Employee Engagement & Retention Flashcards

(637 cards)

1
Q

True or False:
Employee engagement is solely about employee satisfaction and morale.

A

False — Engagement is broader and outcome-driven, influencing performance.

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2
Q

True or False:
Engaged employees are likely to display extra-role behavior and go beyond their job descriptions.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Wilmar Schaufeli and Arnold Bakker define employee engagement as the opposite of burnout.

A

TRUE

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4
Q

Absorption refers to an employee’s high energy and physical effort at work.

A

False — Absorption refers to being fully engrossed in the work.

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5
Q

True or False:
Vigor, dedication, and absorption are all characteristics of an engaged employee.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

True or False:
Employee engagement does not affect business-level performance.

A

False — Engagement positively influences individual- and business-level performance.

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7
Q

Which of the following best describes employee engagement?
A. Commitment and willingness to contribute discretionary effort
B. Satisfaction with cafeteria food
C.Interest in receiving bonuses
D. Desire to take frequent breaks

A

A) Commitment and willingness to contribute discretionary effort

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8
Q

What are the three components of engagement as defined by Schaufeli and Bakker?
A. Loyalty, retention, creativity
B. Pay, promotion, pride
C. Vigor, dedication, absorption
D. Satisfaction, communication, involvement

A

C. Vigor, dedication, absorption

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9
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an engaged employee?
A. Resists collaboration and avoids feedback
B. Stays only for financial benefits
C. Shows pride and enthusiasm in their work
D. Works slowly to avoid burnout

A

C. Shows pride and enthusiasm in their work

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10
Q

How does employee engagement typically benefit an organization?
A. It reduces workplace safety
B. It increases absenteeism
C. It limits innovation
D. It improves individual and organizational performance

A

D) It improves individual and organizational performance

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11
Q

What is an example of “extra-role behavior”?
A. Completing only assigned tasks
B. Leaving early after finishing work
C. Volunteering to help teammates outside of assigned duties
D. Avoiding additional responsibilities

A

C. Volunteering to help teammates outside of assigned duties

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12
Q

True or False:
Macey and Schneider define employee engagement as having psychological, emotional, and behavioral dimensions.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

True or False:
Trait engagement is determined by external factors such as leadership style and task variety.

A

False — Trait engagement is based on inherent personality traits.

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14
Q

True or False:
State engagement can be increased through workplace practices like decision-making opportunities.

A

TRUE

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15
Q

True or False:
Behavioral engagement is unrelated to performance or employee effort.

A

False — Behavioral engagement is directly linked to effort and performance.

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16
Q

True or False:
Behavioral engagement occurs when both trait and state engagement are present.

A

TRUE

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17
Q

True or False:
State engagement is outside of HR’s control and cannot be influenced by interventions.

A

False — HR and management can influence state engagement through workplace conditions.

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18
Q

What does trait engagement refer to in Macey and Schneider’s model?
A. The number of promotions an employee receives
B. Personality-based characteristics like curiosity and problem-solving interest
C. Annual review scores
D. Level of employee compensation

A

B. Personality-based characteristics like curiosity and problem-solving interest

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19
Q

Which type of engagement can HR influence through policies and job design?
A. Trait engagement
B. External engagement
C. State engagement
D. Passive engagement

A

C. State engagement

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20
Q

What is behavioral engagement characterized by?
A. Observable effort that drives performance and value
B. Employee participation in company stock plans
C. Internal conflict and employee burnout
D. Resistance to organizational changes

A

A) Observable effort that drives performance and value

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21
Q

Which of the following best explains the interaction between the three types of engagement?
A. Behavioral engagement replaces trait and state engagement
B. State engagement limits behavioral engagement
C. Behavioral engagement emerges when both trait and state engagement are present
D. Trait engagement only occurs after onboarding

A

C. Behavioral engagement emerges when both trait and state engagement are present

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22
Q

Which of these is an example of state engagement?
A. An employee who is naturally curious and enjoys problem-solving
B. An employee who works harder after receiving task variety and autonomy
C. An employee who has low motivation due to job misfit
D. An employee with high income but no growth opportunities

A

B. An employee who works harder after receiving task variety and autonomy

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23
Q

True or False:
Transactional engagement occurs when employees appear engaged due to organizational expectations but lack true commitment or motivation.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

True or False:
Employees who are transactionally engaged are likely to experience positive well-being outcomes.

A

False — Transactional engagement is linked to negative well-being outcomes.

