EMT Exam Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
Depository of calcium unto smooth walls of muscle making it harder for smooth muscle to dilate and shrink. Function of aging.
A
Arteriosclerosis
2
Q
Plaque in smooth muscle. Due to diet and being sedentary.
A
Atherosclerosis
3
Q
Vital capacity
A
Maximum of air you can exhale
4
Q
What is the leading cause of trauma and death and disability in the elderly?
A
Falls
5
Q
Syncope in an elderly patient is ____ until proven otherwise
A
Cardiac
6
Q
An individual feels profoundly short of breath laying down and better sitting up
A
Orthopnea
7
Q
Presentation: Pulsating mass and sharp pain to the back
A
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
8
Q
Hip replacements in the elderly may lead to ____
A
Pulmonary embolism
9
Q
Proper treatment for foreign objects in the eye
A
- Do not remove objects embedded or impaled in the eye
- Moist sterile dressing
- Immobilize the object in place
- Covered the injured and uninjured eye
10
Q
Hemorrhage into the anterior chamber of the eye due to blunt trauma.
A
Hyphema
11
Q
Blunt trauma to eye where entire eye is filled with blood
A
Scleral hemorrhage
12
Q
Black eye
A
Periorbital ecchymosis
13
Q
Treatment for an extruded globe?
A
DO NOT insert eye into orbit
Use moist saline dressing with protective cup (both eyes)
14
Q
Treatment to chemical burns in eye?
A
Irrigate with saline for 20 minutes
Use dry dressing
15
Q
Treatment to thermal burns to the eye?
A
Cover both eyes with moist, saline dressing
16
Q
When you shine a light in one eye, the other eye should have the same reaction. This is called?
A
Consensual response
17
Q
What is the most sensitive indicator of brain injury?
A
Mental status
18
Q
Entities within the mediastinum?
A
Heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus
19
Q
What are you worried about with closed chest injuries?
A
Worried about the underlying structures
Fractures, penetrations, lacerations and ruptures
20
Q
With shock, hypotension is a (later/earlier) sign
A
Later
21
Q
When pain increases when you take a breath?
A
Pleuritic chest pain
22
Q
Blunt force rib fractures are very common in what population?
A
Elderly
23
Q
Two or more ribs are broken in two or more places. Results in paradoxical movement
A
Flail chest
24
Q
Accumulation of air in the pleural space. Signs involve unilateral breath sounds.
A
Pneumothorax
25
Treatment of a pneumothorax?
02 and transport
26
Penetration of chest wall so air is entering the chest cavity?
There may be bubbling at the site
Sucking chest wound
27
Treatment of a sucking chest wound?
Occlusive dressing (plastic wrap, petroleum gauze and tape on three sides)
02
Positioning (position of comfort, but if blood pressure is dropping the patient should be lateral recumbent on the affected side-so the good lung is not being compressed)
28
Position of a patient with a sucking chest wound with dropping BP?
The patient should be lateral recumbent on the affected side-so the good lung is not being compressed
29
Ongoing of air into hemithorax (lungs)-more air leaking in than out
Complete collapse of lung
Increased pressure in hemithorax
Tension pneumothorax
30
Unilateral breath sounds
Mediastinal shift leads to: tracheal deviation, JVD and narrowing pulse pressure
Hyperresonance
Tension pneumothorax
31
Treatment of tension pneumothorax?
O2
Position on affected side
"Burp" occlusive dressing
ALS
32
Blood in pleural space
Hemothorax
33
Blood and air in pleural space
Hemopneumothorax
34
Shock
| Hyporesonance
Hemothorax
35
Penetrating trauma to the chest with short eta will or will not be resuscitated?
Will be
36
____ and ____ involve pressure. Releasing the pressure will lead to heart pumping again. This is why injuries involving penetrating trauma to the chest will be resuscitated.
Tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade
37
Blood or fluid collect in pericardial sac
Pericardial tamponade
38
Beck's Triad is associated with
Pericardial tamponade
39
Beck's Triad
JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, muffled heart sounds
40
Treatment of pericardial tamponade
02, positioning, ALS, rapid transport
41
Circumferential chest injury or sudden severe compression of the chest. Sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure
Traumatic asphyxia
42
JVD, cyanosis of head and neck, scleral hemorrhage
Traumatic asphyxia
43
Treatment for traumatic asphyxia
Supportive, rapid transport
44
What is the only type of blunt force trauma to the chest that will be actively resuscitated? Why?
