382. treatment of bell’s palsy?

A

A382. acyclovir AND prednisone; eye patching to prevent keratitis and corneal ulceration

184
Q

Q383. work up of CVA?

A

A383. STAT head CT - esp if < 3 hrs; standard labs; STAT Accu-check

185
Q

Q384. in hemorrhagic stroke, you want to decrease SBP by no more than _____ to limit hypoperfusion…?

A

A384. 20-25%

186
Q

Q385. Peripheral vertigo is caused by.?

A

A385. viral etiology (labyrinthitis); decaying or “lost” otoliths

187
Q

Q386. peripheral vertigo presentation?

A

A386. acute onset; intense spinning sensation, N/V; unidirectional nystagmus that can be inhibited by fixation

188
Q

Q387. work-up of peripheral vertigo?

A

A387. hallpike maneuver; epley manuevers; anti-emetics, anti-cholinergics

189
Q

Q388. most seizures in the ED are due to…?

A

A388. Medical non-compliance in known seizure patients

190
Q

Q389. workup of seizures in the ED…

A

A389. ABCs; IV; check glucose; head CT; anti-epileptic level; LP if any possibility of intracranial hemorrhage or meningitis

191
Q

Q390. LOC occurs in ____ % of patients with SAH?

A

A390. 0.5

192
Q

Q391. 75% of SAH is due to…?

A

A391. ruptured congenital arterial aneurysm

193
Q

Q392. diagnostic test for SAH?

A

A392. noncontrast head CT

194
Q

Q393. if there is suspicion for SAH and it’s not seen on CT, ____ must be performed?

A

A393. LP

195
Q

Q394. What other condition besides SAH could cause blood in the CSF?

A

A394. Herpes encephalitis

196
Q

Q395. goal of ICP management is to maintain the cerebral perfusion pressure greater than ______?

A

A395. 60

197
Q

Q396. A chronic headache that started out mild to moderate in severity and intermittent in nature, described as a deep, aching pain and worsened by coughing, and often maximal upon awakening…?

A

A396. intracranial tumor / mass

198
Q

Q397. 85% of people experiencing malignant hypertension complain of _____?

A

A397. Headache

199
Q

Q398. Temporal arteritis affects women ______ than men, and is uncommon before the age of _____? ESR is usually ____?

A

A398. Women more than men; 50; ESR 50-100

200
Q

Q399. Jaw claudication is strongly suggestive of…?

A

A399. temporal arteritis

Emergency Medicine (3 decks)

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