En Route Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
Define MEA
A
Minimum En Route Altitude
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements
2
Q
Define MOCA
A
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airways routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements and ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 SM (22 NM) of a VOR
3
Q
Define MCA
A
Minimum Crossing Altitude
Lowest altitude at certain fixes at which AC must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA
4
Q
Define MRA
A
Minimum Reception Altitude
The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined
5
Q
Define MAA
A
Maximum Authorized Altitude
Maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or a route segment that ensures adequate reception of navigation aid signals
6
Q
Define OROCA
A
Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the US. This altitude might not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or comms coverage.
7
Q
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR ops?
A
A. Mountainous terrain: At least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Part 95 designates the location of mountainous terrain
B. Other than mountainous terrain: At least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown
8
Q
What cruising altitudes shall be maintained while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E)? In uncontrolled airspace (Class G)?
A
IFR flights within controlled airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. In uncontrolled airspace, altitude is selected based on magnetic course flown.
A. Below 18,000 feet MSL:
- 0-179 degrees: Odd thousand MSL - 180-359 degrees: Even thousand MSL
B. 18,000 feet up to but not including 29,000 feet MSL:
- 0-179 degrees: Odd flight levels - 180-359 degrees: Even flight levels
9
Q
What procedures are applicable concerning courses to be flown when operating IFR?
A
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no one may operate an AC in controlled airspace under IFR except on an air traffic route, along the centerline of that airway, or on any other route along the direct course between the NAVAIDs or fixes defining the route. However, this does not prohibit maneuvering the AC to pass well clear of other air traffic, or maneuvering in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or decent
10
Q
On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?
A
For flights along the direct route, regardless of the altitude or flight level being flown, including flights operating IAW an ATC clearance specifying “VFR-On-Top”, pilots must report over each reporting point used in the flight plan to define the route of flight.
11
Q
What are “unpublished” RNAV routes?
A
Direct routes based on area navigation capability, between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at a specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes, except for GNSS-equipped AC cleared via filed published waypoints recallable from the AC’s navigation database.
12
Q
What reports should be made to ATC without a specific request (radar or non-radar)?
A
Missed approach: Request clearance for specific action, such as another approach, alternate, etc.
Airspeed change; change in average KTAS at cruising altitude of 5%/10 knots, whichever is greater
Reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared; report time and altitude or flight level
Vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level
ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes (non-radar)
Leaving assigned holding fix or point
Outer marker inbound or fix used in lieu of OM (non-radar)
Unforecast weather
Safety of flight comprimised
VFR on Top, when any altitude change is made
Final approach fix inbound (non-radar)
Radio malfunction
Compulsory reporting points (non-radar)
500 FPM - unable to climb/descend 500 FPM
13
Q
What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?
A
A. When leaving final approach fix inbound on the final (non-precision) approach, or when leaving the OM (or fix used in lieu of the OM) inbound on final (precision) approach.
B. A corrected estimate at anytime it becomes apparent that an estimate previously submitted is in error in excess of 2 minutes. For flights in North Atlantic, a revised estimate is required if the error is 3 minutes or more.
14
Q
What items of information should be included in every position report?
A
A. Identification B. Position C. Time D. Altitude or flight level E. Type of flight plan (not required in IFR position reports made directly to ARTCCs or approach control) F. ETA and name of next reporting point G. The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight, and H. Pertinent remarks
15
Q
When used in conjunction with ATC altitude assignments, what does the term “pilot’s discretion” mean?
A
Means that ATC has offered the option of starting climb/decent whenever they wish and conducting the climb/descent at any rate they wish. The pilot may temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude. However, after vacating an altitude, the pilot may not return to that altitude.
16
Q
Explain the terms “maintain” and “cruise” as they pertain to an IFR assigned altitude assignment
A
A. Maintain: Maintain last altitude assigned
B. Cruise: Assign a block of airspace to a pilot, fro minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the cruise clearance. Pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude, and the climb/descent may be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts a descent, and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, He may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.
