Emphasized Stuff Flashcards
(228 cards)
1
Q
What type of partial seizure is associated with a loss of consciousness: simple or complex?
A
Complex (which may also include an underlying loss of consciousness)
2
Q
The origin of all seizures is central or peripheral?
A
Central
3
Q
What is the etiology of over 50% of primary seizures?
A
Idiopathic
4
Q
Does the grand map seizure last more than a few minutes?
A
Not usually
5
Q
Is the tonic phase long-lasting or transient?
A
Transient
6
Q
What are the signs and symptoms in order for a grand mal seizure?
A
- Aura
- Epileptic cry
- Tonic phase
- Clonic phase
- Recovery
7
Q
What management problems do well-controlled seizure disorders pose?
A
None
8
Q
Why is pain management important in patients with a history of seizures?
A
Pain may cause stress which leads to seizure
9
Q
What type of antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to a patient with a history of seizures?
A
None
10
Q
What type of anesthesia is usually well-tolerated in a patient with a history of seizures?
A
No more than two carpules with 1:100,000 Epi
11
Q
Why should anxiety-controlling measures be taken with a patient who has a history of seizures?
A
Much like pain, anxiety can trigger a seizure if not properly managed.
12
Q
Why should you pay attention to skin changes (such as rash any erythema multiform in a patient with a history of seizures?
A
It may signify an allergic reaction to anti epileptic medication
13
Q
What effect does valproic acid and carbemazepine (common medications for seizure control) have on hemostasis?
A
May adversely affect platelets, leading to a bleeding tendency.
14
Q
Why is the monitoring of blood pressure critical with a patient who has a history of seizures?
A
A sudden increase or decrease in blood pressure may signal the onset of a seizure
15
Q
A patient who is at risk for a seizure should be positioned how in the dental chair?
A
Supine
16
Q
Is consultation with the physician of a seizure-prone patient indicated?
A
Yes
17
Q
Other than gingival hyperplasia, what are some common adverse effects of anticonvulsant drugs?
A
- Drowsiness
- Slow mentation
- Dizziness
18
Q
What are some ways to prepare for a grand map seizure?
A
- Use a ligated mouth prop at the beginning of the procedure
- The dental chair should be in a support supine position
19
Q
What should you do during a seizure?
A
- Clear the area
- Turn the patient on the side (to avoid aspiration)
- Do NOT attempt to use a padded tongue blade
- Passively restrain
20
Q
What should you do AFTER a seizure?
A
- Examine for traumatic injuries
2. Discontinue treatment; arrange for patient transport
21
Q
What should you do if a seizing patient goes into cardiac arrest?
A
Call 9-1-1
Continue to monitor vitals
Administer CPR is necessary
Transport patient to emergency medical facilities
22
Q
What should you do to follow-up after a patient has a seizure?
A
Call the patient (and the physician) to find out how the patient is doing
23
Q
What are three medications that can cause gingival hyperplasia?
A
- Dilantin
- Cyclosporin
- Verapamil
24
Q
What are 8 risk factors for cerebrovascular accidents? (he said he would do a question from this for sure)
A
- Hypertension
- CHF
- Diabetes Mellitus Type I and II
- History of TIAs or CVAs
- Over 75 years old
- Hypercholesterolemia
- Coronary atherosclerosis
- Smoking tobacco
25
What are four events associated with strokes?
1. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
2. Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND)
3. Stroke-in-evolution
4. Completed Stroke
26
Which is "worse": stroke-in-evolution or reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND)?
SIE
27
Why does knowing the nature of the stroke matter with regards to giving Aspirin?
If it is a hemorrhagic stroke, aspirin will make it worse
| If it is ischemic, aspirin will help
28
If a stroke patient is on coumarin, what should their pretreatment INR be?
Less than or equal to 3.5. Higher than that requires their physician to reduce the dose.
29
If a stroke patient is on IV heparin, what should you do?
1. Only do palliative emergency care
2. Discontinue heparin IV 6-12 hours before surgery, discontinue heparin and start another anticoagulant with the physician's approval. Restart heparin after about 6 hours when the clot has formed.
3. Use measures to minimize hemhorrage
30
What should you do if a stroke patient is on low molecular weight heparin?
No change from normal treatment is indicated
31
Should you monitor both blood pressure AND oxygen saturation if a stroke patient is on anticoagulation?
Yes
32
What care should you take with regards to epi with a stroke patient?
