EMS Guidelines Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

If aspirin was given since the onset of symptoms you may give up to _____ mg of aspirin

A

Up to 324mg of aspirin

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2
Q

Patients should only recieve ____ aspirin and not ______ aspirin

A

Chewable, enteric coated aspirin

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3
Q

If a patient took enteric coated aspirin you may give how much chewable aspirin?

A

324 mg

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4
Q

What are the two contraindications for aspirin?

A

NSAID allergy
Viral infections in children and teens

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5
Q

List five situations where aspirin may create an adverse reaction

A

Fever
Hypothermia
GI Bleed
Dysrhythmias
Hypotension

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6
Q

When obtaining HPI for a burn injury what four informational items should be obtained?

A

Type of exposure causing the burn (heat, gas, chemical)

Time of burn

Mechanism of injury

Location (indoor/outdoor, confined area)

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7
Q

If a burn surface area (BSA) is <10% what is the correct treatment for the burn

A

Apply a cool, moist dressing and prevent hypothermia

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8
Q

If burn surface area is >10% what is the correct treatment for the burn?

A

Use a dry burn sheet or dry sterile dressing

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9
Q

Provide the body surface area percentages for adults per burn guidelines

A

Head: 9%
Arms: 9% each
Chest & Back: 18% each
Groin: 1%
Legs: 18% each

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10
Q

Provide the body surface area percentages for pediatrics per burn guidelines

A

Head: 18%
Arms: 9% each
Chest & Back: 18% each
Groin: 1%
Legs: 13.5% each

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11
Q

Per the burn guideline, list the criteria identifying major burns

A

Partial thickness burns >25% BSA

Full thickness burns >10% BSA

Any full thickness burn to hands, face, eyes, ears, feet and perineum

Burns compromising circulation

Burns with evidence of respiratory involvement

Any burns involving high voltage electricity

Burns involving hydrofluoric acid

Burns associated with multi-system trauma

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12
Q

Per the burn guideline, list the criteria identifying moderate burns

A

Partial thickness burns 15-25% in adults

Partial thickness burns 10-20% in pediatrics

Full thickness burns <10% BSA

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13
Q

T/F with penetrating eye injuries or protruding foreign object eye injuries is examination of the eyes indicated

A

False this is contraindicated

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14
Q

With penetrating eye injuries what is the correct treatment?

A

Protect injured eye with a moist dressing and bulky padding without putting pressure on the injured eye

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15
Q

For protruding foreign body eye injuries what is the correct treatment?

A

Stabilize foreign body, cover with bulky padding and cover unaffected eye to prevent eye movement

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16
Q

For chemical eye injuries what is the correct treatment

A

Brush off any dry powders

Initiate copious irrigation and continue treatment while enroute to the hospital

17
Q

When should mace/pepper spray patients be transported to the hospital?

A

Shortness of breath

Prolonged visual impairment

18
Q

T/F for a patient to be eligible for ECMO they must meet ALL inclusion criteria and NONE of the exclusion criteria

19
Q

What is the inclusion criteria for ECMO

A

18-75 years old

Bystander CPR

Capno >10

Initial rhythm anything but asystole

Current rhythm VT / VF or PEA with cardiac activity on ultrasound

20
Q

What is the exclusion criteria for ECMO

A

Suspected significant co-morbidities

Likely respiratory arrest leading to cardiac arrest (hanging, strangulation, OD, trauma)

21
Q

When considering to transport an ECMO patient the time from collapse to arrival at hospital should be _____ minutes or less

22
Q

ECMO may be activated by AFR if the total patient downtime to the time of ECMO dispatch is less than _____ mins

23
Q

Where can ECMO patients be transported to?

A

UNMH or PRES DT

24
Q

Who is contacted to issue an “ECMO Alert”

25
The incidence of re-arrest after ROSC is estimated at _____ %
40%
26
T/F if your RCMO patient has ROSC it is appropriate to cancel ECMO-1 response
False, keep ECMO-1 coming because the incidence of re-arrest after ROSC is 40%
27
Generally the goal for determining an ECMO candidate is within _____ mins of arriving on-scene
5 minutes
28
T/F Hypothermic cardiac arrest has excellent outcomes with ECMO
True
29
For provider ECMO activation the time from patient collapse to time of ECMO dispatch must be less than ____ minutes
15 minutes
30
When on-scene of a cardiac arrest, patient eligibility for ECMO must be determined less than _____ minutes from patient contact
5 minutes
31
When a patient is an ECMO candidate an ECMO Alert is issued when the patient is less than _____ minutes from the time of collapse to hospital arrival at which two hospitals?
Max 30min time from collapse to hospital arrival UNMH or PDT
32
How should an eviseration be dressed?
Cover with clear sterile dressing
33
T/F an impailed object in the abdomen should be removed
False, impailed objects should be stabilized with bulky dressings
34
A crush injury is defined as a limb or body being pinned for >____ mins
30 minutes
35
For a crush injury what metabolic derangement should be considered?
Hyperkalemia
36
For crush injuries besides usual trauma stuff what else should be considered?
12-lead
37
What medication is needed to treat hyperkalemia in the context of crush injuries
Sodium bicarbonate