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25
True or False: Mistaking transactional engagement for real engagement can lead to long-term performance and well-being risks.
TRUE
26
True or False: Employee involvement and employee engagement are identical concepts.
False — They are distinct, though involvement can support engagement.
27
True or False: Genuine engagement includes both the behavior of engagement and the feelings and thoughts behind
TRUE
28
True or False: Employee involvement can help boost engagement by giving workers a sense of ownership.
TRUE
29
What defines transactional engagement? A. Employees who are highly motivated and aligned with company values B. Employees who participate in strategic planning C. Employees who refuse to follow rules D. Employees who act engaged for rewards but lack internal motivation
D) Employees who act engaged for rewards but lack internal motivation
30
Why is transactional engagement risky for organizations? A. It always results in absenteeism B. It leads to higher compensation demands C. It can create a false impression of real engagement and harm well-being D. It eliminates the need for employee surveys
C. It can create a false impression of real engagement and harm well-being
31
Which of the following is a sign of real engagement (not transactional)? A. Employees work long hours only when instructed B. Employees behave, think, and feel engaged with their work C. Employees avoid giving feedback D. Employees complete only what’s required
B. Employees behave, think, and feel engaged with their work
32
What is the primary focus of employee involvement? A. Rewarding employees for completing tasks B. Giving employees a voice in decision-making and continuous improvement C. Asking employees to work unpaid overtime D. Monitoring employee internet use
B. Giving employees a voice in decision-making and
33
How does employee involvement influence engagement? A. It decreases accountability B. It lowers performance expectations C. It gives employees ownership, boosting motivation and connection D. It reduces collaboration among departments
C. It gives employees ownership, boosting motivation and connection
34
True or False: Gallup’s 2020 meta-analysis confirmed a strong link between employee engagement and key business outcomes.
TRUE
35
True or False: Engaged teams had an 81% increase in absenteeism compared to disengaged teams.
False — Engaged teams had 81% less absenteeism.
36
True or False: Employee engagement has no significant impact on profitability or safety.
False — Engagement showed a 23% increase in profitability and 64% fewer safety incidents.
37
True or False: High engagement levels were associated with better employee well-being and organizational citizenship behaviors.
TRUE
38
True or False: Over 2.7 million employees were surveyed across 112,000+ business units in Gallup’s 2020 engagement study.
TRUE
39
Which of the following was a median difference between high- and low-engagement teams according to Gallup's 2020 study? A. 64% increase in safety incidents B. 23% increase in profitability C. 81% increase in absenteeism D. 14% decrease in productivity
B. 23% increase in profitability
40
Which performance area showed the largest median improvement due to employee engagement? A. Production output B. Customer complaints C. Executive compensation D. Absenteeism
D) Absenteeism
41
What is the impact of employee engagement on safety incidents? A. No measurable impact B. 10% improvement C. 64% fewer incidents D. 43% more accidents in low-turnover organizations
C. 64% fewer incidents
42
Employee engagement helps advance an organization’s strategic plan by: A. Reducing the number of HR staff needed B. Encouraging employees to work unpaid overtime C. Promoting positive employee-management relations D. Decreasing communication across departments
C. Promoting positive employee-management relations
43
According to Gallup’s research, which of the following benefits is tied to employee engagement? A. 28% reduction in theft/shrinkage B. Increased turnover in low-turnover companies C. Lower levels of quality and more defects D. Decline in organizational citizenship behaviors
A. 28% reduction in theft/shrinkage
44
True or False: Opportunities for development in the work itself are a consistent driver of engagement globally.
TRUE
45
True or False: Organizations should interpret employee engagement data based only on responses from one or two countries.
False — They should consider a broad cross section of global responses.
46
True or False: National culture has no influence on how employee engagement should be approached.
False — Cultural context is critical in global engagement strategies.
47
True or False: Recognition and rewards are among the top drivers of engagement for employees worldwide.
TRUE
48
True or False: Valid research should be used to align HR practices with local employee attitudes—not stereotypes.
TRUE
49
True or False: The norm for employee engagement is the same in every country.
False — Engagement norms vary widely by country.
50
Which of the following is a globally consistent driver of employee engagement? A. Number of vacation days B. The work itself, including development opportunities C. Availability of parking D. National holidays
B. The work itself, including development opportunities
51
What should multinational companies avoid when promoting global employee engagement? A. Using a headquarters-defined, ethnocentric approach B. Offering flexible hours C. Collecting survey data D. Localizing training programs
A) Using a headquarters-defined, ethnocentric approach
52
53
Which of the following is NOT one of the four global drivers of employee engagement? A. Trust in leadership B. Organizational communication C. Access to corporate cafeteria D. Recognition and rewards
C. Access to corporate cafeteria
54
How should organizations align HR practices in global settings? A. Use personal opinions from headquarters leaders B. Apply uniform policies regardless of location C. Use valid research that reflects local employee perceptions D. Use stereotypes to simplify decision-making
C. Use valid research that reflects local employee perceptions
55
Why is it important to understand national norms when interpreting engagement surveys? A. To calculate exchange rates B. To comply with labor laws C. To correctly interpret what is considered “high” or “low” engagement in that country D. To save on survey costs
C. To correctly interpret what is considered “high” or “low” engagement in that country
56
True or False: Aon Hewitt’s engagement drivers focus on work experience factors that organizations can control.
TRUE
57
True or False: Work/life balance and inclusion are not considered engagement drivers in Aon Hewitt’s model.
False — Both are included as engagement drivers.
58
True or False: Engagement drivers like “customer focus” and “collaboration” are part of Aon Hewitt’s engagement model.
TRUE
59
True or False: According to Aon Hewitt, senior leadership has no impact on employee engagement.
False — Senior leadership is a key driver of engagement.
60
True or False: Job security, safety, and risk are grouped under the “basics” in Aon Hewitt’s model.
TRUE
61
True or False: Survey follow-up is considered a driver of engagement under Aon Hewitt’s framework
TRUE
62
Which of the following is a category of engagement drivers according to Aon Hewitt? A. External economic conditions B. Work experience factors C. Local tax policies D. Personal beliefs
B. Work experience factors
63
Which of the following is NOT listed as a work experience driver in Aon Hewitt’s model? A. Empowerment/autonomy B. Job satisfaction C. Free lunch options D. Decision making
C. Free lunch options
64
What engagement driver involves giving employees control over their tasks and responsibilities? A. Agility B. Empowerment/autonomy C. Safety D. Survey follow-up
B. Empowerment/autonomy
65
Which set of factors are categorized as “the basics” in Aon Hewitt’s engagement model? A. Brand, career, and recognition B. Job security, safety, and risk C. Senior leadership and infrastructure D. Customer focus, collaboration, and decision making
B. Job security, safety, and risk
66
Which of the following reflects a leadership-related engagement driver in Aon Hewitt’s framework? A. Agility B. Survey follow-up C. Infrastructure maintenance D. Senior leadership
D) Senior leadership
67
True or False: Employees with high engagement and high well-being are the most productive and happiest.
TRUE
68
True or False: High engagement alone is enough to ensure long-term employee retention.
False — Without high well-being, engagement can lead to burnout and turnover.
69
True or False: Employees with low engagement and high well-being tend to stay but may lack commitment to goals.
TRUE
70
True or False: Psychological well-being includes optimism, stress levels, and confidence.
TRUE
71
True or False: Physical well-being refers to emotional resilience and workplace relationships.
False — That’s psychological and social well-being; physical well-being refers to health, stamina, and energy.
72
True or False: Disengaged employees with low well-being make the least contribution to the organization.
TRUE
73
Which of the following is a component of employee well-being according to Towers Watson? A. Job title B. Work shift C. Social connectedness and respect D. Time management
C. Social connectedness and respect
74
What is a risk of having highly engaged employees with low well-being? A. They may burn out and leave the organization B. They show low productivity C. They are more likely to take leadership roles D. They tend to request fewer promotions
A) They may burn out and leave the organization
75
What best describes employees with high well-being but low engagement? A. Most loyal and productive B. Most likely to innovate C. Likely to stay but less committed to organizational goals D. Prone to frequent absenteeism
C. Likely to stay but less committed to organizational goals
76
Which quadrant of the engagement/well-being matrix shows the highest value employees? A. Low engagement / low well-being B. High engagement / high well-being C. Low engagement / high well-being D. High engagement / low well-being
B. High engagement / high well-being
77
What is the relationship between well-being and sustainable engagement? A. Well-being has no effect on engagement B. Engagement is only influenced by salary C. Well-being supports long-term, sustainable engagement D. Well-being lowers engagement
C. Well-being supports long-term, sustainable engagement
78
True or False: Robertson and Birch found that employee well-being strengthens the link between engagement and productivity.
TRUE
79
True or False: Employee engagement efforts are most effective when paired with a focus on employee well-being.
TRUE
80
True or False: Well-being and engagement are universally defined and do not vary across organizations or countries.
False — Well-being varies by organization, department, and culture.
81
True or False: Economic or environmental factors outside an organization can influence employee well-being.
TRUE
82
True or False: HR professionals can ignore external disruptions because they don’t affect well-being.
False — HR should account for and adapt to external challenges.
83
True or False: Targeting employee commitment without addressing well-being may limit the impact of engagement initiatives.
TRUE
84
What did Robertson and Birch conclude about the relationship between well-being and engagement? A. Well-being has no real impact on productivity B. Well-being weakens the impact of engagement C. Well-being enhances the engagement–productivity connection D. Engagement is only valuable if well-being is ignored
C. Well-being enhances the engagement–productivity connection
85
According to Robertson and Cooper, what is likely more impactful than engagement or well-being alone? A. A strict attendance policy B. Combined focus on both engagement and well-being C. Weekly performance reviews D. Flexible start times
B. Combined focus on both engagement and well-being
86
Which of the following can influence employee well-being but is outside of the organization’s control? A. Vacation approval policies B. Internal training programs C. Performance appraisal methods D. Economic downturns or environmental events
D) Economic downturns or environmental events
87
Why is it important for HR to tailor engagement strategies within their own organization? A. To cut HR spending entirely B. To align with federal employment laws C. Because well-being drivers vary across units and cultures D. To avoid paying employee benefits
C. Because well-being drivers vary across units and cultures
88
What should HR professionals do when external challenges affect employee well-being? A. Ignore them and focus on policies B. Deny their impact to avoid liability C. Acknowledge and adapt engagement practices accordingly D. Increase performance targets to offset concerns
C. Acknowledge and adapt engagement practices accordingly
89
True or False: Understanding an organization’s culture is essential for HR professionals to impact employee engagement.
TRUE
90
True or False: Organizational culture has no effect on employee satisfaction or engagement.
False — Culture significantly impacts engagement, satisfaction, and performance.
91
True or False: Organizational culture can be shaped through leadership examples, shared stories, and HR practices
TRUE
92
True or False: A high-performance culture discourages innovation and personalized employee experiences.
False — It encourages innovation, communication, and bottom-up initiatives.
93
True or False: A participative culture encourages collaborative decision-making and employee involvement.
TRUE
94
True or False: Mechanistic cultures are highly structured and emphasize accountability and formal processes.
TRUE
95
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of a participative culture? A. Centralized decision-making by executives B. Strict hierarchy with minimal employee input C. Group problem-solving and collaborative goal setting D. Risk avoidance and minimal feedback loops
C. Group problem-solving and collaborative goal setting
96
What is the first step HR should take to influence employee engagement? A. Distribute surveys B. Understand the organization’s culture C. Increase compensation D. Hire more managers
B. Understand the organization’s culture
97
In a high-performance culture, which of the following is typically emphasized? A. Top-down control B. Customer-centric strategies and innovation C. Minimal performance expectations D. Avoidance of communication
B. Customer-centric strategies and innovation
98
What describes a learning culture? A. Employees follow strict rules with little flexibility B. Risk-taking and shared continuous improvement are encouraged C. Managers discourage new ideas to preserve tradition D. Employee autonomy is limited to technical tasks only
B. Risk-taking and shared continuous improvement are encouraged
99
What type of culture concentrates power at the top and excludes employees from decision-making? A. High-performance B. Learning C. Mechanistic D. Authoritarian
D. Authoritarian
100
True or False: Manager behavior has a direct impact on both employee engagement and well-being.
TRUE
101
True or False: Managers who focus only on results without supporting employees tend to build stronger engagement.
False — Engagement grows when managers support, motivate, and communicate effectively.
102
True or False: Employees feel more engaged when managers express gratitude and recognize accomplishments.
TRUE
103
True or False: The academic literature has always provided strong support for the connection between leadership and engagement.
False — Practitioner literature led the way; academic support is more recent.
104
True or False: HR plays no role in helping managers support employee engagement.
False — HR plays an active and important role in supporting managerial efforts.
105
True or False: Managers who build relationships and understand team motivations foster intrinsic commitment.
TRUE
106
Which manager behaviors are most likely to enhance employee engagement? A. Micromanaging tasks and limiting feedback B. Avoiding personal interactions with staff C. Delegating all communication to HR D. Supporting career growth, showing gratitude, and providing consistent feedback
D) Supporting career growth, showing gratitude, and providing consistent feedback
107
Why is the manager-employee relationship critical to sustainable engagement? A. It reduces HR’s responsibilities B. It ensures top-down control over communication C. It fosters emotional commitment and motivation D. It removes the need for performance reviews
C. It fosters emotional commitment and motivation
108
Which type of leadership is linked to higher employee engagement? A. Controlling and authoritative B. Passive and hands-off C. Supportive and empowering D. Silent and reactive
C. Supportive and empowering
109
What role does HR play in fostering employee engagement through managers? A. Limiting feedback access B. Supporting managers’ engagement efforts and leadership development C. Reducing communication to quarterly check-ins D. Eliminating team-building programs
B. Supporting managers’ engagement efforts and leadership development
110
What do employees want most from their managers to feel engaged? A. Higher bonuses and more vacation B. A clear set of orders each morning C. A sense that they are cared for as both professionals and people D. To be left alone to figure out their roles
C. A sense that they are cared for as both professionals and people
111
True or False: Manager behavior is the dominant factor among the top levers of employee engagement.
TRUE
112
True or False: Setting realistic performance expectations is one of the key manager behaviors that supports employee engagement.
TRUE
113
True or False: Demonstrating honesty and integrity has little effect on employee engagement.
False — It's a top driver of engagement.
114
True or False: Internal communication and innovation are examples of culture-related engagement levers.
TRUE
115
True or False: Encouraging innovation and caring about employees are unrelated to employee engagement
False — These are critical manager-driven levers of engagement.
116
True or False: Helping employees understand how to complete projects is part of day-to-day engagement.
