EMT Practice Test 1 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
A) a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
B) a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
C) a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients.
D) a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients.
A
B) a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
2
Q
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
A) oral glucose for hypoglycemia
B) AED
C) intranasal medication administration
D) use of a manually triggered ventilator
A
B) AED
3
Q
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
A) An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.
B) Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
C) A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.
D) An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
A
D) An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
4
Q
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
B) demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.
C) ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
D) reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
A
A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
5
Q
Determination of exposure is an important component infection control plan because it:
A) determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur.
B) determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace.
C) defines who is mot likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace.
D) defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.
A
D) defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.
6
Q
- Physiologic manifestations of stress include:
A) flushed skin, decreased muscle control, and vomiting.
B) slow heart rate, low blood pressure, and severe headaches.
C) perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.
D) increased blood pressure, decreased blood glucose levels, and chest pain.
A
C) perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.
7
Q
- Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel:
A) relieved.
B) superior.
C) hopeful.
D) shamed.
A
D) shamed.
8
Q
- You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should:
A) tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMTs.
B) immediately tell her of his death so that she may grieve.
C) let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.
D) avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries.
A
C) let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.
9
Q
- You are treating a man with a closed head injury following an assault by a burglar. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should:
A) ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital.
B) allow him to refuse treatment since the injury was not his fault.
C) proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary.
D) have the police arrest him so that you can legally begin treatment.
A
C) proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary.
10
Q
- Your BEST protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to:
A) advise medical control of the situation.
B) err on the side of caution and transport.
C) ensure that the family is aware of the risks.
D) thoroughly document the entire event.
A
D) thoroughly document the entire event.
11
Q
- You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
A) stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.
B) ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response.
C) request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
D) have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
A
D) have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
12
Q
- Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
B) An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.
C) A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.
D) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
A
A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
13
Q
- The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:
A) gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility.
B) notifies the admitting clerk of their arrival at the hospital.
C) informs dispatch of their arrival at the emergency department.
D) gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.
A
D) gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.
14
Q
- After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient’s last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:
A) draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.
B) attempt to erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum.
C) cover the error with correction fluid and simply write the patient’s actual blood pressure over it.
D) leave the error on your PCR but inform the staff of the patient’s actual blood pressure.
A
A) draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.
15
Q
- A patient’s refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
A) an informed refusal.
B) authorized by a judge.
C) reported to the police.
D) witnessed by a notary.
A
A) an informed refusal.
16
Q
- What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
A) scanner
B) duplex station
C) simplex station
D) mobile repeater
A
A) scanner
17
Q
- The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.
A) midline
B) proximal
C) superior
D) midaxillary
A
A) midline
18
Q
- Relative to the kidneys, the liver is:
A) medial.
B) dorsal.
C) unilateral.
D) posterior.
A
C) unilateral.
19
Q
- What layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body?
A) epidermis
B) subcutaneous
C) dermal
D) sebaceous
A
B) subcutaneous
20
Q
- The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they:
A) are protected by the anterior rib cage.
B) are located behind the abdominal cavity.
C) sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach.
D) lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.
A
B) are located behind the abdominal cavity.
21
Q
- Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
A) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
B) an infant’s ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
C) their intercostal muscles are not functional.
D) their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.
A
A) their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
22
Q
- The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
A) 18 and 22 years.
B) 19 and 25 years.
C) 21 and 30 years.
D) 25 and 35 years.
A
B) 19 and 25 years.
23
Q
- In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
A) remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution.
B) decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.
C) increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
D) decreases, which
A
C) increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
24
Q
- Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
A) decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
B) decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
C) increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
D) decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
A
B) decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
25
25. The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.
A) type
B) form
C) class
D) name
B) form
26
26. A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
A) check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
B) contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.
C) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
D) administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
C) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
27
27. When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin:
A) relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.
B) increases myocardial contraction force.
C) increases blood return to the right atrium.
D) constricts the veins throughout the body.
A) relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.
28
28. With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.
A) 14%
B) 24%
C) 34%
D) 44%
D) 44%
29
29. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
A) at a normal rate.
B) with shallow depth.
C) without difficulty.
D) without assistance.
D) without assistance.
30
30. You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is “sick.” When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to:
A) apply a pulse oximeter.
B) request a paramedic unit.
C) provide assisted ventilation.
D) assess his blood pressure.
C) provide assisted ventilation.
31
31. Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
A) The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.
B) Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.
C) Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.
D) Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
D) Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
32
32. When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to:
A) wiggle his or her toes on command.
B) feel you touching the extremity.
C) note any changes in temperature.
D) identify different types of stimuli.
A) wiggle his or her toes on command.
33
33. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
A) anxiety
B) cyanosis
C) tachycardia
D) restlessness
B) cyanosis
34
34. Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?