1. Use a minimum of epi
| 2. Avoid epi-infused retraction cords
33
What drugs cause decreased warfarin metabolism?
1. Metronidazole
| 2. Tetracyclines
34
What precautions should you take if a patient has had a stroke, TIA or RIND in the past six months?
1. Short and stress-free appointments
2. Good anesthesia
3. Monitor BP and oxygen saturation
4. Recognize signs and symptoms of a stroke
5. Activate EMS system as needed
35
What type of plaques are visible on a panoramic radiograph and could predispose a patient to a stroke?
Carotid Calcified Atherosclerotic Plaques
36
Depletion of melanin pigmentation and a diffusion of the melanotic cells in the spinal cord is indicative of what disorder?
Parkinson's Disease
37
What condition can cause parkinson's-like symptoms?
Tardive Dyskinesia
38
What are some drug considerations for someone with Parkinson's disease?
They may be on anticholinergic and dopamine agonist drugs, which may have adverse effects including sedation, drowsiness, slow mentation, fatigue, confusion and dizziness
39
How should you adjust your chair position to accommodate a patient with Parkinson's disease?
1. Supine position may not be tolerated
2. Adequate support to reduce unnecessary movement
3. Hypotension is possible so use caution when getting seated or arising
40
What two things may be given to a patient with parkinson's to prevent facial movement?
1. Benadryl
| 2. Botox injections
41
What are special considerations for anxiety control with alzheimer's patients?
These patients may have difficulty understanding commands and cooperating and will therefore be more anxious. Use techniques to help put them at ease.
42
Is antibiotic prophylaxis necessary with CSF?
NOOOOOOOOOO
The only possible exception is if they need an incision and drainage at a different site or the replacement of an infected shunt
43
What is the term for an accumulation of CSF within the cerebral ventricles?
Hydrocephalus
44
What is placed within cerebral ventricles and peripheral cavities to reduce increased CSF pressure?
CSF shunt
45
What are 3 types of CSF shunts?
1. Ventriculoperitoneal
2. Ventriculoatrial
3. Lumboperitoneal
46
In the system for classification of social health, which axis deals with personality disorders and mental retardation?
Axis II
47
In the system for classification of social health, which axis deals with global assessment of functioning?
Axis V
48
In the system for classification of social health, which axis deals with general medical conditions?
Axis III
49
In the system for classification of social health, which axis deals with psychosocial and environmental problems?
Axis IV
50
In the system for classification of social health, which axis deals with clinical disorders and other conditions that may be the focus of clinical attention?
Axis I
51
For Axis V, what does a higher score indicate?
Fewer symptoms or limits to functioning.
52
In a person with anxiety disorder, which neurotransmitter(s) will have increased activity?
Norepinephrine
53
In a person with anxiety disorder, which neurotransmitter(s) will have increased activity?
GABA and serotonin
54
What are 2 phobias that may affect medical or dental care?
1. Needle Phobia
| 2. Claustrophobia (MRI or radiation therapy)
55
What is the definition of dental "phobia"?
A more extreme anxiety that the "usual" level of attending a visit to the dentist
56
What is cited as the major cause of dental phobia?
Previous frightening dental experiences
57
What are some specific sounds and sensations people who experience dental phobia are afraid of?
1. Noise and vibration of the hand piece
2. Sight of the injection needle
3. The act of sitting in the dental chair
58
What are some signs that a person is experiencing dental phobia?
1. Muscle tension
2. Tachycardia
3. Tachypnea
4. Sweating
5. Stomach cramps
59
What are some anesthesia considerations for a patient with dental phobia?
1. Oral sedation the night before with a fast-acting benzodiazepine can aide in the management of anxiety
2. Inhalataion anxiolysis with nitrous oxide or intramuscular sedation or intravenous sedation can be used
60
What are some clinical signs of anorexia nervosa?
1. The individual weights less than 85% of the minimally normal weight for a person their height and age
2. Postmenarchal females with this disorder are amenorrheic
3. May also have hypotension, hypothermia, and dryness of skin
4. Bradycardia
61
What is the mortality of persons with anorexia nervosa?
5-20% (mostly from starvation, suicide or electrolyte imbalance)
62
What are some inappropriate compensatory behaviors prevalent in bulimia nervosa?
1. Self-induced vomiting
2. Misuse of laxatives, diuretics, enemas or other medications
3. . Fasting
4. Excessive weight gain
63
What is the long-term outcome of bulimia nervosa?