TRUE
117
Which of the following is a manager characteristic that strongly supports employee engagement? A. Focus on micromanagement B. Delegating all tasks without guidance C. Ignoring team input D. Demonstrating honesty and integrity
D) Demonstrating honesty and integrity
118
What is an example of a day-to-day work engagement lever? A. Accepting responsibility for failure B. Breaking down projects into components C. Understanding how to complete work projects D. Demonstrating commitment to diversity
C. Understanding how to complete work projects
119
Which cultural trait supports employee engagement according to the Corporate Leadership Council? A. Job rotation B. Reputation of integrity C. Flexible dress code D. Daily reporting
B. Reputation of integrity
120
What action can a manager take to align employee work with organizational strategy? A. Assign random projects B. Delay feedback C. Clearly articulate goals and job importance D. Focus only on compliance tasks
C. Clearly articulate goals and job importance
121
Which of the following is NOT listed as a top manager-driven engagement lever? A. Defending direct reports B. Respecting employees as individuals C. Assigning overtime every week D. Encouraging innovation
C. Assigning overtime every week
122
True or False: According to Ryan and Deci, engagement increases when employees' needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness are met.
TRUE
123
True or False: Autonomy refers to giving employees trust, independence, and involvement in decision making.
TRUE
124
True or False: Managers who provide regular one-on-one meetings and are available to their employees help support engagement.
TRUE
125
True or False: Giving vague expectations and withholding feedback is considered a positive management competency.
False — Managers should give clear goals and constructive feedback.
126
True or False: Respecting confidentiality and treating employees fairly are behaviors associated with ethical management.
TRUE
127
True or False: Monitoring direction includes helping employees set goals, manage time, and follow procedures.
TRUE
128
What are the three psychological needs identified by Ryan and Deci that support engagement? A. Pay, promotion, and power B. Training, time, and teamwork C. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness D. Feedback, recognition, and visibility
C. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness
129
Which of the following is an example of a management behavior that supports autonomy? A. Involving employees in problem solving B. Making all decisions independently C. Assigning tasks without explanation D. Monitoring attendance strictly
A) Involving employees in problem solving
130
Which management competency is defined by giving praise and recognizing employee contributions? A. Ethics B. Clarifying expectations C. Feedback, praise, and recognition D. Availability
C. Feedback, praise, and recognition
131
What theme includes “reviewing and guiding” and “clarifying expectations”? A. Supporting employee growth B. Interpersonal style C. Monitoring direction D. Ethics and trust
C. Monitoring direction
132
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main competency themes identified by Rachel Lewis and colleagues? A. Supporting employee growth B. Monitoring direction C. Interpersonal style and integrity D. Driving innovation
D) Driving innovation
133
True or False: Global competition and digitization have created both opportunities and challenges for sustaining employee engagement.
TRUE
134
True or False: Digitization has helped all employees keep up with changes in the workplace without issue.
False — Many employees struggle to keep up or feel left behind by rapid digital change.
135
True or False: Blurring boundaries between work and personal life can increase employee stress and reduce well-being.
TRUE
136
True or False: Only a third of employees surveyed in the 2012 Towers Watson study were engage
TRUE
137
True or False: Despite working longer hours, most employees in the Towers Watson study reported low stress levels.
False — Employees were more stressed, anxious, and worried about their futures.
138
True or False: Some organizational leaders believe there is not enough time or resources to focus on engagement.
TRUE
139
Which of the following is an external factor that challenges employee engagement? A. Increased parking availability B. Digitization and technological change C. Excessive employee leisure time D. Declining global competition
B. Digitization and technological change
140
According to the Towers Watson 2012 study, what percentage of the global workforce was engaged? A. 33% B. 50% C. 80% D. 66%
A) 33%
141
What impact can blurred work/life boundaries have on employees? A. Improved time management B. Reduced innovation C. Higher stress, longer work hours, and lower recovery time D. Enhanced vacation planning
C. Higher stress, longer work hours, and lower recovery time
142
Why might HR struggle to implement engagement initiatives during challenging times? A. Employees resist using technology B. Leaders may not prioritize engagement due to limited time and resources C. Engagement is fully automated D. Managers handle engagement independently
B. Leaders may not prioritize engagement due to limited time and resources
143
What must HR do when leaders are reluctant to invest in employee engagement? A. Eliminate engagement programs B. Replace disengaged employees C. Create a business case showing the value of engagement D. Shift focus entirely to performance management
C. Create a business case showing the value of engagement
144
True or False: An effective employee engagement strategy requires sustained, long-term commitment.
TRUE
145
True or False: Employee engagement should only be measured once every five years.
False — Engagement should be measured consistently, such as biannually.
146
True or False: Connecting engagement efforts to business outcomes strengthens the business case for engagement.
TRUE
147
True or False: A strong employee value proposition should include training, skill development, and long-term employment opportunities.
TRUE
148
True or False: Leadership support is optional when implementing engagement strategies.
False — Leadership support is essential for embedding engagement into organizational culture.
149
True or False: HR can use scenario planning and simulations to predict future workforce needs during digital transformation.
TRUE
150
Which of the following should HR do to manage engagement challenges from digitization? A. Lay off legacy employees B. Eliminate training programs C. Outsource all leadership responsibilities D. Use scenario planning to anticipate workforce needs
D) Use scenario planning to anticipate workforce needs
151
Why is consistent measurement of engagement important? A. To fill out quarterly HR paperwork B. To track manager satisfaction C. To assess progress and tie results to organizational outcomes D. To compare engagement to competitors
C. To assess progress and tie results to organizational outcomes
152
What element strengthens employee buy-in for engagement strategies? A. Annual bonuses B. Mandatory overtime C. Opportunities to provide input and feedback D. Longer job titles
C. Opportunities to provide input and feedback
153
What is one way HR can build a long-term engagement strategy? A. Focus only on exit interviews B. Connect engagement to productivity and business outcomes C. Set up temporary engagement committees D. Rotate engagement goals monthly
B. Connect engagement to productivity and business outcomes
154
Which of the following best supports a sustainable engagement strategy? A. Surveying only executive staff B. Encouraging short-term thinking C. Gaining leadership support and integrating engagement into policies D. Posting engagement stats in the break room
C. Gaining leadership support and integrating engagement into policies
155
True or False: Employee engagement impacts profitability through indirect outcomes like retention, customer loyalty, and productivity.
TRUE
156
True or False: Companies with highly engaged employees report lower turnover and better stock performance.
TRUE
157
True or False: Fewer safety incidents and mistakes are associated with focused and engaged employees.
TRUE
158
True or False: Organizations with only 25% or fewer engaged employees show the highest shareholder returns.
False — These organizations reported negative TSR (total shareholder return).
159
The Great Place to Work® Institute found that engaged employees perform 20% worse than disengaged employees.
False — They perform 20% better.
160
True or False: HR can use external engagement benchmarks to create a strong business case for investment in engagement strategies.
TRUE
161
Which of the following outcomes is directly linked to committed employees? A. Lower absenteeism B. Increased customer focus and retention C. Fewer safety incidents D. Greater number of sick days
B. Increased customer focus and retention
162
According to Hewitt’s study, companies with 60–70% engagement had what average total shareholder return (TSR)? A. 9.1% B. 0% C. 24.2% D. -5.0%
C. 24.2%
163
Which of the following results from focused employees and contributes to profitability? A. Increased absenteeism B. Higher error rates C. Fewer mistakes and greater efficiency D. More workplace conflicts
C. Fewer mistakes and greater efficiency
164
What is a key reason HR should make a business case for engagement strategies? A. To eliminate training programs B. To link engagement outcomes to organizational goals and profitability C. To reduce communication between managers and staff D. To justify downsizing
B. To link engagement outcomes to organizational goals and profitability
165
Which of the following companies are shown to outperform major stock indices by 300%? A. Startups with remote-only staff B. Companies with no HR department C. “Best Companies to Work For” with strong engagement cultures D. Tech firms with only contract workers
C. “Best Companies to Work For” with strong engagement cultures
166
True or False: Retention refers to an organization’s ability to keep talented employees.
TRUE
167
True or False: Voluntary turnover includes resignations due to dissatisfaction or better job opportunities.
TRUE
168
True or False: Turnover only affects an organization’s finances, not morale or productivity.
False — Turnover negatively impacts morale, productivity, and finances.
169
True or False: Employees are more likely to stay when they feel they are doing meaningful work and are recognized for their efforts.
TRUE
170
True or False: Offering realistic job previews can reduce voluntary turnover.
TRUE
171
True or False: Compensation and benefits do not play a significant role in employee retention.
False — Competitive compensation and benefits are key to retaining top talent.
172
Which of the following is a voluntary reason for employee turnover? A. Layoff due to restructuring B. Dismissal for misconduct C. Retirement due to disability D. Leaving for a better job opportunity
D) Leaving for a better job opportunity
173
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of turnover? A. Lost knowledge and training investment B. Boosted morale C. Increased time to rehire and retrain D. Compromised workforce diversity
B. Boosted morale
174
What helps embed employees and reduce the likelihood of leaving? A. Lack of advancement opportunities B. Severing social networks C. Strong social and value connections in the workplace D. Annual performance evaluations only
C. Strong social and value connections in the workplace
175
Which of the following can help attract and retain high-performing employees? A. Unclear job roles B. Poor performance systems C. Competitive compensation and benefits D. Delayed onboarding
C. Competitive compensation and benefits
176
Why are realistic job previews important in the selection process? A. To guarantee higher salaries B. To help candidates accept poor working conditions C. To ensure a proper match and reduce voluntary turnover D. To avoid answering difficult questions
C. To ensure a proper match and reduce voluntary turnover
177
True or False: Employee retention strategies should be treated as a strategic part of talent management.
TRUE
178
True or False: Retention is solely the responsibility of the compensation and benefits team.
False — Retention involves all areas of HR and requires collaboration.
179
True or False: Monitoring workforce motivation trends can help improve employee retention.
TRUE
180
True or False: Managers should be evaluated and rewarded based on their ability to retain and develop talent.
TRUE
181
True or False: Keeping employees informed of the organization’s direction has little impact on retention
False — Transparent communication strengthens retention.
182
True or False: HR departments should align systems, departments, and procedures to support better retention.
TRUE
183
Which of the following is a recommended strategy to improve employee retention? A. Focus retention only on new hires B. Treat retention as a strategic part of talent management C. Ignore workforce trends D. Share only minimal information with employees
B. Treat retention as a strategic part of talent management C. Ignore workforce trends
184
What should HR professionals do to better understand retention and turnover? A. Assume reasons for leaving B. Avoid exit interviews C. Conduct research on motivation and employee trends D. Only evaluate high performers
C. Conduct research on motivation and employee trends
185
How can organizations reinforce the importance of retention among managers? A. Exclude it from their performance evaluations B. Hold HR solely responsible C. Link retention performance to manager evaluations and rewards D. Ask employees to self-manage
C. Link retention performance to manager evaluations and rewards
186
Why is it important to align organizational systems and processes with retention goals? A. It creates confusion and encourages turnover B. It improves workflow efficiency and supports employee satisfaction C. It reduces the need for training D. It allows departments to act independently
B. It improves workflow efficiency and supports employee satisfaction
187
What is a practical way to help employees feel more engaged and less likely to leave? A. Keep organizational plans confidential B. Frequently communicate the organization’s direction and vision C. Avoid discussing job expectations D. Set unrealistic performance goals
B. Frequently communicate the organization’s direction and vision
188
True or False: Employee engagement is influenced by how employees perceive leadership, team practices, organizational values, and the work itself.
TRUE
189
True or False: Trust in leadership and clear communication of corporate goals are important leadership characteristics that support engagement.
TRUE
190
True or False: Team practices that focus solely on internal operations are more engaging than those that reward customer understanding and value creation.
False — Understanding customers and rewarding value are key to team engagement.
191
True or False: The work itself should be disconnected from the organization’s strategy to give employees more autonomy.
False — Work should be connected to the strategy to be meaningful and engaging.
192
True or False: Organizational values that include giving back to employees and society can increase engagement.
TRUE
193
Which of the following is a leadership characteristic that supports employee engagement? A. Cares deeply about employees B. Keeps goals confidential C. Focuses only on profits D. Avoids regular communication
A) Cares deeply about employees
194
Which of the following is NOT one of the four key areas of employee engagement? A. Leadership characteristics B. Compensation packages C. Organizational values D. Work itself
B. Compensation packages
195
What team practice is most likely to support employee engagement? A. Avoiding customer feedback B. Rewarding employees for adding value C. Focusing only on internal strategy D. Isolating departments
B. Rewarding employees for adding value
196
Which organizational value contributes to strong employee engagement? A. Prioritizing short-term profits B. Ignoring social responsibility C. Valuing employees and giving back to society D. Focusing only on shareholder returns
C. Valuing employees and giving back to society
197
How should the work itself be designed to support engagement? A. Simple and repetitive B. Disconnected from strategy C. Challenging and connected to the organization’s mission D. Focused only on quantity
C. Challenging and connected to the organization’s mission
198
True or False: Job enlargement involves adding tasks at the same level of responsibility to increase job variety.
TRUE
199
True or False: Job enrichment reduces responsibilities to make a role easier and less stressful.
False — Job enrichment adds depth and responsibility, increasing satisfaction and growth.
200
True or False: Job rotation gives employees a broader understanding of the organization by allowing them to work in different roles.
TRUE
201
True or False: Work simplification increases the complexity of tasks to encourage critical thinking.
False — Work simplification reduces complexity to improve efficiency.
202
True or False: Career development programs contribute to employee engagement by providing opportunities to learn, grow, and advance.
TRUE
203
What is the goal of job enlargement in employee engagement? A. Reduce the number of tasks B. Add tasks at the same level to increase variety C. Remove decision-making authority D. Increase travel requirements
B. Add tasks at the same level to increase variety
204
Which of the following best describes job enrichment? A. Assigning simpler tasks to reduce workload B. Rotating employees through various roles C. Increasing responsibility and decision-making power D. Simplifying job processes to save time
C. Increasing responsibility and decision-making power
205
What is a benefit of job rotation? A. Specializing in a single task B. Reducing the need for onboarding C. Gaining diverse skills and reducing burnout D. Decreasing communication across departments
C. Gaining diverse skills and reducing burnout
206