A) a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume
B) a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
C) a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations
D) a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations
B) a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
35
35. The main advantage of the Venturi mask is:
A) the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient.
B) the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
C) that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered.
D) the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.
B) the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
36
36. A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
A) administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B) insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases.
C) perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment.
D) assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.
A) administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
37
37. Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
A) severe vomiting
B) liver laceration
C) excessive sweating
D) repeated diarrhea
B) liver laceration
38
38. Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cool and clammy skin.
B) absent peripheral pulses.
C) restlessness or anxiety.
D) rapid, shallow breathing.
B) absent peripheral pulses.
39
39. All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) heart attack.
C) severe infection.
D) tachycardia.
D) tachycardia.
40
40. A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
A) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head.
B) assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities.
C) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs.
D) assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.
B) assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities.
41
41. An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of _______ times per minute.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
C) 20
42
42. The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:
A) one third the diameter of the chest or about 1Ω“.
B) one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest.
C) one half the diameter of the chest or about 1Ω.
D) two thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2.
A) one third the diameter of the chest or about 1Ω“.
43
43. What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?
A) 3:1
B) 5:1
C) 30:2
D) 15:2
D) 15:2
44
44. When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
A) until a radial pulse is felt.
B) with one or two hands.
C) to a depth of 1 to 2.
D) 70 to 80 times per minute.
B) with one or two hands.
45
45. Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
A) perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
B) assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
C) retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
D) administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
D) administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
46
46. The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
A) should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
B) should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
C) is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
D) is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.
C) is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
47
47. A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should:
A) assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse.
B) advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low.
C) immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive.
D) conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.
A) assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse.
48
48. Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct?
A) SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure.
B) Most cases of SARS are caused by a bacterium that is spread from person to person via direct contact with infected blood.
C) SARS is caused by a virus that occurs naturally in the bird population, although it usually does not cause illness in humans.
D) Although SARS can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, it rarely causes death, even in immunocompromised patients.
A) SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure.
49
49. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
A) alveoli
B) trachea
C) bronchi
D) capillaries
A) alveoli
50
50. The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by:
A) repeated exposure to cigarette smoke.
B) chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
C) massive constriction of the bronchioles.
D) acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.
B) chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
51
51. A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations:
A) slow and deep.
B) deep and rapid.
C) slow and shallow.
D) rapid and shallow.
B) deep and rapid.
52
52. Albuterol is a generic name for:
A) Alupent.
B) Atrovent.
C) Proventil.
D) Singulair.
C) Proventil.
53
53. Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm?
A) sinus tachycardia
B) sinus bradycardia
C) extra ventricular beats
D) ventricular tachycardia
D) ventricular tachycardia
54
54. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure?
A) hypertension and tachycardia
B) hypotension and flat jugular veins
C) the presence of rales in the lungs
D) trouble breathing while lying down
B) hypotension and flat jugular veins
55
55. Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
B) three
56
56. You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to:
A) assess the effectiveness of the bystanders' CPR.
B) quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.
C) have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient.
D) request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
C) have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient.
57
57. Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) brain stem.
D) cerebral cortex.
B) cerebellum.
58
58. Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure?
A) a seizure that begins in one extremity
B) a seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly
C) a seizure that is not preceded by an aura
D) a generalized seizure without incontinence
A) a seizure that begins in one extremity
59
59. You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes carbamazepine (Tegretol). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to:
A) determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser.
B) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.
C) determine when he was last seen by his physician.
D) ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication.
B) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.
60
60. You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen, you should:
A) administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.
B) place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.
C) monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
D) give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.
C) monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
61
61. Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
A) liver
B) kidney
C) spleen
D) pancreas
C) spleen
62
62. A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain?
A) liver
B) kidney
C) pancreas
D) gallbladder
B) kidney
63
63. Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
A) the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood
B) symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C) sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants
D) burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating
D) burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating
64
64. A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood ressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A) protect her airway from aspiration.
B) keep her supine and elevate her legs.
C) rapidly transport her to the hospital.
D) give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.
A) protect her airway from aspiration.
65
65. Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient:
A) takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
B) markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.
C) eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.
D) misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.
A) takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
66
66. A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive and not breathing. You should:
A) assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.
B) open her airway and deliver two rescue breaths.
C) check for a carotid pulse for no longer than 10 seconds.
D) administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.
C) check for a carotid pulse for no longer than 10 seconds.
67
67. To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
A) an unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
B) a conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
C) a semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
D) a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
D) a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
68
68. A 30-year-old female presents with severe acute pain to the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. During your assessment, she tells you that she has sickle cell disease. You should suspect that:
A) her spleen is enlarged because of red blood cell engorgement.