Cordis commotio
| It is an electrical problem, not a trauma problem
45
A myocardial contusion presents similarly to a ___
heart attack
46
Rupture of hollow organs leads to:
```
Leakage or bleeding
Peritoneal pain (intestine, bladder)
```
47
What is the most life threatening abdominal injury? What is the second?
1) Liver injury (upper right)
| 2) Spleen (upper left)
48
Solid organs
Kidneys, liver, spleen, pancreas, ovaries
49
Kehr's
Referred pain to left shoulder due to spleen injury
50
Treatment of penetrating abdominal injury
Inspect for entrance/exit wounds
Dry, sterile dressing (occlusive above umbilicus)
Stabilize impaled objects in space
Treat for shock
51
Internal organs protrude through wound
Abdominal evisceration
52
Treatment for abdominal evisceration
Do not re-insert
Sterile, saline moistened dressing
Bandage in place-side-so the good lung is not being compressed, occulsive dressing
53
Edema, ecchymosis to right flank
Upper abdomen, lower rib, lumbar back
Hematuria
Liver injury
54
Hematuria
Blood in urine
55
When are bladder injuries at the greatest risk>
When full?
56
Approaching a hazardous material incident
Uphill
Upwind
100' away
57
NFPA 704=
National Fire Protection Association
58
NFPA Colors: Red, Blue, Yellow, While
Red=Fire
Blue=Health
Yellow=Reactivity
White=Special (oxidizer, corrosive, water reactive)
59
Teams in a HazMat management situation
Entry (2 or more people)
Back up
Decontamination (in warm zone)
Rehab
60
SLUDGEM
```
Types of chemical (nerve) agents
Salivation
Lacrimation (tears)
Urination
Defecation
Gastric Upset
Emesis (vomiting)
Myosis (pinpoint pupils)
```
61
Vector=
Vehicle (for disease or biological agent)
62
SALT
Sort
Assess
Life Saving Interventions
Transport
63
What is the national protocol for the response to a Multiple Causality Incident
National Incident Management System
64
METHANE
```
Major Incident
Exact Location
Type of Incident
Hazards
Access
Number of Patients
Emergency Services Needed
```
65
What is the only type of treatment acceptable during tagging in a MCI?
Airway maneuvers and tourniquets
66
Approach helicopters from _ to_ o'clock
| Landing sites should be ___' x_____'
9, 3
| 100, 100
67
P wave
Atrial depolarization
Atrial contraction
SA node firing
68
QRS
Ventricular contraction
| Ventricular depolarization
69
T wave
Ventricles resetting
| Ventricular re-polarization
70
Blood vessels that sprout to help with narrowing of the artery as a supplement
Collateral circulation
71
Coronary arteries fill during (systole/diastole)
Diastole
| It is a passive process
72
Reduction of O2 to the heart that causes it to change its metabolism
Ischemia
73
Cardiac Output=
Stroke volume (SV) x Heart Rate (HR)
74
Stoke Volume
Amount of blood you push out with each squeeze
75
Cardiac Output
Blood coming out of the heart per minute
76
Tissue that dies as a result of poor oxygenation
Infarction
77
Chest pain associated with angina is:
Pressure
Radiating (may or may not)
Rarely > 15 minutes
Non-reproducible
78
Myocardial Infarction
Heart attack; obstruction of blood flow through coronary arteries
79
Myocardial infarction usually occurs in the ___
Left ventricle
80
Chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction is:
Pressure
Radiating (may or may not)
>20 minutes
Non-reproducible
81
In diabetics, what is considered to be a sign of a silent myocardial infarction?
New onset weakness plus normal (?) glucose level
82
Why do diabetics experience silent myocardial infractions?
Neuropathy-nerve damage
83
What is a sign of a myocardial infarction in an elderly patient? Why do elderly patients not always experience the classic chest pain when it comes to myocardial infractions?
Dyspnea upon exertion
Syncope
Neuropathways do not conduct as well
84
Cardiogenic shock vitals signs due to left ventricular failure
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Orthopnea (uncomfortable if lay flat)
Hypotension
85
Cardiogenic shock vitals due to conductivity issues
Bradycardia
Tachypnea, clear
Normotensive (b/c LV is still pumping fine)
86
S/S associated with cardiogenic shock due to LV failure
```
Rales
Pink frothy sputum
JVD
CHF
Anxiety, restlessness, pale, cool clammy
```
87
S/S associated with cardiogenic shock due to conductivity issues
Syncope
| Anxiety, restless, pale cool, clammy
88
Treatment of Angina/AMI
Position of comfort
O2 if dyspneic/02 saturation <94%
Baby aspirin/maybe nitro (if prescribed)
ALS
89
S/S of CHF
```
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Hypertension
Agitation, anxiety
SOB
Maybe/maybe not chest pain (fullness)
```
90
What is the difference between left ventricular MI and left sided failure CHF?