Which of the following is an example of work simplification? A. Assigning multiple new projects to increase workload B. Removing red tape and streamlining approvals C. Requiring employees to submit reports to multiple managers D. Adding more job duties
B. Removing red tape and streamlining approvals
207
Which of the following is NOT a direct career development activity linked to engagement? A. Job enrichment B. Committee/team participation C. Fast-track leadership programs D. Paid time off for vacations
D. Paid time off for vacations
208
True or False: Open communication between employees and senior management is a key driver of employee engagement
TRUE
209
True or False: Autonomy in decision-making contributes to greater employee engagement.
TRUE
210
True or False: Being underpaid relative to the local market has no impact on employee engagement.
False — Competitive pay is essential to maintaining engagement.
211
True or False: The ability to balance work and life through flexible arrangements can positively affect employee engagement.
TRUE
212
True or False: A meaningful job that connects to organizational goals and values enhances employee engagement.
TRUE
213
True or False: Stay interviews and employee surveys are rarely used to measure employee engagement.
False — They are commonly used tools for assessing engagement.
214
Which of the following activities supports strong relationships between employees and management? A. Ignoring employee feedback B. Restricting communication to team leads only C. Senior leadership regularly engaging with employees D. Delegating all recognition to HR only
C. Senior leadership regularly engaging with employees
215
Which compensation-related factor contributes most directly to employee engagement? A. Monthly dress code changes B. Being paid competitively within the local market C. Office furniture upgrades D. Annual holiday decorations
B. Being paid competitively within the local market
216
Which of the following is a work environment factor that supports engagement? A. Undefined job roles B. Isolation from coworkers C. The job being meaningful and aligned with business goals D. Lack of connection to organizational strategy
C. The job being meaningful and aligned with business goals
217
What method is commonly used to assess employee engagement levels? A. Performance improvement plans B. Written disciplinary warnings C. Stay interviews and employee surveys D. External customer reviews
C. Stay interviews and employee surveys
218
Which of the following would likely reduce engagement? A. Providing flexible schedules B. Clear communication of business strategy C. Recognizing employee contributions D. Offering no medical benefits for employees or their families
D. Offering no medical benefits
219
True or False: Employee surveys are used to assess engagement, satisfaction, and work environment perceptions.
TRUE
220
True or False: Employee engagement surveys typically measure employee opinions about specific procedures.
False — That describes opinion surveys, not engagement surveys.
221
True or False: Survey findings can help determine which engagement initiatives are delivering business results.
TRUE
222
True or False: Opinion surveys and engagement surveys are always conducted by third-party vendors.
False — Many are internally developed, especially opinion surveys.
223
True or False: The true value of surveys comes from measuring progress consistently over time.
TRUE
224
What is the primary purpose of an employee survey? A. To discipline employees B. To evaluate customers' satisfaction C. To assess engagement, satisfaction, and perceptions of the workplace D. To replace performance reviews
C. To assess engagement, satisfaction, and perceptions of the workplace
225
Which type of survey focuses on job satisfaction, morale, and company culture? A. Customer service survey B. Employee engagement survey C. Exit interview D. Safety audit
B. Employee engagement survey
226
Which of the following best describes an employee opinion survey? A. Gathers data on specific processes or procedures B. Focuses on compensation benchmarking C. Measures job satisfaction and organizational culture D. Collects client feedback on HR
A) Gathers data on specific processes or procedures
227
What is one benefit of using a third-party survey provider? A. Unlimited control over the design B. Guaranteed higher engagement C. Ability to benchmark results against other organizations D. Ensures employees won’t respond
C. Ability to benchmark results against other organizations
228
How can organizations get the most value from employee surveys? A. Use them only once after major changes B. Focus only on anonymous comments C. Measure results and improvements over regular intervals D. Design the survey for external customers
C. Measure results and improvements over regular intervals
229
True or False: Employee surveys can uncover issues that may not otherwise be reported by employees.
TRUE
230
True or False: Surveys have no effect on employee trust, regardless of whether leaders act on the results
False — Trust increases when results are acted upon.
231
True or False: Regularly implementing employee surveys can strengthen two-way communication and build engagement.
TRUE
232
True or False: Employee surveys only measure satisfaction and cannot improve customer experience.
False — Engaged, satisfied employees often lead to improved customer satisfaction.
233
True or False: A key to making surveys effective is leadership’s visible commitment to act on employee feedback
TRUE
234
Which of the following is a direct benefit of employee surveys? A. Guaranteeing promotions B. Monitoring only customer complaints C. Assessing engagement and satisfaction levels D. Replacing all HR procedures
C. Assessing engagement and satisfaction levels
235
What action most strengthens employee trust in the survey process? A. Ignoring the results B. Publishing results and taking action on feedback C. Sending anonymous survey links only D. Conducting surveys every five years
B. Publishing results and taking action on feedback
236
What is meant by the “voice of the employee” in the context of surveys? A. One-way feedback from HR to employees B. Regular social media use by employees C. Anonymous complaints only D. Two-way sharing of feedback and communication between employees and employers
D) Two-way sharing of feedback and communication between employees and employers
237
What outcome can result from improved employee satisfaction through surveys? A. Lower customer satisfaction B. Higher employee turnover C. Increased customer satisfaction D. Decreased productivity
C. Increased customer satisfaction
238
What is one early benefit surveys can provide to an organization? A. Eliminate performance evaluations B. Delay management response C. Detect early signs of workforce issues or conflict D. Reduce the need for compensation benchmarking
C. Detect early signs of workforce issues or conflict
239
True or False: A clear plan and timeline should be established before launching an employee survey.
TRUE
240
True or False: Employees should be surveyed using a generic template to save time, regardless of workforce needs.
False — Surveys should be customized to the workforce’s key areas of concern.
241
True or False: Anonymity and confidentiality are essential to collecting honest feedback in surveys.
TRUE
242
True or False: HR departments are rarely criticized in employee surveys.
False — Employees often have high expectations of HR and may criticize it.
243
True or False: In hierarchical cultures, employees may feel uncomfortable with management asking for their opinions.
TRUE
244
True or False: In hierarchical cultures, employees may feel uncomfortable with management asking for their opinions.
TRUE
245
What is one of the first steps HR should take when planning an employee survey? A. Develop a timeline that includes survey creation, administration, and follow-up B. Launch it immediately with no planning C. Ask only managers to complete it D. Translate the results before the survey is finished
A) Develop a timeline that includes survey creation, administration, and follow-up
246
Why is it risky to ask about issues like individual pay or cafeteria food in a survey? A. Employees always praise these areas B. These areas are often irrelevant C. These areas are frequently criticized, regardless of improvements D. Managers complete this section instead
C. These areas are frequently criticized, regardless of improvements
247
What must be ensured when translating surveys and open-ended responses? A. That responses are shortened B. That slang is added for relatability C. That translation is accurate and culturally appropriate D. That only supervisors see the translations
C. That translation is accurate and culturally appropriate
248
Which of the following enhances trust and response rates in employee surveys? A. Sharing survey questions with competitors B. Guaranteeing anonymity and providing feedback on results C. Offering public rankings of employees D. Posting survey data before conducting the survey
B. Guaranteeing anonymity and providing feedback on results
249
Why might organizations avoid conducting a survey? A. If the HR department is busy B. If employees are mostly remote C. If leadership is unwilling to accept criticism D. If only part-time staff are available
C. If leadership is unwilling to accept criticism
250
True or False: Surveys should include some questions that can be repeated annually to establish a baseline for engagement trends.
TRUE
251
True or False: Negatively worded or loaded questions should be avoided in engagement surveys.
TRUE
252
True or False: Open-ended questions at the end of a survey can help reveal insights that structured questions might miss.
TRUE
253
True or False: Surveys that are too long can lead to lower response rates and unreliable answers.
TRUE
254
True or False: All engagement surveys should use standard questions without customization to maintain consistency across organizations.
False — Questions should be tailored to the organization’s needs when possible.
255
True or False: Pulse surveys are brief, targeted, and can be used between annual surveys to gather feedback
TRUE
256
Why is it important to ask some of the same questions on employee surveys each year? A. To reduce the need for new questions B. To create consistency in vendor reports C. To establish a baseline and track engagement over time D. To keep surveys short
C. To establish a baseline and track engagement over time
257
Which of the following should be avoided when designing employee survey questions? A. Questions that focus on behaviors B. Neutral or positively worded questions C. Opportunities for open-ended feedback D. Overly long or complex survey formats
D) Overly long or complex survey formats
258
What is a key reason for avoiding negatively worded questions in surveys? A. They are easier to write B. They result in overly positive feedback C. They can confuse participants and skew results D. They ensure a quicker survey process
C. They can confuse participants and skew results
259
What is the purpose of a pulse survey? A. To replace the annual engagement survey B. To conduct exit interviews C. To gather quick, focused feedback on specific issues D. To test new software tools
C. To gather quick, focused feedback on specific issues
260
What does question selection in an engagement survey communicate to employees? A. The legal policy of the organization B. The organization’s values and what it cares about C. That participation is mandatory D. That bonuses are determined by survey results
B. The organization’s values and what it cares about
261
True or False: Survey results should be broken down by business unit so individual managers can take meaningful action.
TRUE
262
True or False: Line managers should not be involved in sharing survey results with their teams.
False — Line managers should communicate results and help create action plans.
263
True or False: Including engagement objectives in performance reviews can help promote accountability at all levels
TRUE
264
True or False: Social media can be a useful tool for communicating follow-up messages after engagement surveys.
TRUE
265
True or False: Social media can be a useful tool for communicating follow-up messages after engagement surveys.
False — Communicating results transparently encourages trust and engagement.
266
Why should survey results be analyzed by business unit? A. To allow managers to create unit-specific engagement plans B. To reduce overall company reporting C. To prepare for layoffs D. To share with customers
A) To allow managers to create unit-specific engagement plans
267
What role should line managers play in the post-survey process? A. Avoid discussing results B. Use results to assign blame C. Share survey outcomes and help build action plans D. Delete results not relevant to them
C. Share survey outcomes and help build action plans
268
What is one benefit of including engagement goals in performance reviews? A. Helps reduce HR workload B. Makes employees compete for higher bonuses C. Aligns accountability for engagement across the organization D. Avoids survey fatigue
C. Aligns accountability for engagement across the organization
269
Which communication method is often underused but can be effective for survey follow-up? A. Print newsletters B. Social media C. Daily voicemails D. Employee reprimands
B. Social media
270
What is one reason to communicate survey results to employees? A. To discourage future feedback B. To create transparency and build engagement C. To test IT systems D. To evaluate external vendors
B. To create transparency and build engagement
271
True or False: If an organization fails to act on engagement survey results, it can actually harm employee engagement.
TRUE
272
True or False: Employees are more likely to trust the survey process when they see that results are prioritized and actions are communicated.
TRUE
273
True or False: It’s acceptable to ignore survey feedback if leadership finds the feedback uncomfortable.
False — Ignoring feedback undermines trust and lowers future participation.
274
True or False: Drivers of engagement may vary across employee groups and from one survey period to another.
TRUE
275
True or False: Action plans should be realistic, measurable, and tied to available resources.
TRUE
276
What is a potential consequence of failing to act on employee survey feedback? A. Improved morale B. Decreased engagement and trust C. Higher productivity D. Increased survey participation
B. Decreased engagement and trust
277
What increases employee buy-in to engagement survey efforts? A. Disregarding smaller issues B. Immediate implementation of all suggestions C. Delaying action until next year’s survey D. Clear communication of what issues are being addressed and why
D) Clear communication of what issues are being addressed and why
278
What should organizations do after analyzing survey results? A. Archive the results for future reference only B. Keep findings private to avoid criticism C. Create realistic, measurable action plans based on prioritized feedback D. Focus only on top executives' concerns
C) Create realistic, measurable action plans based on prioritized feedback
279
Which method is NOT typically used to identify drivers of engagement? A. Holding focus groups B. Using statistical modeling C. Ignoring survey data D. Including driver-identifying questions in surveys
C. Ignoring survey data
280
To ensure meaningful survey follow-up, organizations should: A. Only act on results if employees demand it B. Track progress and communicate results regularly C. Cancel future surveys to avoid repeated criticism D. Delegate response entirely to HR
B. Track progress and communicate results regularly
281
True or False: Stay interviews can build engagement by showing employees their value and encouraging open communication.
TRUE
282
True or False: Engagement survey responses should be kept anonymous and confidential to ensure honesty.
TRUE
283
True or False: Employee surveys are most effective when they are generic and reused across all organizations.
False – Surveys should be tailored to the organization's needs and goals.
284
True or False: Career development options like job rotation and enrichment can boost employee engagement.
TRUE
285
True or False: Failing to act on survey feedback can lower employee engagement.
TRUE
286
True or False: Online surveys are always anonymous by default.
False – Online surveys can be tracked unless managed by third-party providers.
287
True or False: Managers are a key component in employee engagement and influence employees’ decision to stay.
TRUE
288
True or False: Employee engagement drivers never change once they are identified.
False – They may vary by group and over time.
289
True or False: Employee opinion surveys measure feelings about specific issues, while engagement surveys measure commitment and morale.
TRUE
290
Which of the following is a benefit of stay interviews? A. They replace all surveys B. They provide individual insight and can build trust C. They are faster than surveys D. They eliminate the need for feedback.
B. They provide individual insight and can build trust
291
Which of the following is a common area assessed in engagement surveys? A. Leadership trust and communication B. Personal social media habits C. Managerial salary D. Vacation destination preferences
A) Leadership trust and communication
292
Which strategy helps increase engagement survey response honesty? A. Use long surveys B. Require employee signatures C. Assure anonymity and confidentiality D. Only include multiple-choice questions
C. Assure anonymity and confidentiality
293
What is one advantage of online surveys? A. They guarantee anonymity B. They eliminate the need for HR follow-up C. They allow 24/7 access for responses D. They require no virus protection
C. They allow 24/7 access for responses
294
Which of the following is an example of job enrichment? A. Giving employees new unrelated tasks B. Offering higher-level responsibilities and decision-making C. Reducing the workload D. Rotating shifts between departments
B. Offering higher-level responsibilities and decision-making
295
Why is it risky to ignore survey results? A. It lowers printing costs B. It reduces data storage C. It damages employee trust and engagement D. It makes the organization more efficient