Not known but appears to have a more optimistic prognosis than for anorexia nervosa; the death rate from anorexia nervosa due to cardiac arrest and suicide is MUCH higher than the death rate for bulimia
64
What are some physical signs of bulimia nervosa?
1. Erosion of lingual surfaces of maxillary teeth (or apparently the inicisal edges of mandibular teeth?)
2. Bilateral parotid enlargement
3. Ruessell's sign
65
True or False; Early onset, recurrent course, and psychotic depression are heritable?
true
66
Do unipolar patients tend to have relatives with major depression and dysthymic disorder and fewer with bipolar disorder?
Yes
67
Do bipolar patients have more relatives with bipolar disorder, cyclothymia, unipolar depression and schizoaffective disorder?
Yes
68
What is the concordance rate in monozygotic twins for recurrent depression?
59%
69
What is the concordance rate in monozygotic twins for single episode depression?
33%
70
The concordance rate for depression in identical (monozygotic) twins is how many times greater than for fraternal (dizygotic) twins?
Four times
71
What is the bipolar concordance rate in identical (monozygotic) twins?
72%
72
What is the bipolar concordance rate in fraternal (dizygotic) twins?
19%
73
What is the very hard to remember mnemonic for symptoms of major depression?
"SIGECAPS"
1. Sleep
2. Interest
3. Guilt
4. Energy
5. Concentration
6. Appetite
7. Psychomotor activity
8. Suicidal ideation
74
What is the mnemonic for symptoms of mania?
"DIGFAST"
1. Distractability
2. Insomnia
3. Grandiosity
4. Flight of ideas
6. Activity / agitation
7. Speech (pressured)
8. Thoughtlessness
75
Which bipolar type must have one episode of mania and one of depression within a month?
Type I
76
Which bipolar type must have a major depressive episode?
Type II
77
What is a side effect of SSRIs that can affect dental health (other than xerostomia)?
Bruxism
78
What can counteract the bruxism effects of SSRIs?
Low-dose TCA
79
What is the intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological signs when external reinforcers (e.g. avoidance of responsibility, financial gain) are not clearly present
Factitious disorder
80
Is factitious disorder more common in men or women?
Men
81
What professional group has a higher incidence of factitious disorder?
Health care workers
82
In factitious disorder, which are more common: skin lesions or oral lesions?
Skin lesions (oral lesions cannot be seen)
83
What are some symptoms of schizophrenia?
1. Delusion
2. Hallucination
3. Disorganized speech
4. Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
5. Negative symptoms (such as flattened affect)
84
What are two side effects of antipsychotic drugs?
1. Agranulocytosis
| 2. Tardive dyskinesia
85
What drugs can cause hyperprolactinemia?
Antidopaminergics
86
What does hyerprolactinemia cause in men?
1. Gynecomastia
2. impotence
3. Loss of libido
4. impaired spermatogenesis
87
What can cause extrapyramidal syndromes?
Antidopaminergic drugs
88
What are some examples of acute dystonias caused by antidopaminergic drugs?
1. Parkinson's
2. Akathisia
3. Tardive dyskinesia
89
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by?
A combination of receptors
90
What are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Rigidity, fluctuating consciousness (delirium, stupod) and lability (hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, sweating, pallor, salivation, incontinence)
91
What drug can cause agranulocytosis?
Clozaril?
92
What emergency precaution should be taken with a patient who is depressed and have thoughts of suicide?
Contact a relative and the patient's physician immediately in an emergency situation.
93
What considerations should be taken for elective dental treatment with patients who have severe symptoms of mania, depression, or schizophrenia?
Delay elective treatment until the condition is better controlled.
94
What is the colloquial term for delirium tremens?
"The Shakes" (or "DTs")
95
How soon do alcohol withdrawals begin?
6 to 24 hours
96
How long do alcohol withdrawal symptoms last?
2 to 7 days
97
What are MILD symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Irritability, tremo, insomnia
98
What are MODERATE symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
diaphoresis, fever, disorientation
99
What are SEVERE symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
grand mal seizures, DTs
100
What sense do DT hallucinations primarily affect?
Vision
101
What is formication?
The sensation of something crawling on you, an example of a tactile hallucination common to DTs
102
What are some symptoms associated with DTs?
Confusion, diarrhea, insomnia, nightmares, disorientation, agitation, visual or tactile hallucinations, gross tremor, autonomic instability (fever, tachycardia, hypertension), and fluctuating levels of psychomotor activity
103
What are some anesthesia considerations for abusers of cocaine and methamphetamines?