Vital signs
CHF-blood pressure is high
LV MI-blood pressure is low
91
#1 cause of righted sided failure is ___
left sided failure
92
S/S of left sided failure CHF
```
Orthopnea
Rales, pink frothy sputum
JVD and/or peripheral edema
Anxiety, restless
Pale, cool, clammy
```
93
S/S of right sided failure CHF
JVD
Peripheral edema
Anxiety, restless
94
CHF Treatment
Position of comfort-upright
Apply high flow O2
If chest pain-baby aspirin, nitro if appropriate
ALS
95
Five rights of medications
Right medication, patient, dose, time, route
96
S/S of a thoracic aortic aneurysm-chest pain
Sudden tearing chest pain
| Radiating into back
97
S/S of a thoracic aortic aneurysm-vital signs
Unequal radial pulses (hallmark sign is radial pulse in left arm is noticeably weaker than the right radial pulse)
Disparate BP's
Hypovolemia
98
Hypertensive crisis
Sudden rapid severe increase in your blood pressure
SBP>160
DBP>94
99
S/s of a hypertensive crisis
Headache, nosebleed, chest pain, bounding pulse, stroke, seizures, encephalopathy, end organ damage (kidneys)
100
Orthostatic vital signs
Major change in vital signs sitting to standing
101
Shockable rhythms for AED
Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia
102
Mandated reporting of abuse/neglect of what populations?
Elder and child
103
MOLST
Medical Order for Life Sustaining Treatment
104
Manner in which an EMT must act or behave.
Standard of Care
105
The standard of care is determined by:
```
EMS Standard curriculum
Law-statues, ordinances, administrative guidelines, case law, state wide protocols
The situation
Professional or institutional standards
Imposed by local custom
```
106
Scope of practice
Rules, regulations and duties that legally define the role of a practitioner
107
Some rules and regulations that guide an EMT's scope of practice
National Scope of Practice Model (Federal government)
State law
Medical director
108
Standard of Care
The conduct of a reasonably prudent person with similar training and experience in similar circumstances
109
Negligence
Duty to act
Breach of duty
Injury
Causation
110
Termination of patient care without their consent
| Termination of car without provisions for continued care
Abandonment
111
What position is best for shock?
Trebdelenberg position-shock position-elevate legs above head
112
How many bones in the body?
206
113
```
Amount of vertebrae"
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccyx
```
```
C=C1-C7
T=T1-T12
L=L1-L5
S=S1-S5
Co=4 fused tailbone
```
114
Flexion
To bend
115
Extension
Antagonistic motion to flexion
116
Away from midline
Abduction
117
Toward the midline
Adduction
118
2 or more bones articulate
Joint
119
Muscle to bone
Tendon
120
Attach bone to bone
Ligaments
121
Movement of CO2 and O2 across cell membranes
Respiration
122
Where does the lower airway start?
Larynx-superior part being the epiglottis
123
____ respiration requires 02
Aerobic
124
Normal Respiratory Rates: Adults, children, infants
12-20
15-30
25-50
125
What is a pulse?
Forceful pumping of blood out of the heart
126
What is blood pressure?
Amount of force exerted against walls of arteries
Systole: Cardiac muscle contracts
Diastole: Cardiac muscles relaxes
127
Normal heart rates: Adults, children, infants
60-100
80-100
100-140
128
Cell metabolism
Glu+02->energy+CO2+H2O
129
Anaerobic respiration output:
Lactic acid
130
Fixed location
| Transmitter and receiver
Base station
131
Who has jurisdiction over radio operations
FCC
132
Responsible for:
Disaster network (learning hospital capabilities and communication)
Medical control
Hospital notification/consultation
CMED
133
The "Patch" includes:
```
Confirm on line
Unit ID and ETA
Age and Gender
Chief compliant
HPI
PMH, meds, allergies
PE with VS
Treatment rendered
```
134
SBAR
```
Medical control consult:
Situation (Unit ID, ETA, chief compliant)
Background (HPI, PMH, meds)
Assessment (PE, VS)
Recommendation (Treatment requested)
```