C. It damages employee trust and engagement
296
What should organizations do before launching a survey? A. Skip planning to be more agile B. Pre-write employee responses C. Create a project timeline and plan D. Ask only new hires to respond
C. Create a project timeline and plan
297
What is a potential downside of online surveys? A. Too many paper copies B. Too much face-to-face interaction C. Slower results than mail D. Potential lack of anonymity
D) Potential lack of anonymity
298
What key element helps make survey feedback actionable? A. Complex language B. Open-ended questions only C. Clear identification of engagement drivers D. Fewer questions
C. Clear identification of engagement drivers
299
True or False: It’s better not to conduct an engagement survey at all than to conduct one and ignore the results.
TRUE
300
True or False: Partnering with a consulting firm can help benchmark survey results and ensure confidentiality.
TRUE
301
True or False: Survey results should only be shared with leadership and not communicated to employees.
False – Results should be shared with employees to build trust and transparency.
302
True or False: Creating both company-wide and local-level cross-sectional committees helps improve survey action planning.
TRUE
303
True or False: Organizations should focus more on interpreting and acting on survey results than on survey technology itself.
TRUE
304
True or False: Annual employee engagement surveys tend to improve engagement scores more than biennial ones.
TRUE
305
True or False: Overpromising after a survey can lead to increased employee trust.
False – Overpromising and underdelivering breeds skepticism.
306
True or False: Follow-through and communication are critical to how employees judge survey success.
TRUE
307
Why is it risky to conduct a survey without acting on the results? A. It builds cynicism and damages trust B. It leads to higher survey participation C. It slows down HR workflows D. It reduces leadership meetings
A) It builds cynicism and damages trust
308
What is one advantage of working with a survey consultant? A. They eliminate the need for employee feedback B. They provide preset action plans C. They can benchmark results and add credibility to reporting D. They automate payroll integration
C. They can benchmark results and add credibility to reporting
309
What should organizations do before launching another employee survey? A. Ask for vendor discounts B. Conduct a new engagement survey first C. Analyze results and plan actions based on previous feedback D. Change all senior leaders
C. Analyze results and plan actions based on previous feedback
310
Why should companies use a common action plan template at the local level? A. To discourage collaboration B. To make it easier to blame departments for inaction C. To encourage sharing of best practices and consistency D. To reduce technology costs
C. To encourage sharing of best practices and consistency
311
What is a common mistake organizations make after conducting a survey? A. Overpromising and underdelivering B. Ignoring technology vendors C. Doing only focus groups D. Publishing survey questions
A. Overpromising and underdelivering
312
Which of the following is recommended to keep momentum after survey delivery? A. Hire new staff before reviewing results B. Avoid communicating with staff C. Use internal feedback mechanisms for ongoing input D. Archive results without action
C. Use internal feedback mechanisms for ongoing input
313
True or False: Stay interviews help build trust between managers and employees.
TRUE
314
True or False: Exit interviews are more effective than stay interviews at retaining employees.
False – Stay interviews are more effective because they happen before the employee decides to leave.
315
True or False: HR should always conduct stay interviews, not the employee’s manager.
False – Stay interviews are best conducted by the employee’s direct manager.
316
True or False: Stay interviews are typically structured and casual, taking less than 30 minutes.
TRUE
317
True or False: Debriefing stay interview results can reveal broader organizational patterns.
TRUE
318
What is one major benefit of a stay interview over an exit interview? A. It is longer and more detailed B. It gathers information from future candidates C. It provides a chance to address issues before an employee leaves D. It eliminates the need for HR involvement
C. It provides a chance to address issues before an employee leaves
319
Who should ideally conduct a stay interview? A. An external consultant B. A coworker peer C. The employee’s manager D. The HR director only
C. The employee’s manager
320
How long do most stay interviews typically last? A. Less than 15 minutes B. Less than 30 minutes C. One hour D. Two hours
B. Less than 30 minutes
321
What is one of the key goals of a stay interview? A. To reprimand underperforming employees B. To discuss the employee’s health benefits C. To understand why employees stay and what might make them leave D. To collect data for job applications
C. To understand why employees stay and what might make them leave
322
What should managers be trained on before conducting stay interviews? A. Company mission and vision B. Proper hiring practices C. How to establish rapport, ask questions, and listen actively D. How to calculate compensation
C. How to establish rapport, ask questions, and listen actively
323
Front: True or False: The integration phase of the Employee Life Cycle is when the employer-employee relationship is initiated.
Back: ❌ False – The relationship is initiated in the recruitment phase.
324
True or False: Exit interviews are typically conducted during the transition phase of the Employee Life Cycle.
TRUE
325
True or False: The development phase includes activities such as training, goal-setting, and performance evaluation.
TRUE
326
True or False: The recruitment phase includes promoting and transferring employees within the company.
❌ False – That happens in the transition phase.
327
Front: True or False: Integration includes both cultural acclimation and access to tools needed for job success.
TRUE
328
Which phase of the Employee Life Cycle involves introducing new employees to organizational culture and tools? A. Recruitment B. Integration C. Transition D. Development
B. Integration
329
In which phase would an employee most likely receive training and set performance goals? A. Transition B. Recruitment C. Development D. Exit
C. Development
330
What is the primary focus of the recruitment phase in the Employee Life Cycle? A. Career advancement opportunities B. Hiring and onboarding C. Attracting and selecting candidates D. Employee disengagement tracking
C. Attracting and selecting candidates
331
Which of the following is typically associated with the transition phase? A. Hiring managers B. Job rotation C. Exit interviews D. Cultural onboarding
C. Exit interviews
332
Which ELC phase directly precedes the development phase? A. Transition B. Integration C. Recruitment D. None of the above
B. Integration
333
True or False: Job enrichment that includes variety, autonomy, and coworker respect can increase employee engagement.
TRUE
334
True or False: Strategic compensation has no effect on employee engagement or commitment.
False – It plays a key role in signaling commitment and aligning behavior with company goals.
335
True or False: Pay for performance always has positive consequences in increasing engagement.
False – It can focus attention but may also have unintended consequences depending on how performance is defined.
336
True or False: HR can enhance engagement by offering learning and development opportunities that accommodate employees’ other life commitments.
TRUE
337
True or False: Managing performance to enable long-term success contributes to employee engagement and commitment.
TRUE
338
Which of the following is a key element in increasing commitment through strategic compensation? A. Annual surveys B. Work simplification C. Equitable exchange D. Mandatory overtime
C. Equitable exchange
339
What kind of compensation aligns with external market value and internal strategic value? A. Competency-based pay B. Flexible benefits C. Equitable compensation D. Retirement pay
C. Equitable compensation
340
What practice supports commitment congruence for employees at different life stages? A. Job enrichment B. Flexible benefits and perquisites C. Internal recruiting D. Cross-training
B. Flexible benefits and perquisites
341
Which of the following best supports employee engagement during performance and career management? A. Assigning repetitive tasks B. Eliminating peer feedback C. Providing challenging goals and recognition D. Increasing employee surveillance
C. Providing challenging goals and recognition
342
How can HR signal commitment reciprocity during learning and development? A. Assigning additional duties B. Providing on-the-job punishments C. Investing in training that fits employee needs D. Avoiding formal education programs
C. Investing in training that fits employee needs
343
Front: True or False: A realistic job preview should only include positive aspects of the job to attract more candidates.
False – It should include both favorable and unfavorable aspects to ensure an honest portrayal.
344
True or False: The main purpose of a realistic job preview is to convince all candidates to take the j
False – The purpose is to help candidates make informed decisions and assess fit.
345
True or False: One benefit of a realistic job preview is improving the match between the candidate and the organization.
TRUE
346
True or False: Realistic job previews can help reduce early turnover.
TRUE
347
True or False: Predictive attrition analysis is used only after employees leave the organization.
False – It is used proactively to anticipate potential departures.
348
Which of the following is NOT a goal of a realistic job preview? A. Help candidates decide if the job is a good fit B. Portray both positive and negative aspects of the job C. Convince all applicants to accept the job D. Improve the potential match between the candidate and organization
C. Convince all applicants to accept the job
349
What is a benefit of implementing realistic job previews? A. Higher rejection rates by candidates B. Increased employee engagement and retention C. Reduced applicant pool D. Delayed onboarding process
B. Increased employee engagement and retention
350
Which analytical approach helps HR anticipate potential employee departures? A. Predictive attrition analysis B. Skills gap inventory C. Succession planning D. Workforce branding
A. Predictive attrition analysis
351
What HR strategy offers honest insight into job expectations before hiring? A. Career pathing B. Behavioral assessments C. Realistic job preview D. Onboarding checklist
C. Realistic job preview
352
Which of the following practices can help address retention issues? A. Strict monitoring systems B. Predictive attrition analysis and RJPs C. Delayed promotions D. Increasing workload expectations
B. Predictive attrition analysis and RJPs
353
Front: True or False: One purpose of a realistic job preview is to reduce employee turnover.
TRUE
354
True or False: Simulations that replicate working conditions can be used as a realistic job preview.
TRUE
355
True or False: Realistic job previews should be avoided because they may discourage applicants.
False – RJPs help encourage self-selection and reduce mismatches.
356
True or False: An effective RJP only includes the positive aspects of the job to attract the best candidateS.
False – An effective RJP presents both positive and negative aspects to manage expectations.
357
True or False: RJPs can reduce post-entry stress for new hires.
TRUE
358
Which of the following is a benefit of using realistic job previews (RJPs)? A. Increases unrealistic job expectations B. Encourages self-selection by applicants C. Increases post-entry stress D. Focuses only on the organization's benefits
B. Encourages self-selection by applicants
359
Which of the following is NOT a method of delivering a realistic job preview? A. Hiding challenging aspects of the job B. Interviewing future coworkers C. Job-related simulations D. Virtual or in-person tours
A) Hiding challenging aspects of the job
360
What is one of the key outcomes of an effective realistic job preview? A. Lower job satisfaction B. Higher voluntary turnover C. Reduced employee turnover D. Increased onboarding costs
C. Reduced employee turnoveR
361
What does an effective RJP help prevent? A. Candidate self-assessment B. Job satisfaction C. Disappointments after hire D. Accurate job expectations
C. Disappointments after hire
362
Why is it important for organizations to use realistic job previews? A. To attract the highest number of candidates B. To promote the job with only positive aspects C. To increase new hire uncertainty D. To promote honest communication and alignment
D. To promote honest communication and alignment
363
True or False: The employee life cycle (ELC) ends when an employee is hired.
False – The ELC ends when an employee transitions out of the organization or to a different role.
364
True or False: Realistic job previews (RJPs) can help reduce turnover and improve job satisfaction.
TRUE
365
True or False: Onboarding has little impact on long-term employee engagement.
False – Onboarding is a critical moment that can shape long-term engagement and retention.
366
True or False: Personalized onboarding helps employees integrate faster and supports engagement.
TRUE
367
True or False: Career development is only important during the initial onboarding phase.
False – Career development should continue throughout the employee life cycle.
368
What is the primary purpose of the employee life cycle (ELC)? A. To describe the key stages of an employee’s journey B. To guide recruitment marketing C. To determine salary increases D. To track disciplinary actions
A) To describe the key stages of an employee’s journey
369
Which of the following is NOT typically part of a realistic job preview (RJP)? A. Job-related simulations B. Tours of the workplace C. Guaranteed promotion timeline D. Interviews with future coworkers
C. Guaranteed promotion timeline
370
Which activity is most associated with the “Development” phase of the employee life cycle? A. Exit interviews B. Initial onboarding C. Skills training and goal setting D. Resume review
C. Skills training and goal setting
371
Which onboarding practice can improve employee engagement and shorten time to performance? A. Strict probation evaluations B. Standardized job descriptions C. Delayed orientation D. Personalized onboarding
D) Personalized onboarding
372
True or False: Suggestion mechanisms are useful only during the onboarding process.
False. Suggestion mechanisms are useful throughout the entire employee life cycle.
373
True or False: Suggestion boxes are an outdated method and no longer considered effective for collecting employee feedback.
False. While traditional, suggestion boxes are still a valid method and can be complemented by digital alternatives.
374
True or False: Organizations should explain why certain employee suggestions are not being considered.
True. Transparency builds trust and clarifies decision-making processes.
375
True or False: A suggestion mechanism should include a clear timeline for when changes based on feedback are expected to be completed.
True. Clear timelines help manage expectations and demonstrate organizational commitment.
376
True or False: Suggestion mechanisms are most effective when only leadership is involved in reviewing the feedback.
False. Feedback should be reviewed and communicated across all relevant levels to ensure inclusiveness.
377
Which of the following is a modern example of a suggestion mechanism in the workplace? A. Comment cards B. Slack channels dedicated to feedback C. Verbal suggestions at meetings D. Annual performance reviews
B. Slack channels dedicated to feedback
378
Why is it important for organizations to communicate which suggestions are not being implemented? A. To discourage excessive feedback B. To avoid legal liability C. To maintain transparency and build trust D. To meet compliance requirements
C. To maintain transparency and build trust
379
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a suggestion mechanism? A. To monitor employee behavior B. To collect valuable feedback that supports the employee life cycle C. To measure productivity D. To enforce policy changes
C. To measure productivity
380
Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for collecting employee suggestions? A. Dedicated email address B. Suggestion box C. Social media platform channels D. Mandatory suggestion submission quotas
D. Mandatory suggestion submission quotas
381
True or False: Work/life balance concerns have decreased due to advancements in mobile technology
False. Mobile technology has actually increased concerns about work/life balance due to the blurring of boundaries between work and personal life.
382
True or False: Flexible work arrangements are one of the many programs organizations use to support work/life balance.
True. Flexible hours, job sharing, telecommuting, and compressed workweeks are all examples.
383
True or False: Legal assistance and financial planning fall under employee assistance and development programs.
True. These services help employees manage life responsibilities that can impact work.
384
True or False: Wellness programs such as fitness benefits and smoking cessation are unrelated to work/life balance initiatives.
False. Wellness programs are a key part of promoting employee well-being and balance.
385
True or False: Convenience services like dry cleaning and grocery delivery are irrelevant to improving work/life balance.
False. These services reduce personal time burdens, improving balance.
386
Which of the following is an example of a flexible work arrangement? A. Career coaching B. Backup child-care services C. Telecommuting D. Legal assistance
C. Telecommuting
387
Why have work/life balance concerns increased in recent years? A. Rise in dual-income households and mobile connectivity B. Improved commuting times C. Decreased use of technology D. Elimination of part-time jobs
A) Rise in dual-income households and mobile connectivity
388