Don't use epi for 24 hours after the last dose of drug
104
What are some analgesic considerations with a patient who has an alcohol or drug dependance?
Avoid prescribing narcotic analgesics if possible. However, if needed, consult with PCP and possibly a third party ("12 step program")
105
What are some bleeding considerations with a patient with alcohol abuse?
Excessive bleeding secondary to liver disease is possible. Lab tests may be needed for confirmation.
106
What are you legally obligated to do is a patient is an immediate danger to others?
Report to the proper authorities
107
What are you legally obligated to do if a patient is suicidal?
May need to admit the patient, with or without the patient's consent, and share information with the hospital staff
108
What is a legal term that can only be decided by a judge?
Competence
109
What is a clinical term that may be assessed by clinicians?
Capacity
110
Why is it important to assess capacity on a treatment-specific basis?
Because decision capacity is task-specific and can fluctuate over time (a patient may have capacity to make on treatment decision while lacking capacity to make other).
111
What are two terms that refer to a patient's ability to make informed treatment decisions?
Competence and capacity
112
A patient is considered to have decisional capacity if he or she meets what four criteria?
1. Can communicate a choice or preference
2. Understands the relevant info regarding treatment (and can explain it back to you)
3. Appreciate the situation and its potential impact or consequences and the ramifications of refusing treatment
4. Can logically manipulate information regarding the situation and reach rational conclusions
113
What are two main categories of admission to a psychiatric hospital?
1. Voluntary admission
| 2. Involuntary admission
114
What is voluntary admission to a psychiatric hospital?
Patient requests or agrees to be admitted by psychiatric ward. Maybe examined by staff psychiatrist who determines whether he or she should be hospitalized.
115
What is involuntary admission (also known as civil commitment)?
The patient is found by two staff physicians to be potentially harmful to self or others. Case must be reviewed after several days and the patient has his or her rights explained.
116
Is neuroleptic malignant syndrome more common in men or women?
More common in men who have recently begun medication
117
Is neuroleptic malignant syndroms considered a medical emergency?
Yes
118
What is the mortality rate of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
20%
119
What should you do if a patient has a neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Discontinue whatever medication they recently started
120
Is a manic episode a psychiatric emergency?
Yes
121
What makes a patient having a manic episode so dangerous?
They have severely impaired judgment
122
What is the mortality rate for delirium tremens?
15 to 20%
123
What percentage of delirium tremens are hospitalized for alcohol withdrawal?
5%
124
What is the treatment for delirium tremens?
Benzodiazepines
125
What are 5 symptoms of schizophrenia?
1. Delusion
2. Hallucination
3. Disorganized speech
4. Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
5. Negative symptoms (such as flattened functional)
126
What are the 5 A's of schizophrenia (negative symptoms)?
1. Anhedonia
2. Affect (flat)
3. Alogia (poverty of speech)
4. Avolition (apathy)
5. Attention (poor)
127
Schizophrenia symptoms usually present in what three phases?
1. Prodromal
2. Psychotic
3. Residual
128
What is the dopamine hypothesis of Schizophrenia?
Symptoms of schizophrenia are caused in part by disturbance in dopamine-mediated neuronal pathways in the brain
129
What supports the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?
Most antipsychotic drugs block the postsynaptic dopamine receptors.
130
What is the prevalence of psychiatric disorders among adult dental patients at VCU?
28%
131
What is the most common disorder reported among dental patients at VCU?
Depression
132
What is the etiology of depression?
Reduced brain concentrations of norepinephrine and serotonin
133
What is the etiology of mania?
Increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin
134
What is the association between thyroid hormones and depression?
Thyrotropin release of thryoid-stimulating hormone and cortisol release by corticotropin-releasing factor and adrenocorticotropin over a long period may be associated with the development of depression
135
What are two types of anorexia nervosa?
1. Restrictive type
| 2. Binge-eating and purging type
136
What are two types of bulimia nervosa?
1. Purging type
| 2. Non-purging type
137
What are three types of eating disorder?
1. Anorexia
2. Bulimia nervosa
3. Binge-eating disorder
138
What are the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?
1. Spontaneous recurrent panic attacks with no obvious precipitant
2. At least one of the attacks has been followed by a minimum of 1 month of one of the following: persistent concern of additional attacks, worry about implications of attack, significant change in behavior related to the attacks
139
What are discrete periods of heightened anxiety that classically occur in patients with panic disorder?
