EMT 170

Question 1

If you recognize that conditions could be rapidly fatal for the patient, what should you consider?

Answer 1

Emergent removal

Question 2

What is the process of making a pathway through the wreckage of an accident and removing wreckage from patients?

Answer 2

disentanglement

Question 3

what is the mechanical entrapment that places a person in a confined space?

Answer 3

engulfment

Question 4

what is a device that provides nearly unlimited supply of air from a source located outside the confined space?

Answer 4

Supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA)

Question 5

What is an event for which immediately available resources are insufficient to manage the number of casualties?

Answer 5

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)

Question 6

What type of flotation device is an off-shore life jacket?

Answer 6

Type I

Question 7

What type of flotation device is a near-shore bouyant vest?

Answer 7

Type II

Question 8

What type of flotation device is a flotation aid?

Answer 8

Type III

Question 9

What type of flotation device is a throwable flotation ring?

Answer 9

Type VI

Question 10

EMS providers involved in rescue should have a minimum of what PPE?

Answer 10

Impact resistant helmet, safety goggles, puncture resistant coat and pants, slip resistant gloves, and steel toe boots

Question 11

What can EMS providers do, who are not trained in specialized rescue, in a rescue situation?

Answer 11

Assist the rescue team only if they can do so safely without entering the space

Question 12

What are potential complications of the SABA?

Answer 12

Equipment malfunction, damaged or entangled air lines, limitations imposed by length of the air hose.

Question 13

What is a universal framework designed to improve coordination and efficient control of emergency response operations and resources?

Answer 13

Incident Command System

Question 14

The person responsible for all incident activities, including the development of strategies and tactics and the ordering and release of resources?

Answer 14

Incident commander

Question 15

what is the section that is responsible for providing supplies and equipment, facilities, services, food and communications support?

Answer 15

logistics

Question 16

what is the section that directs and coordinates all emergency scene operations?

Answer 16

Operations section

Question 17

what is the section that is responsible for providing past, present and future information about the incident and the status of resources?

Answer 17

planning section

Question 18

what section is responsible for tracking costs and reimbursement?

Answer 18

finance/administration section

Question 19

which priority of the ICS is to the safety of the responders and the public?

Answer 19

Life safety

Question 20

which priority of ICS focuses on deciding strategies to minimize the effect of the incident on an area?

Answer 20

incident stability

Question 21

which ICS responsibility is for minimizing the damage to property and environment while achieving the incident objectives?

Answer 21

property conservation

Question 22

which triage system was developed as a national all-hazards mass-casualty initial triage standard for all patients?

Answer 22

SALT (sort, assess, lifesaving interventions, treatment/transport) triage

Question 23

which triage assessment is a 60 second assessment that focuses on the patient’s ability to walk, respiratory effort, pulses/perfusion, and mental status?

Answer 23

START triage

Question 24

Which system uses the international agreement on color coding and priorities to alert emergency care personnel and staff members of the receiving medical facility to the patient’s category?

Answer 24

METTAG system

Question 25

Which system uses four color triage coding cards that have military bar codes for tracking patients?

Answer 25

SMART tag system

Question 26

What is an obstruction that allows a current to flow through but can trap objects such as boats or people?

Answer 26

Strainers

Question 27

what type of flow obstruction can be commonly found in rivers and on low-head dams and often appear harmless at first glance?

Answer 27

Recirculating currents

Question 28

how high does fast moving water have to be to be considered unsafe?

Answer 28

knee-high in depth

Question 29

what is the temperature that water has to be at to induce hypothermia

Answer 29

less than 98 degrees

Question 30

how cold does water have to be for a person to be unable to maintain their body heat?

Answer 30

92 degrees F

Question 31

how long does someone have to be submerged in cold water for hypothermia to be a significant contributer to death?

Answer 31

30-60 minutes

Question 32

in cases of sudden immersion, what posture should the victim maintain to reduce heat loss?

Answer 32

a fetal position (heat escape lessening posture or HELP posture)

Question 33

what is also known as the cold-protective response?

Answer 33

mamallian diving reflex

Question 34

what factors go into considering rescue versus body recovery?

Answer 34

temperature of water, length of time, known or possible trauma, environmental conditions, victims age and physical condition, and time until rescure or removal is achieved

Question 35

in temperatures 41 degrees F or below, how long should resucitation be attempted?

Answer 35

90 minutes

Question 36

what is the recommended water rescue model?

Answer 36

reach, throw, row, go

Question 37

What is defined as any group of people who engage in socially disruptive or criminal behavior?

Answer 37

gang

Question 38

what is the most visible sign of gang criminal activity?

Answer 38

graffiti

Question 39

why would gangs attack an EMS personnel?

Answer 39

they often "look like" law enforcement

Question 40

what is a four-sided, diamond shaped sign displayed on hazardous materials containers that usually are yellow, orange, white, or green?

Answer 40

Placards

Question 41

what class are explosives?

Answer 41

class 1

Question 42

what class are gases?

Answer 42

class 2

Question 43

what class are flammable and combustible liquids?

Answer 43

class 3

Question 44

what class are flammable solids?

Answer 44

class 4

Question 45

what class are oxidizers and organic peroxides?

Answer 45

class 5

Question 46

what class are poisonous and infectious materials?

Answer 46

class 6

Question 47

what class are radioactive materials

Answer 47

class 7

Question 48

what class are corrosives?

Answer 48

class 8

Question 49

what class are miscellanious hazard materials?

Answer 49

class 9

Question 50

what is the weight of a material as compared with the weight of an equal volume of water?

Answer 50

specific gravity

Question 51

what is the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared witht he weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure?