Which program would fall under the category of family assistance? A. Time management training B. Elder-care assistance C. Ergonomics program D. Variable workweek
B. Elder-care assistance
389
What is the purpose of concierge or convenience services in work/life balance programs? A. To improve performance evaluations B. To reduce the amount of paid leave taken C. To help employees save time on personal errands D. To enforce remote work
C. To help employees save time on personal errands
390
Which of the following is considered part of a wellness program? A. Job sharing B. Smoking cessation C. Referral services for household needs D. Adoption assistance
B. Smoking cessation
391
True or False: The presence of labor contracts has no impact on the implementation of work/life balance programs.
False. Labor relations, including existing labor contracts, can influence whether WLB provisions are required.
392
True or False: Organizational culture has no effect on how work/life programs are implemented.
False. Organizational culture, including leadership modeling and reward systems, strongly impacts WLB adoption.
393
True or False: National culture can influence how work/life balance programs are perceived and valued.
True. Cultural attitudes toward gender roles, family, and work can shape WLB expectations.
394
True or False: A start-up company is more likely to have fully developed work/life programs than an established firm.
False. Start-ups may lack the maturity and resources to support formal WLB initiatives.
395
True or False: Market practices can affect which work/life balance benefits are offered to remain competitive.
True. Organizations often tailor their offerings to match local or global competitor standards
396
Which of the following factors may influence the implementation of a work/life program? A. National culture B. Organizational maturity C. Labor relations D. All of the above
D. All of the above
397
What role does organizational culture play in WLB program implementation? A. It ensures compliance with wage laws B. It determines career paths C. It shapes the behaviors that are modeled and rewarded D. It limits employee promotions
C. It shapes the behaviors that are modeled and rewarded
398
How might employee demographics influence WLB program decisions? A. By identifying specific needs such as child care or elder care B. By increasing turnover rates C. By reducing overall labor costs D. By promoting remote-only work policies
A) By identifying specific needs such as child care or elder care
399
Why might a company in a startup phase struggle with WLB implementation? A. It lacks interest in employee satisfaction B. It does not compete for talent C. It may lack the resources and infrastructure D. It is limited by federal regulations
C. It may lack the resources and infrastructure
400
Which of the following is NOT typically a factor influencing WLB program implementation? A. Market competition B. Employee expectations C. Color of office furniture D. Legal requirements
C. Color of office furniture
401
True or False: Work/life balance programs can help reduce employee turnover.
True. These programs support retention by improving employee satisfaction and flexibility.
402
True or False: Work/life balance programs primarily benefit employees and offer no significant advantages to employers.
False. Employers benefit through reduced absenteeism, improved morale, and better talent attraction.
403
True or False: A flexible work environment is one of the benefits work/life balance programs can provide to employers.
True. Flexibility is a key feature that supports both employer and employee goals.
404
True or False: WLB programs have no impact on customer satisfaction or client retention.
False. Happier, more engaged employees can lead to better customer interactions and satisfaction.
405
True or False: Work/life balance programs can help employees better manage family responsibilities and elder-care needs.
True. These programs are designed to support family-related responsibilities.
406
Which of the following is a benefit of WLB programs for employers? A. Higher workplace stress B. Improved customer satisfaction C. Decreased employee engagement D. Increased turnover
B. Improved customer satisfaction
407
Which of the following is a direct benefit of WLB programs to employees? A. Reduced employer costs B. Enhanced public relations C. Increased job satisfaction D. Greater market share
C. Increased job satisfaction
408
What is one way WLB programs help reduce health-care costs? A . By reducing stress-related health issues B. By allowing employees to work fewer hours C. By offering gym memberships only D. By replacing insurance with wellness tips
A) By reducing stress-related health issues
409
How do WLB programs help improve employer branding? A. By mandating office dress codes B. By increasing workplace rules C. By demonstrating a commitment to employee well-being D. By limiting employee flexibility
C. By demonstrating a commitment to employee well-being
410
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of work/life balance programs to employees? A. Improves self-esteem B. Allows involvement in family life C. Facilitates elder-care issues D. Decreases employer profits
D. Decreases employer profits
411
True or False: Selecting employees based on their work style and skills is not important when implementing flexible staffing.
False. It is critical to choose employees who can succeed in flexible roles based on their skills and work styles.
412
True or False: Ongoing evaluation of flexible staffing arrangements helps determine both employee satisfaction and contributions.
True. Regular reviews help ensure both employee engagement and organizational benefit.
413
True or False: HR professionals should avoid involving the IT department when setting up telecommuting systems.
False. Coordinating with IT is essential to ensure proper technical support and communication tools.
414
True or False: Clear communication about expectations and performance is necessary for successful flexible staffing.
True. Transparency in roles and goals is key to accountability and success.
415
True or False: Evaluating cost-effectiveness of flexible work programs should be based on employee preferences alone.
False. Evaluation should align with the strategic goals of the organization, not just employee preferences
416
Which of the following is an essential step in implementing flexible staffing? A. Ignoring employee preferences B. Selecting employees based on work style and skills C. Assigning all roles randomly D. Offering flexible schedules to all without criteria
B. Selecting employees based on work style and skills
417
Why should HR involve the IT department in flexible staffing? A. To increase the department’s budget B. To ensure managers use their own equipment C. To obtain the necessary tools for virtual communication D. To monitor employee emails
C. To obtain the necessary tools for virtual communication
418
What should HR professionals communicate clearly in flexible work arrangements? A. Annual company revenue B. Employee health records C. Expectations, reporting structures, and performance metrics D. Office decoration policies
C. Expectations, reporting structures, and performance metrics
419
What is the purpose of evaluating flexible work arrangements on an ongoing basis? A. To update employee birthdates B. To assess job satisfaction and organizational contribution C. To eliminate underperforming departments D. To replace existing job descriptions
B. To assess job satisfaction and organizational contribution C. To eliminate
420
Evaluating the cost-effectiveness of flexible work programs should be based on: A. Manager availability B. Strategic organizational goals C. Office attendance rates only D. Employee mood surveys
B. Strategic organizational goals
421
True or False: Employee engagement only matters during the hiring process.
False. Engagement spans the entire employee life cycle, from hiring to exit.
422
True or False: Personalized onboarding can increase employee retention.
True. Tailored onboarding helps new hires integrate effectively and stay engaged.
423
True or False: Realistic job previews can reduce employee turnover.
True. They set accurate expectations and help with better candidate-job fit.
424
True or False: Suggestion mechanisms should be anonymous and one-way.
False. They should be part of an open feedback loop, with visible action taken
425
True or False: Work/life balance programs are beneficial to both employees and employers.
True. They reduce stress, improve satisfaction, and enhance performance.
426
True or False: Recognition programs must always be monetary to be effective.
False. Nonfinancial recognition like praise or flexible schedules can be just as effective.
427
What is the primary purpose of a realistic job preview (RJP)? A. To discourage unqualified candidates B. To highlight only the positive aspects of a job C. To provide complete and honest information about the job D. To speed up the hiring process
C. To provide complete and honest information about the job
428
Which of the following is an example of a nonfinancial reward? A. Year-end bonus B. Flexible work schedule C. Stock options D. Salary increase
B. Flexible work schedule
429
Which HR competency supports influencing decision makers during engagement program development? A. Critical Evaluation B. Relationship Management C. Leadership & Navigation D. Consultation
C. Leadership & Navigation
430
Why should HR use predictive attrition analysis? A. To determine promotion candidates B. To evaluate new markets C. To identify potential causes of turnover D. To increase salary budgets
C. To identify potential causes of turnover
431
Which of the following can enhance employee engagement during the development phase? A. Realistic job previews B. Internal recruiting C. Exit interviews D. Suggestion boxes
B. Internal recruiting
432
True or False: Broad performance appraisal outcomes such as promotion and pay increases have no impact on employee engagement.
False. A broad range of performance appraisal outcomes is positively linked to employee engagement.
433
True or False: Employee involvement in goal setting is linked to higher engagement, although its importance can vary by region.
True. The effect of goal-setting involvement on engagement varies across different parts of the world.
434
True or False: Organizational justice and fairness in HR practices are important factors in boosting employee engagement.
True. Fair treatment and transparency lead to greater pride and passion for work.
435
True or False: Recognition programs that are not aligned with company values typically perform better than those that are.
False. Recognition programs tied to company values outperform those that are not.
436
True or False: Spending more than 1% of payroll on recognition programs does not affect retention or recruitment.
False. Organizations spending over 1% see better retention, recruiting, and financial results.
437
Which of the following performance management elements is strongly linked to employee engagement? A. Monthly performance reviews only B. Broad performance appraisal outcomes (promotion, training, pay increases) C. Reducing job responsibilities D. Less feedback from supervisors
B. Broad performance appraisal outcomes (promotion, training, pay increases)
438
In the Chinese context, what factor was identified as especially critical to employee engagement? A. Transparency and consistency in HR practices B. Reduced working hours C. Weekly bonuses D. Autonomous workstations
A) Transparency and consistency in HR practices
439
How much more likely are recognition programs tied to organizational values to be rated as excellent? A. Two times B. Five times C. Nine times D. Equal likelihood
C. Nine times
440
What is one reason value-aligned recognition programs are more effective? A. They limit employee expectations B. They reduce organizational expenses C. They reinforce company goals and desired behaviors D. They eliminate the need for formal evaluations
C. They reinforce company goals and desired behaviors
441
What is a financial benefit of spending at least 1% of payroll on recognition? A. Higher tax deductions B. Reduced payroll processing time C. Increased automation of HR systems D. Improved financial performance and retention
D) . Improved financial performance and retention
442
True or False: HR should promote recognition programs that are aligned with organizational strategy and values.
True. Recognition should reinforce core values and strategic objectives.
443
True or False: Recognition programs are most effective when they are random and not tied to performance.
False. Recognition should be tied to performance that aligns with strategic goals.
444
True or False: Encouraging corporate investment in employee recognition can lead to higher engagement and better retention.
True. Financial investment in recognition correlates with improved business and employee outcomes.
445
True or False: The form of recognition doesn’t matter as long as something is given.
False. The form of recognition should have significance for the recipient.
446
True or False: HR should ensure that employees have the right roles and support in order to succeed before recognition is meaningful.
True. Employees must be positioned for success to benefit from recognition programs.
447
What should recognition be tied to in a well-designed recognition system? A. Years of service only B. Random employee selection C. Performance aligned with strategic goals and company values D. Departmental size
C. Performance aligned with strategic goals and company values
448
Why should HR promote recognition programs tied to corporate values? A. It reduces training needs B. It allows managers to delegate more tasks C. It improves time management D. It reinforces desired behaviors and company culture
D) It reinforces desired behaviors and company culture
449
What impact can corporate spending on employee recognition have? A. Lower employee expectations B. Higher engagement and stronger ties to company values C. Reduced payroll costs D. Decreased performance
B. Higher engagement and stronger ties to company values
450
Which of the following is a key role HR plays in recognition programs? A. Ignoring employee feedback B. Promoting strategic and values-based recognition C. Eliminating non-monetary rewards D. Outsourcing all recognition decisions
B. Promoting strategic and values-based recognition
451
When designing a recognition system, what should HR consider about the recognition method? A. It must be financial B. It should be impersonal C. It should have personal meaning to the recipient D. It should be identical for all employees
C. It should have personal meaning to the recipient
452
True or False: Performance management is primarily focused on penalizing employees who do not meet expectations.
False. Performance management is about maintaining or improving employee performance, not punishment.
453
True or False: Performance management can contribute to employee engagement and improved business outcomes.
True. Effective performance management increases engagement, which drives productivity and results.
454
True or False: A performance management system should only be used during annual reviews.
False. Ongoing feedback and communication are key components of a successful performance management system.
455
True or False: Identifying skill gaps through performance management allows HR to suggest appropriate training and coaching interventions.
True. HR uses gap analysis to guide learning and development strategies.
456
True or False: Some organizations see performance management as too time-consuming and therefore avoid using it.
True. Despite its value, some organizations view the process as burdensome.
457
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a performance management system? A. To document poor performance for legal reasons B. To maintain or improve employee job performance C. To eliminate the need for HR intervention D. To reduce training budgets
B. To maintain or improve employee job performance
458
What action should HR take when a manager identifies a skill gap in an employee? A. Recommend immediate termination B. Reduce job responsibilities C. Conduct a gap analysis and advise on development strategies D. Pause all performance evaluations
C. Conduct a gap analysis and advise on development strategies
459
Why might some organizations resist implementing a performance management system? A. They prefer not to give feedback B. They view the process as too time-consuming C. They only hire highly skilled workers D. They do not have any performance goals
B. They view the process as too time-consuming
460
What is one motivational benefit of performance management? A. It prevents salary increases B. It reduces HR involvement C. Goal achievement encourages engagement D. It creates employee competition
C. Goal achievement encourages engagement
461
Which of the following is a tool that HR might recommend to address performance gaps? A. Pay reductions B. Team restructuring C. Coaching and continuous feedback D. Relocation
C. Coaching and continuous feedback
462
True or False: Dashboards only display long-term performance trends and are not useful for real-time decision-making
False. Dashboards offer real-time data that helps with timely adjustments to goals and strategies.
463
True or False: Dashboards allow HR professionals to access all key metrics and systems from a single location.
True. Dashboards consolidate relevant HR and performance data in one place.
464
True or False: Dashboards can be customized to reflect the specific goals and needs of an organization
True. Customization is one of the key strengths of dashboard tools
465
True or False: Sharing dashboard metrics with employees can help motivate them by showing clear progress and performance insights.
True. Transparency can increase motivation and alignment with goals.
466
True or False: Dashboards should include all available data, even if it's not relevant to organizational goals.
False. Dashboards should focus only on data that aligns with the organization's goals to avoid distraction.
467
What is one benefit of using dashboards in HR? A. They eliminate the need for goal setting B. They help track and manage relevant performance metrics C. They replace all HR personnel D. They are only used for payroll tracking