Panic attacks
140
What are the symptoms of panic attacks?
```
Palpitations
Abdominal distress
Numbness, nausea
Intense fear of death
Choking, chills, chest pain, sweating, shaking, shortness of breath
```
141
What are the 5 diagnostic criteria for specific phobias?
1. Persistent excessive fear brought on by a specific situation or object
2. Exposure to the situation brings about an immediate anxiety response
3. Patient recognizes that the fear is excessive
4. The situation is avoided when possible or tolerated with intense anxiety
5. If the person is under age 18, duration must be at least 6 months
142
What is defined as the subjective experience of fear and its physical manifestations?
Anxiety
143
True or False: No single theory fully explains all anxiety disorders
True
144
True or False: No single biologic or psychological cause of anxiety has been identified.
True
145
Psychosocial and biologic processes together may best explain anxiety
True
146
Panic and anxiety may be correlated with what?
Disregulated firing of the locus coeruleus caused by input from multiple sources
147
How many people live with HIV worldwide?
34 million people
148
True or false: the numbers of people with HIV have increased by new infections are falling?
True
149
Are there increased survival rates with HIV? Why?
Yes because of current anti-retroviral therapies
150
What type of virus is HIV: DNA or RNA?
RNA
151
What are three main modes of HIV transmission?
1. Sexual
2. Bodily fluids
3. Materno-fluid
152
What are some compounding factors for HIV transmission?
1. IV drug use
2. Lower socio-economic strata
3. Presence of other chronic illnesses (especially STDs)
153
How long does the acute infections stage last following an HIV infection?
2-4 weeks
154
What are the symptoms of the acute infectious stage of HIV infection?
Range from asymptomatic to mild flu-like symptoms
155
How long may the clinically latent stage of HIV infection last?
A few months to 20 years
156
What are some late-stage HIV infection symptoms?
1. Lymph node enlargement
2. Fever
3. Night sweats
4. GI and musculoskeletal pain
5. Detectable antibodies
157
What is a normal CD4 count?
600 to 1200
158
A person has full-fledged AIDS if their CD4 count drops below what number?
200
159
What does HAART stand for?
Highly active antiretroviral therapy
160
What drug classes are presently in HAART?
1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
3. Integrase inhibitors
4. Protease inhibitors
5. Fusion and entry inhibitors
161
Why do you want to know an HIV patient's CD4 count?
It helps to know about their state of immunosuppression
162
What are some lab values you want to know for HIV patients?
1. CD4
2. Total WBC
3. Absolute neutrophils
4. Platelets
163
What is the normal range for total WBC count?
4,000 to 10,000 cells per mm3
164
What CD4 count raises a concern for infection susceptibility?
Below 2,000
165
What CD4 count may warrant post-operative antibiotic coverage?
Below 1,000
166
What is the normal range for platelets?
150,000 to 450,000
167
What platelet number raises a concern for prolonged bleeding in an HIV patient?
Below 60,000
168
What may an MD do for an HIV patient with less than 60,000 platelets?
1. Infuse platelets
| 2. Administer prednisone
169
You might consider infusion if RBCs are below what number?
Under 1 million / mm3
170
You might consider infusion if hemoglobin is below what number?
10
171
You might consider infusion if the hematocrit is below what percent?
10%
172
What is the normal range for CD4 helper T-lymphocytes?
590 to 1120 cells / mm3
173
AIDS is indicated when the helper T-lymphocyte CD4 count drops before what number?
200
174
What is the ideal number for plasma HIV-RNA?
0
175
Does viral load of HIV impact provision of dental treatment?
Nope
176
How frequently should you obtain labs if the HIV patient has a CD4 count over 200?
At least every 6 months or per MD recommendation
177
How frequently should you obtain labs if the HIV patient has a CD4 count below 200?
At least every 3 months or per MD suggestion
178
Are extra precautions necessary for HIV patients (those beyond standard precautions)?
No
179
What diseases may be spread by needlestick injuries?
1. HIV
2. Hep B
3. Hep C
4. Hep D
180
What is the management for an HIV patient with pseudomembranous candidiasis?
Antifungals
181
What is the management for an HIV patient with erythematous candidiasis?
Antifungals
182
Other than AIDS, what are three things that can manifest with oral hairy leukoplakia?