B) the pain in her abdomen is referred pain from an enlarged liver.
C) she has gastrointestinal bleeding due to large blood vessel rupture
.
D) she is experiencing an aplastic crisis and needs a blood transfusion.
A) her spleen is enlarged because of red blood cell engorgement.
69
69. Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?
A) Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.
B) Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis.
C) Fire ant bites typically occur on the face.
D) Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.
A) Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.
70
70. A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has severely labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should:
A) perform a detailed secondary assessment.
B) maintain his airway and assist his ventilations.
C) ask his wife if he has any known allergies.
D) apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) in the event that cardiac arrest occurs.
B) maintain his airway and assist his ventilations.
71
71. Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) abdominal cramps.
B) drying of the eyes.
C) flushing of the skin.
D) persistent dry cough.
B) drying of the eyes.
72
72. Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:
A) properly dispose of the syringe.
B) record the time and dose given.
C) reassess the patient's vital signs.
D) notify medical control of your action.
A) properly dispose of the syringe.
73
73. The MOST commonly abused drug in the United States is:
A) cocaine.
B) alcohol.
C) codeine.
D) marijuana.
B) alcohol.
74
74. A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing:
A) acute hypovolemia.
B) alcohol intoxication.
C) acute schizophrenia.
D) DTs.
D) DTs.
75
75. Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?
A) Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.
B) Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.
C) The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning.
D) The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
D) The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
76
76. A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your initial assessment of the child, you should:
A) administer 25 g of activated charcoal.
B) induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac.
C) contact the regional poison control center.
D) immediately transport the child to the hospital.
C) contact the regional poison control center.
77
77. Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as:
A) bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
B) a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
C) a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an
organ.
D) a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow.
B) a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
78
78. A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should:
A) approach the patient with caution.
B) quickly tend to the bleeding wound.
C) tell the patient that you want to help.
D) calmly identify yourself to the patient.
D) calmly identify yourself to the patient.
79
79. Signs of agitated delirium include:
A) pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.
B) diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
C) slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever.
D) subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts.
B) diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
80
80. A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to:
A) try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too.
B) request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital.
C) restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.
D) approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder.
C) restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.
81
81. Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:
A) vagina.
B) uterus.
C) cervix.
D) fallopian tube.
D) fallopian tube.
82
82. Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with PID?
A) left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever
B) pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness
C) upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding
D) lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
D) lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
83
83. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated?
A) chlamydia
B) ovarian cysts
C) genital herpes
D) ectopic pregnancy
A) chlamydia
84
84. When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:
A) only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses.
B) translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical terminology.
C) record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement.
D) keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
D) keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
85
85. Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?
A) flail chest
B) aortic rupture
C) extremity fractures
D) forehead lacerations
B) aortic rupture
86
86. A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
A) is wearing only a lap belt.
B) remains within the vehicle.
C) experiences multiple impacts.
D) is ejected or partially ejected.
D) is ejected or partially ejected.
87
87. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:
A) capitation.
B) cavitation.
C) congruent.
D) conversion.
B) cavitation.
88
88. While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for:
A) underlying cardiac disease.
B) a lacerated coronary artery.
C) bruising of the heart muscle.
D) traumatic rupture of the aorta.
C) bruising of the heart muscle.
89
89. Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
A) an effectively pumping heart
B) an intact system of blood vessels
C) adequate blood in the vasculature
D) the filtering of blood cells in the spleen
D) the filtering of blood cells in the spleen
90
90. The systemic veins function by:
A) returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
B) delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries.
C) returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium.
D) delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries.
A) returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
91
91. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the:
A) effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.
B) ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.
C) effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells.
D) circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
D) circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
92
92. Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
D) 20%
93
93. The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is:
A) a lack of pain despite the severity of the injury.
B) extreme redness to the injury site.
C) a bounding pulse distal to the injury.
D) pain out of proportion to the injury.
D) pain out of proportion to the injury.
94
94. Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct?
A) Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate.
B) The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only.
C) Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia.
D) Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.
D) Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.
95
95. In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause damage:
A) an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient.
B) a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground.
C) the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry.
D) the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.
B) a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground.
96
96. You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:
A) remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.
B) carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside.
C) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
D) remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.
C) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
97
97. The skin and underlying tissues of the face:
A) have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
B) swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma.
C) are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.
D) contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers.
A) have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
98
98. A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:
A) carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed.
B) avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
C) ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.
D) apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.
B) avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
99
99. A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:
A) leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water.
B) remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.
C) leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing.
D) carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.
D) carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.
100
100. A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:
A) use tweezers to try to remove the object.
B) remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.
C) transport her to the emergency department.
D) thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.
C) transport her to the emergency department.