B. They help track and manage relevant performance metrics
468
Why is it important to include only relevant metrics in a dashboard? A. To reduce software costs B. To ensure compliance with labor laws C. To avoid distractions and focus on strategic goals D. To prevent employee access to sensitive data
C. To avoid distractions and focus on strategic goals
469
What can HR do when a dashboard shows negative performance trends? A. Evaluate or revise individual or team goals promptly B. Reassign all employees C. Ignore the data until the next evaluation cycle D. Shut down the dashboard temporarily
A) Evaluate or revise individual or team goals promptly
470
How can dashboards help motivate employees? A. By tracking the number of sick days B. By sharing performance data to show progress or needed improvement C. By limiting their responsibilities D. By removing their access to feedback
B. By sharing performance data to show progress or needed improvement
471
What is essential for successful employee use of dashboards? A. Password changes every week B. A printed version of the dashboard C. Proper user training D. HR approval for every metric
C. Proper user training
472
True or False: Aligning performance goals to organizational values helps employees understand how their work supports the organization's strategy.
True. Clear alignment fosters purpose and strategic contribution.
473
True or False: Performance standards should be vague and flexible to encourage creativity.
False. They should be objective, measurable, and clearly written.
474
True or False: Performance standards include both expected behaviors and expected results.
True. They describe what employees should do and how well they should do it.
475
True or False: Managers should only give performance feedback during annual reviews.
False. Feedback should be continuous and come from multiple source
476
True or False: Employee engagement and support from executives both contribute to a high-performance workplace.
True. Leadership support and engagement are critical success factors.
477
Which of the following is a key element of performance standards? A. Job satisfaction B. Employee interests C. Timeliness D. Age of the employee
C. Timeliness
478
What should performance standards be based on? A. Managerial preferences only B. Generic industry benchmarks C. Employee requests D. Objective, measurable criteria clearly communicated
D) Objective, measurable criteria clearly communicated
479
Why is it important to align employee goals with organizational values? A. To speed up onboarding B. To reduce legal risks C. To show how individual efforts support business strategy D. To comply with diversity goals
C. To show how individual efforts support business strategy
480
What is one way organizations can build a high-performance workplace? A. Rotate managers every quarter B. Limit feedback to formal reviews C. Train managers in performance management practices D. Keep performance standards secret
C. Train managers in performance management practices
481
Which of the following should be included in performance metrics? A. Cost-effectiveness B. Managerial intuition C. Office decor preferences D. Employee tenure
A. Cost-effectiveness
482
True or False: Tracking whether managers complete performance reviews is one method of evaluating the effectiveness of a performance management program.
True. Completion tracking helps assess the consistency of system use.
483
True or False: Performance management programs should be evaluated solely based on employee satisfaction surveys.
False. Evaluation should include training, system usage, alignment with goals, and other factors.
484
True or False: It is important to confirm that performance appraisal results align with promotions and pay increases.
True. This confirms fairness and effectiveness of the system.
485
True or False: Integration of the performance management system with the HRIS makes evaluation tasks more difficult.
False. Integration makes evaluation easier and more efficient.
486
True or False: Gathering feedback from users is not a recommended part of evaluating performance management systems
False. User feedback is an important part of evaluation and continuous improvement.
487
Which of the following is a recommended method for evaluating a performance management system? A. Only reviewing exit interviews B. Conducting random employee surveys C. Tracking completion of performance management activities D. Rotating performance standards annually
C. Tracking completion of performance management activities
488
Why should senior management review the performance management system? A. To train new HR staff B. To align the system with strategic goals C. To simplify benefits administration D. To reduce turnover
B. To align the system with strategic goals
489
What does aligning appraisal results with promotions and pay increases help confirm? A. Budget compliance B. Payroll processing speed C. Validity and fairness of the performance management system D. HR department workload
C. Validity and fairness of the performance management system
490
What system integration can make evaluation tasks easier for HR? A. Payroll and scheduling B. Applicant tracking system C. HR information system (HRIS) D. Customer relationship management
C. HR information system (HRIS)
491
Which of the following is a key way to improve performance management systems? A. Avoiding formal reviews B. Soliciting user feedback C. Reducing performance expectations D. Eliminating appraisal documentation.
B. Soliciting user feedback
492
True or False: Performance appraisals only serve to determine salary increases.
False. Appraisals also provide feedback, identify developmental needs, and help allocate opportunities
493
True or False: Continuous performance feedback is more effective than only conducting annual appraisal.
True. Regular feedback helps employees improve in real-time and prevents surprises.
494
True or False: Good performance should only be rewarded with financial bonuses.
False. Verbal praise and recognition are also effective rewards.
495
True or False: Performance appraisals can be administered to both individuals and teams.
True. Appraisals may be conducted for individuals or groups, depending on the situation.
496
True or False: Feedback from casual observations can supplement formal performance appraisals.
True. Informal feedback helps reinforce or address performance between formal reviews.
497
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of performance appraisals? A. Providing feedback and counseling B. Planning developmental needs C. Allocating rewards and opportunities D. Creating job descriptions
D. Creating job descriptions
498
What is one reason some organizations are moving away from annual appraisals? A. They are too easy to complete B. They are less effective than continuous feedback C. They require no employee input D. They eliminate the need for coaching
B. They are less effective than continuous feedback
499
Which of the following is a benefit of effective performance appraisals? A. Promotes competition over teamwork B. Improves productivity through constructive feedback C. Eliminates the need for informal coaching D. Delays identifying training needs
B. Improves productivity through constructive feedback
500
How should performance feedback ideally be delivered? A. Only when mistakes are made B. Only during annual reviews C. Continuously throughout the year D. In large team meetings only
C. Continuously throughout the year
501
What should performance appraisal feedback ideally NOT be for employees? A. Encouraging B. Constructive C. A surprise D. Developmental
C. A surprise
502
True or False: The 360-degree approach to performance appraisal only includes feedback from the employee’s direct supervisor.
False. The 360-degree approach includes feedback from supervisors, peers, and subordinates.
503
True or False: The graphic scale is a category rating method that uses a numerical rating to evaluate performance.
True. It typically uses a scale such as 1 to 5 to rate performance tasks.
504
True or False: The checklist method requires appraisers to provide written comments for each performance category.
False. The checklist method involves checking prewritten statements that describe performance.
505
True or False: The forced choice method requires the appraiser to select statements that are both most like and least like the employee.
True. This method narrows bias by requiring specific comparisons.
506
True or False: Category rating methods are considered the most complex appraisal method.
False. Category rating methods are the least complex of the appraisal methods.
507
Which of the following is included in a 360-degree appraisal? A. Peers, subordinates, and supervisors B. Only customer evaluations C. Only HR professionals D. Executive board members
A) Peers, subordinates, and supervisors
508
What does a graphic scale typically measure? A. The cost-effectiveness of the team B. The employee’s potential for promotion C. The level of performance on a numerical scale D. The number of hours worked
C. The level of performance on a numerical scale
509
In the checklist method, what does the appraiser do? A. Write a paragraph about performance B. Check off statements that describe the employee’s performance C. Record weekly time logs D. Select employees for bonus eligibility
B. Check off statements that describe the empl
510
What distinguishes the forced choice method from the checklist method? A. It uses open-ended responses B. It measures leadership potential C. It requires the appraiser to choose both a most-like and least-like statement D. It is only used during onboarding
C. It requires the appraiser to choose both a most-like and least-like statement
511
Which of the following appraisal methods is least complex? A. 360-degree feedback B. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales C. Category rating methods D. Management by Objectives
C. Category rating methods
512
True or False: The ranking method involves placing employees into categories such as "exceeds expectations" or "needs improvement."
False. Ranking lists employees from best to worst in performance.
513
True or False: The paired-comparison method compares each employee against every other employee.
True. It allows one-on-one comparisons using a consistent scale.
514
True or False: The forced distribution method uses a bell curve to allocate performance ratings across a predetermined percentage of employees.
True. It forces ratings into set categories, such as top 10%, middle 70%, and bottom 20%.
515
True or False: A narrative essay method uses checkboxes to rate employee performance.
False. The essay method involves written descriptions of employee performance.
516
True or False: In the field review method, HR helps conduct the appraisal by interviewing the supervisor and compiling ratings.
True. HR and supervisors collaborate to create and finalize evaluations.
517
Which comparative method ranks employees from best to worst overall? A. Forced distribution B. Ranking C. Essay D. Critical incidents
B. Ranking
518
What is the benefit of the paired-comparison method? A. It simplifies the evaluation process B. It eliminates the need for documentation C. It uses a bell-shaped curve D. It offers more detailed comparisons between individual employees
D) It offers more detailed comparisons between individual employees
519
What does the forced distribution method require? A. Custom scoring per employee B. Open-ended comments C. Distributing employees into performance categories along a curve D. Ranking based on seniority
C. Distributing employees into performance categories along a curve
520
In which method does the appraiser write a descriptive summary of an employee’s performance? A. Paired-comparison B. Forced distribution C. Essay D. Ranking
C. Essay
521
Which narrative method involves logging significant positive or negative behaviors throughout the review period? A. Critical incidents B. Essay C. Field review D. Ranking
A) Critical incidents
522
In a field review, who compiles the performance ratings after interviewing the supervisor? A. The employee B. The department manager C. The HR professional D. The legal team
C. The HR professional
523
True or False: In Management by Objectives (MBO), goals are imposed on employees without their input.
False. MBO involves employee participation in setting goals that align with organizational objectives.
524
True or False: A key assumption of MBO is that employees perform better when they help plan their own goals.
True. MBO is built on the idea that involvement increases commitment and performance.
525
True. MBO is built on the idea that involvement increases commitment and performance.
False. BARS uses specific behavioral examples to define each rating level.
526
True or False: MBO requires that performance objectives be measurable and specify desired results.
True. MBO emphasizes clearly defined, measurable goals.
527
True or False: BARS helps reduce subjectivity by linking performance levels to observable behaviors.
True. BARS reduces bias by using anchored behavior descriptions.
528
What is a defining feature of the Management by Objectives (MBO) method? A. Employees set goals that align with organizational objectives B. Objectives are based on industry benchmarks C. Managers set all goals without employee input D. Goals are evaluated only once per year
A) Employees set goals that align with organizational objectives
529
Which of the following is an assumption of the MBO method? A. Employees are more engaged when performance reviews are skipped B. Employees will perform better with vague objectives C. Clearly defined objectives lead to better performance D. MBO works best without a strategic plan
C. Clearly defined objectives lead to better performance
530
What does the BARS method use to define different levels of performance? A. Employee preferences B. Length of service C. Observable behaviors D. Salary brackets
C. Observable behaviors
531
Which appraisal method was designed to reduce issues with traditional category rating methods? A. Ranking B. Forced distribution C. Checklist D. BARS
D) BARS
532
How does MBO help strengthen employee performance? A. By allowing employees to skip evaluations B. By requiring daily performance reports C. By encouraging goal-setting in alignment with strategy D. By relying on peer reviews
C. By encouraging goal-setting in alignment with strategy
533
True or False: The BARS method provides a clearer standard of performance by linking ratings to observable behaviors.
True. BARS uses behavior examples to clearly define rating levels
534
True or False: One advantage of the BARS method is that a single scale can be used for all jobs in an organization.
False. Different BARS must be developed for different job roles.
535
True or False: Developing a BARS system is quick and requires little effort.
False. It is time-consuming and requires significant effort to develop and maintain.
536
True or False: BARS offers more accurate and objective feedback than many traditional methods.
True. It reduces subjectivity through behavioral anchors.
537
True or False: The BARS method works best when employees perform highly individualized and unique tasks.
False. BARS is most effective when many employees perform the same tasks.
538
Which of the following is an advantage of the BARS method? A. It requires no training for managers B. It uses generic job descriptions C. It provides a more accurate gauge of performance D. It can be used for every job without modification
C. It provides a more accurate gauge of performance
539
Why is BARS not suitable as a “one-size-fits-all” method? A. It includes financial data B. It uses peer reviews exclusively C. It must be tailored to specific job roles D. It’s illegal in some states
C. It must be tailored to specific job roles
540
What is the first step in developing a BARS instrument? A. Develop performance dimensions B. Generate critical incidents C. Scale the incidents D. Administer the final instrument
B. Generate critical incidents
541
Which of the following is NOT a listed advantage of the BARS method? A. Clearer standards of performance B. Quick development process C. Independent dimensions D. Useful feedback
B. Quick development process
542
When does the BARS method work best? A. When tasks vary greatly across employees B. When performance is based on team output C. When many employees perform the same job functions D. When performance is self-assessed
C. When many employees perform the same job functions
543
Graphic scales Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages - Scales are simple to use and provide a quantitative rating for each employee. Disadvantages - Standards may be unclear.
544
Ranking Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages- Ranking is simple to use but not as simple as graphic scales. Disadvantages- Ranking can cause disagreements among employees and may be unfair if all employees are excellent.
545
Forced distribution Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages-Distribution forces a predetermined number of people into each group. Disadvantages- Appraisal results depend on the adequacy of the original choice of cutoff points.
546
Critical incidents Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages- Tool helps specify what is “right” and “wrong” about the employee’s performance; it forces the supervisor to evaluate subordinates on an ongoing basis. Disadvantages - It may be difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another.
547
MBO Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages- Tool is tied to jointly agreed-upon performance objectives. Disadvantages-Tool may be time-consuming to implement.
548
BARS Advantages Disadvantages
Advantages -Behavioral “anchors” are very accurate. Disadvantages- BARS may be difficult to develop.
549
True or False: Graphic scales are difficult to use and do not provide quantitative ratings.
True or False: Graphic scales are difficult to use and do not provide quantitative ratings.
550
True or False: A disadvantage of the ranking method is that it can be unfair if all employees perform well.
True. Ranking forces a relative comparison even when performance levels are similar.
551