Answer 51

vapor density

Question 52

what are paramedics required to do, according to NFPA 473, standard for competencies for EMS personnel responding to hazardous materials/weapons of mass destruction?

Answer 52

anazlyze the scene to determine potential health risks, deliver ALS to patients, and implement a prehospital treatment plan for patients who have been exposed, and begin care after appropriate decontamination

Question 53

which type of corrosive burns more extensively on human skin contact, and could possibly lead to liquefaction?

Answer 53

Strong bases (Alkalis)

Question 54

Which level of EPA protection provides the highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection?

Answer 54

level A

Question 55

Which EPA protection is used during the transport of contaminated patients?

Answer 55

Level C

Question 56

Which EPA level protection is typically worn by the decontamination team?

Answer 56

Level B

Question 57

what is the exposure to a hazardous substance that is harmful only to the person exposed and that poses little risk of exposure to others?

Answer 57

primary contamination

Question 58

what is the exposure to a hazardous substance whereby liquid and particulate substances are transferred easily to others by touching?

Answer 58

secondary contamination

Question 59

patient care in the hot zone are limited to what?

Answer 59

initial airway management and hemorrhage control

Question 60

when supporting mass contaminations, patient care provisions of airway, breathing, and circulatory support should begin when?

Answer 60

as soon as the patient is contacted and conditions allow.

Question 61

when decontaminating patients contaminated with dry agent, what should you be careful of?

Answer 61

introducing the agent into the patient's airway

Question 62

what chemical threat inhibits the effects of acetylcholinesterase, which causes a cholinergic "overdrive"?

Answer 62

Nerve Agents

Question 63

What are chemicals with highly irritating properties that produce fluid filled pockets on the skin and damage to the eyes lungs and other mucous membranes?

Answer 63

blister agents

Question 64

which poisonous gas can cause pulmonary edema to develop within 2-4 hours?

Answer 64

Chlorine gas

Question 65

which gas can kill you within 48 hours after exposure?

Answer 65

phosgene gas

Question 66

What factors would you consider calling an air ambulance?

Answer 66

time needed to transport, weather or road conditions, critical care personnel needed for treatment

Question 67

what is the ideal space requirement for a helicopter landing zone?

Answer 67

100x100

Question 68

what special consideration should be implemented with night time landing of helicopters?

Answer 68

emergency vehicles with lighted bar lights should be situated at the perimeter of the LZ

Question 69

when and how should you approach a helicopter?

Answer 69

when signaled by the pilot and crouched, approaching the nose

Question 70

What is also known as a "dirty nuke" or "dirty bomb"?

Answer 70

Radiologic dispersion device

Question 71

what would be something every first responder would need when responding to a radiologic dispersion device disaster

Answer 71

a radiation detection monitor

Question 72

what is the standard system for the identification of the hazards of materials for emerency response, that is maintained by the u.s. based national fire protection association?

Answer 72

NFPA 704

Question 73

which phase of rescue operations requires the paramedic to determine what is needed at a specific emergency event?

Answer 73

First phase: scene size up

Question 74

Which phase is the phase of rescue in which on scene dangers are quickly identified and managed by the first arriving crew?

Answer 74

Phase 2: Hazard control

Question 75

Which phase of rescue requires the rapid extrication to gain access to an ill or injured person?

Answer 75

Phase 3: Gaining access to the patient

Question 76

Which phase of rescue involves the paramedic performing a rapid primary survey to identify and manage any life threats?

Answer 76

Phase 4: Medical Treatment

Question 77

Which phase of rescue involves making a pathway through the wreckage of an incident and removing the wreckage from the patient?

Answer 77

Phase 5: Disentanglement

Question 78

Which phase of rescue involves stabilizing the patient physically and preparing the person for transport?

Answer 78

Phase 6: Patient packaging

Question 79

Which Phase of rescue involves moving the patient to the appropriate hospital

Answer 79

Phase 7: Transport

Question 80

What patient movement device is standard for rough-terrain evacuation?

Answer 80

Basket stretcher

Question 81

What equipment may be required for moving a patient over rough terrain?

Answer 81

load-lifting straps, anchors, and rope lowering/hauling systems

Question 82

how many rescuers are required to carry a litter across rough, flat terrain?

Answer 82

6, 4 to carry and 2 to scout potential hazards

Question 83

what machinery hazard is responsible for many farm injuries, such as amputations, severe lacerations, multiple fractures, spine and neck injuries, or complete body destruction, and is typically found on tractors or other farm machinery?

Answer 83

Power take-off

Question 84

What is the position called when the paramedics park the ambulance diagonally about 50 feet in front of the scene?

Answer 84

the fend off position

Question 85

when using lights and sirens, what does this indicate to other drivers?

Answer 85

a request for permission to proceed

Question 86

what percentage of ambulance crashes occur in intersections where ambulance proceeds against a red light?

Answer 86

43%-53%

Question 87

When proceeding against the flow of traffic in an ambulance, what should your max speed be?

Answer 87

less than 20 miles per hour

Question 88

what is the part of the vehicle that separates the engine and the occupant compartment?

Answer 88

firewall

Question 89

what is the part of the car designed to provide structural integrity to the vehicle and protection to the occupants during front-impatc and side-impact collisions?

Answer 89

door

Question 90

what should you try first when trying to gain access to a trapped victim in a car?

Answer 90

open all car doors

Question 91

what should be worn to improve safety of the paramedic during day and night time operations?

Answer 91

a fucking reflective belt (or a reflective striped clothing)

Question 92

what is designed into a car door to prevent it from opening during impact that could prove troublesome if engaged during a crash?

Answer 92

Nader pin/latch