1. EBV
2. Burkitt's Lymphoma
3. Infection mononucleosis
183
What is the management for an exophytic growth, condyloma acumenatum?
A topical cream (tenofovir or some other drug that ends in -ovir)
184
What is unilateral and painful and follows the path of the trigeminal nerve?
Herpes Zoster Infection
185
How do you manage a Herpes Zoster infection?
High dose antivirals (-cyclovirs)
186
How do you treat a herpes simplex virus?
Valtrex
187
What is it called when herpes vesicles fuse together (often associated with HIV)?
Vesiculobullous
188
what looks like a large red lesion on the lip and is associated with HSV?
Cytomegalovirus
189
What is a low-grade bacterial infection manifest as a reddish line along the gingival margin?
Linear erythematous gingivitis
190
How do you manage necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis?
1. Systemic antibiotics
| 2. Chlorhexadine
191
Other than HIV, what are four things that can cause parotid enlargement?
1. Mumps
2. Bulemia
3. Liver disease
4. Sarcoidosis
192
What is a differential for a Kaposi's sarcoma on the tongue?
Granular cell tumor
193
Do Kaposi's sarcomas normally affect healthy individuals?
No
194
What virus is associated with Kaposi's sarcomas
HHV-8
195
What HIV drug can cause pigmentation of the buccal mucosa?
Zidovudine (AZT)
196
What is the management for an aphthous ulcer?
Orabase cream or Steroids (the cause is not viral, bacterial or fungal)
197
What are some possible causes for aphthous ulcers?
Changes in immunity, nutrition, hematologic changes
198
What is the management for Kaposi's sarcoma?
Incisional biopsy
199
What is the management of angular cheilitis?
Ketoconazole
200
Does every HIV exposure require antibiotic prophylaxis?
No. In some cases if the viral load is low enough, it may not be necessary. This is one of the few times the viral load comes into play.
201
What is the most common population for deep fungal infections?
cancer patients or other immunocompromised patients
202
Does molluscum contagiosum occur only in adults?
No. It can also occur in children.
203
What percentage of Hep C cases have spontaneous remission?
40%
204
Is there currently a vaccine for Hep C?
Nope
205
What is the protocol for an Hep C exposure?
Inject with Hep A and Hep B vaccine as well as an injection with interferon Alpha 2B
206
When is PEP most likely to be effective?
When initiated as soon as possible
207
What is the gold standard for HIV PEP?
An hour (but certainly within 48-72 hours of infection and continued for at least 28 days
208
What is important in HIV PEP?
Adequate doses of antiretroviral treatment given for long enough
209
What body fluid carries the highest risk of infection in an exposure?
Blood
210
What type of skin exposure carries the highest risk of infection?
Percutaneous (mores than the mucous membrane or the skin)
| If the skin is intact then no PEP is needed
211
What should you do if an exposure report is delayed for more than 72 hours?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
212
What should you do if an exposure has an unknown source?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
213
What should you do if there is a known or suspected pregnancy in an exposed person?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
214
What should you do if the exposed person is breast-feeding?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
215
What should you do if there is known or suspected resistance of the source virus to antiretroviral agents?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
216
What should you do if there is toxicity in the initial PEP regimen?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
217
What should you do if there is a serious medical illness in the exposed person?
Seek expert consultation for HIV PEP
218
HIV usually connects with what virus?
Hep C
219
Why are platelet counts reduced in a patient who is Hep C+?
Thrombopoetin production is impaired
220
What lesions are causes by a dsDNA pox virus transmitted via skin to skin contact and by auto-inoculation?
Molluscum contagiosum
221
Where does molluscum normally manifest itself in HIV patients?
Face, neck and genital tract
222
How is molluscum contagiosum managed?
1. Manage the patient's immune status by initiating potent antiretroviral therapy
223
Does a lack of respiratory symptoms mean aspiration has not taken place?
Not necessarily
224
What are three ways to manage a foreign body aspiration?
1. Retrieve, if possible
2. Heilmich
3. Cricothyroidotomy
225
What is the new order of ABCD?
DCAB
226
What are 3 drugs to use for the management of allergy anaphylaxis?
1. Epinephrine
2. Benadryl
3. Steroids
227
What is more dangerous in the acute stage: hypo or hyperglycemia?
Hypoglycemia
228
A patient is nauseous, sweating, has tachycardia: what is their problem?
Hypoglycemia (if they have fruity breath it is possibly hyperglycemia)