True or False: Forced distribution methods ensure a fair appraisal by allowing flexible cutoffs.
False. Appraisal fairness in forced distribution depends on how well the cutoff points are selected.
552
True or False: A disadvantage of the critical incidents method is that it may not allow for easy comparison between employees.
True. It’s hard to rate or rank employees relative to each other using this method.
553
True or False: MBO is tied to performance objectives agreed upon by both manager and employee.
True. MBO encourages joint goal setting and performance evaluation.
554
True or False: A major drawback of BARS is that it is hard to use once developed.
False. BARS is accurate but may be difficult to develop initially.
555
Which appraisal tool provides a simple and quantitative way to rate employees? A. BARS B. Ranking C. Graphic scale D. Critical incidents
C. Graphic scale
556
What is a common disadvantage of the ranking method? A. It provides too much detail B. It is not allowed by law C. It may be unfair if all employees are excellent D. It is based on self-reports
C. It may be unfair if all employees are excellent
557
What is a potential risk of the forced distribution method? A. Employees aren’t rated at all B. Results rely on pre-set cutoff points C. It’s only suitable for team evaluations D. It eliminates the need for manager input
B. Results rely on pre-set cutoff points
558
Which appraisal method forces supervisors to evaluate employees on an ongoing basis? A. Ranking B. Critical incidents C. BARS D. Graphic scale
B. Critical incidents
559
Which appraisal tool is praised for its behavioral accuracy but is difficult to develop? A. MBO B. Graphic scales C. BARS D. Forced distribution
C. BARS
560
Which appraisal tool can be time-consuming to implement due to its reliance on goal-setting and follow-up? A. BARS B. MBO C. Graphic scales D. Critical incidents
B. MBO
561
True or False: The halo effect results in an employee being rated highly across all categories based on excellence in one area.
True. One strong area can positively skew all ratings.
562
True or False: The horn effect occurs when multiple weaknesses result in low ratings across all categories.
False. It occurs when one weakness causes an overall low rating.
563
True or False: Recency error gives undue weight to events that happened early in the review period.
False. Recency error gives too much weight to recent events.
564
True or False: Primacy error occurs when early performance overshadows more recent behavior.
True. It emphasizes initial impressions over recent performance.
565
True or False: Bias in appraisals can be both conscious and unconscious.
True. Bias can distort ratings regardless of intent.
566
True or False: Strictness errors occur when appraisers rate everyone unusually high.
False. Strictness leads to consistently low scores.
567
True or False: Leniency occurs when appraisers avoid giving low scores, inflating all ratings.
True. All employees receive high marks, regardless of performance.
568
True or False: Central tendency errors occur when appraisers cluster all ratings near the middle.
True. It minimizes differentiation between employees.
569
True or False: Contrast errors rate employees based on objective performance standards.
False. Contrast errors occur when comparisons to other employees distort ratings.
570
What is the halo effect in performance appraisals? A. Rating based on recent achievements only B. High ratings in all areas due to strength in one area C. Low ratings due to bias D. High ratings caused by peer influence
B. High ratings in all areas due to strength in one area
571
Which error occurs when an appraiser focuses too much on recent behavior? A. Recency B. Halo C. Primacy D. Leniency
A) Recency
572
What type of error occurs when early performance disproportionately affects the final rating? A. Recency B. Contrast C. Bias D. Primacy
D. Primacy
573
What does a strictness error lead to in performance ratings? A. High ratings for all B. Moderate ratings for all C. Unreasonably low ratings D. Ratings based on job titles
C. Unreasonably low ratings
574
If a manager gives every employee the same score regardless of performance, what error is being made? A. Leniency B. Bias C. Central tendency D. Primacy
C. Central tendency
575
Which of the following is an example of a contrast error? A. Giving an employee a high score based on their resume B. Comparing one employee’s performance to another’s instead of using standards C. Rating everyone as average D. Basing ratings on organizational goals
B. Comparing one employee’s performance to another’s instead of using standards
576
What happens when an appraiser lets personal beliefs affect ratings? A. Strictness error B. Recency effect C. Bias error D. Halo effect
C. Bias error
577
Which of the following best describes leniency error? A. Avoiding giving high scores B. Rating all employees in the middle C. Rating all employees high to avoid conflict D. Using behavior-based scales only
C. Rating all employees high to avoid conflict
578
True or False: Performance calibration is a process used to ensure performance appraisals are consistent and fair across managers.
True. It aligns expectations and reduces bias.
579
True or False: Calibration sessions should only take place after appraisals are completed.
False. Calibration can and should occur before appraisals to guide fair assessments.
580
True or False: Calibration is only useful in large organizations with multiple departments.
False. Calibration can be applied to any size team or function, including project teams.
581
True or False: One purpose of calibration is to prevent positive and negative bias in performance ratings.
True. It helps eliminate subjectivity by aligning criteria.
582
True or False: The nine-box grid is used to categorize job descriptions.
False. The nine-box grid is used to evaluate employee performance and potential for promotion
583
What is the main purpose of a performance calibration session? A. To update compensation packages B. To ensure consistency and fairness in appraisals C. To conduct employee exit interviews D. To finalize promotion decision
B. To ensure consistency and fairness in appraisals
584
When should performance calibration ideally take place? A. After bonuses are distributed B. After the final ratings are submitted C. Before appraisals are conducted D. During onboarding
C. Before appraisals are conducted
585
Which tool might benefit from calibration to define performance criteria? A. Employee handbook B. Time-tracking software C. Nine-box grid D. Job application form
C. Nine-box grid
586
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of performance calibration? A. Reduces rating bias B. Increases fairness C. Aligns performance standards D. Tracks employee attendance
D. Tracks employee attendance
587
Which group is typically involved in performance calibration sessions? A. New hires only B. External consultants C. Key managers D. Administrative assistants
C. Key managers
588
True or False: An effective appraisal meeting should only involve input from the supervisor.
False. Input from both the supervisor and the employee is essential.
589
True or False: One purpose of the appraisal meeting is to help the employee understand how they were rated and why.
True. Clear communication about ratings and rationale is a key part of the meeting.
590
True or False: After the appraisal discussion, the supervisor creates an improvement plan without the employee's input.
False. The improvement plan should be a joint effort between the appraiser and the employee.
591
True or False: The appraisal meeting should include a discussion about the employee’s training and development needs.
True. Development planning is a core purpose of the appraisal meeting.
592
True or False: Career goals and long-term aspirations should not be discussed during an appraisal meeting.
False. Career development and aspirations are part of a well-rounded appraisal discussion.
593
What is a primary goal of the performance appraisal meeting? A. To finalize payroll for the year B. To review attendance records C. To discuss performance, development needs, and future goals D. To assign new job titles
C. To discuss performance, development needs, and future goals
594
Which of the following must be agreed upon during the appraisal meeting? A. The employee’s parking space B. The appraisal ratings C. The department’s annual report D. Vacation scheduling
B. The appraisal ratings
595
What is the purpose of the performance improvement plan created during the appraisal meeting? A. To plan company events B. To identify employee strengths for public recognition C. To help the employee meet or exceed performance objectives D. To delegate managerial responsibilities
C. To help the employee meet or exceed performance objectives
596
What should the supervisor and employee do after setting performance objectives during the appraisal meeting? A. File the document with HR and never revisit it B. Create an implementation plan and schedule follow-up C. Submit a resignation letter D. Request an external audit
B. Create an implementation plan and schedule follow-up
597
What additional topic should be addressed during the appraisal meeting? A. Office design preferences B. Employee’s training and career development aspirations C. Company stock performance D. Supervisor’s leadership style.
B. Employee’s training and career development aspiration
598
True or False: Documentation is optional and not required for completing a performance appraisal.
False. Documentation is an essential part of completing the appraisal process.
599
True or False: Well-written performance documentation can help protect an organization in legal situations
True. Clear, specific documentation is critical in defending against legal claims.
600
True or False: Poorly written documentation can be more damaging than no documentation at all.
True. Inaccurate or vague records can weaken an employer’s legal defense.
601
True or False: Documentation should always be completed long after an incident has occurred to ensure accuracy.
False. Documentation should be written as close in time to the incident as possible.
602
True or False: Performance documentation is only useful for legal protection and not employee development.
False. Documentation also supports training and career development efforts.
603
Which of the following is most important for performance documentation? A. Specific, objective, and timely entries B. General impressions about the employee C. Handwritten notes on a sticky note D. Documentation completed only during annual reviews
A) Specific, objective, and timely entries
604
Why is poor documentation potentially harmful in legal disputes? A. It increases productivity B. It can undermine the credibility of the employer C. It ensures consistent policy application D. It provides too much detail
B. It can undermine the credibility of the employer
605
When should performance incidents ideally be documented? A. At the next quarterly meeting B. Immediately after they are discussed with the HR department C. As close to the incident as possible D. After the next round of appraisals
C. As close to the incident as possible
606
Besides legal protection, what is another benefit of good performance documentation? A. Reducing payroll taxes B. Improving employee performance and development C. Avoiding promotions D. Reducing onboarding time
B. Improving employee performance and development.
607
True or False: Employee engagement has no measurable connection to business outcomes like revenue or productivity.
False. Engagement is strongly linked to improved business outcomes, including productivity and net income.
608
True or False: A rising voluntary turnover rate may indicate a problem with employee engagement.
True. Higher voluntary turnover often reflects lower engagement levels.
609
True or False: The Net Promoter Score is an external metric that can be used to help assess employee engagement.
True. Net Promoter Scores provide insights into employee satisfaction and loyalty.
610
True or False: HR should avoid using wellness data when assessing engagement levels.
False. Wellness indicators are relevant since healthier employees are generally more engaged.
611
True or False: HR professionals play a key role in evaluating and acting on engagement metrics
True. HR is responsible for presenting the business case and driving engagement initiatives.
612
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the monthly voluntary turnover rate? A. Total separations ÷ total revenue × 100 B. Number of voluntary separations ÷ average number of employees × 100 C. Total employees ÷ total separations × 100 D. Total revenue ÷ voluntary separations
B. Number of voluntary separations ÷ average number of employees × 100
613
What does a decrease in revenue per employee potentially indicate? A. A drop in employee engagement B. The company is expanding C. More employees are taking vacation D. An increase in training sessions
A) A drop in employee engagement
614
Which of the following is an example of an employee wellness initiative that may enhance engagement? A. Mandatory overtime B. Yoga and treadmill desks C. Removing vacation days D. Increasing workloads
B. Yoga and treadmill desks
615
What is the most important metric for assessing the impact of employee engagement? A. Total headcount B. External satisfaction scores C. Impact on business outcomes D. Employee age distribution
C. Impact on business outcomes
616
Why should HR professionals track employee engagement metrics? A. To compare departments against competitors B. To prepare exit interviews C. To link engagement to organizational success and drive improvements D. To reduce the number of employee benefit
C. To link engagement to organizational success and drive improvements
617
True or False: Retention rate measures how many employees stayed employed from the beginning to the end of the measurement period.
True. It tracks those continuously employed during the entire period.
618
True or False: Employees hired during the measurement period should be included in the retention rate calculation.
False. Only employees employed on both the first and last day are counted.
619
True or False: Turnover rate and retention rate are calculated using the same formula.
False. They are calculated differently and measure different things.
620
True or False: The turnover rate helps organizations understand the percentage of separations over a certain time period.
True. Turnover rate shows employee exits as a percentage of the average workforce.
621
True or False: Retention metrics alone provide a full picture of workforce stability and movement.
False. Retention should be paired with turnover data for a complete view.
622
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating retention rate? A. Number of new hires ÷ total staff × 100 B. Employees who stayed the entire period ÷ employees at start of period × 100 C. Employees at end of period ÷ employees at start of period × 100 D. Number of exits ÷ average staff × 100
B. Employees who stayed the entire period ÷ employees at start of period × 100
623
If 2 out of 10 employees leave and are replaced during the year, what is the retention rate? A. 100% B. 20% C. 80% D. 0%
C. 80%
624
Why is it useful to track both turnover and retention rates? A. To reduce payroll taxes B. To confuse metrics and improve data security C. To eliminate onboarding programs D. To get a complete picture of employee movement
D) To get a complete picture of employee movement
625
What type of turnover does the turnover rate capture? A. Only retirements B. Only new hire performance C. All separations during the measurement period D. Only disciplinary actions
C. All separations during the measurement period
626
Which of the following is a drawback of using only the retention rate? A. It’s too complex to calculate B. It includes new hires in the measurement C. It doesn’t account for employees who join and leave during the period D. It counts only part-time employees
C. It doesn’t account for employees who join and leave during the period
627
True or False: The vacancy rate measures how quickly jobs are filled after a termination
False. It measures the percentage of job positions that remain vacant during a specific period.
628
True or False: Quality-of-hire metrics assess how well a new employee fits with the organization and performs post-hire.
True. These metrics focus on effectiveness, not just efficiency.
629
True or False: Exit interviews must be handled with cultural sensitivity and attention to local data privacy laws.
True. Legal and cultural factors vary globally and must be respected.
630
True or False: A retention audit can help identify specific employee groups experiencing high turnover.
True. Audits can reveal patterns that help target interventions.
631
True or False: Most organizations track all direct and indirect costs of employee turnover.
False. Many turnover costs are intangible, untracked, or difficult to quantify.
632
What does a high vacancy rate typically indicate? A. High onboarding satisfaction B. Low absenteeism C. Difficulty in retaining or replacing employees D. High employee performance
C. Difficulty in retaining or replacing employees
633
Which of the following is considered part of the quality-of-hire metric? A. Number of hours worked weekly B. Source of hire and cultural fit C. Age of the new hire D. Number of applications submitted
B. Source of hire and cultural fit
634
Which of the following would not typically be included in the costs of employee turnover? A. Customer dissatisfaction B. Training of new employees C. Productivity loss D. Employee birthday celebrations
D. Employee birthday celebrations
635
What is a potential drawback of exit interviews conducted in a global environment? A. Employees may demand bonuses during interviews B. Results may not align with financial audits C. Cultural norms may limit honest feedback D. Exit interviews are not legal in most countries
C. Cultural norms may limit honest feedback
636
Which of the following can help evaluate the effectiveness of onboarding programs? A. Formal and informal feedback from new hires B. Vacation days used in the first month C. Number of HR staff onboarded D. Sales department turnover only
A. Formal and informal feedback from new hires
637