17
Q
Can ATC issue a cruise clearance that authorizes you to proceed to and execute an approach at the destination airport without an operating control tower?
A
Yes
ATC may issue a cruise clearance that authorizes you to execute an approach upon arrival at your destination airport. When operating in uncontrolled airspace on a cruise clearance, you are responsible for determining the minimum IFR altitude. In addition, descent and landing at an airport in uncontrolled airspace are governed by applicable VFR and/or ops specs.
18
Q
Why would a pilot request VFR-On-Top clearance?
A
A pilot on an IFR flight plan operating in VFR, may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. For reasons such as turbulence, more favorable winds aloft, etc. pilot has the flexibility to select an altitude (subject to ATC restrictions). Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke etc. and either cancel their IFR or operate VFR-On-Top may request a climb to VFR-On-Top.
ATC authorization must contain either a top report or a statement that no top is available, and a request to report reaching VFR-On-Top. Clearance may include a clearance limit, routing, and an alternative clearance.
19
Q
Does an ATC authorization to “maintain VFR-On-Top” restrict you to only operating on top or above the cloud layer?
A
Not intended to restrict pilots so that they must operate only above an obscuring meteorological formation. Instead, it permits operation above, below, and between cloud layers, or in areas where there is no obscuration. It is imperative, however, that pilots understand that clearance to operate VFR-On-Top does not imply cancellation of IFR flight plan.
20
Q
Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top?
A
Class A
21
Q
What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?
A
A. Fly at appropriate VFR altitude
B. Comply with VFR visibility and distance from clouds
C. Comply with IFR flight rules that are applicable to this flight
1. Minimum IFR altitudes
2. Position reporting
3. Comms
4. Course to be flown, etc
22
Q
What is a “clearance limit” and when is it received?
A
A traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize flight to the airport of intended landing. Under certain conditions, at some locations, a short range clearance procedure is used, whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area, and pilots are advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the center controller.
23
Q
What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?
A
An ATC clearance requiring an AC to hold at a fix where the pattern is not charted will include the following:
A. Direction of holding from the fix, in reference to the eight cardinal compass points
B. Holding fix (the fix may be omitted if included at the beginning of the transmission as the clearance
limit)
C. Radial, course, bearing, airway, or route on which the AC is to hold
D. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used
E. Direction of turns, if nonstandard
F. Time to expect further clearance and any pertinent additional delay info
24
Q
What are the max airspeeds permitted for the AC while holding?
A
MHA to 6,000 feet: 200 KIAS
6,001 to 14,000 feet: 230 KIAS
14,001 and above: 265 KIAS
25
What is a non-standard versus a standard holding pattern?
Standard pattern: Right turns
| Non-standard: Left turns
26
Describe the procedure for crosswind correction in a holding pattern?
Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments
27
What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed?
Start airspeed reduction when 3 minutes or less from the fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of the change.
28
Why is it important for the pilot to receive an EFC time with initial holding instructions?
If comms are lost, the EFC time allows you to depart the holding fix at a definite time. Plan the last lap of your holding pattern to leave the fix as close as possible to the exact time.
29
Describe the different entry methods for holding
A. Direct
B. Teardrop
C. Parallel
30
What is the length of the leg for a standard holding pattern?
A. 1 minute inbound at or below 14,000 feet MSL, and
| B. 1.5 minutes inbound above 14,000 feet MSL
31
If assigned, a DME/GPS hold, what procedures should be used?
DME/GPS Along Track Distance equipment holding is subject to the same entry and holding procedures except that distances are used in lieu of time values. The outbound course of the DME/GPS holding pattern is called the outbound leg of the pattern. The controller or IAP chart will specify length of the outbound leg. The end of the outbound leg is determined by the DME or ATD readout.
32
When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern being?
Over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound leg is completed.
33
The distance information indicated by your DME is different from that indicated on the GPS. Why?
DME signals are line-of-sight; the mileage readout is the straight line distance from the AC to the DME ground facility and is commonly referred to as slant range distance. GPS systems provide distance as a horizontal measurement from the waypoint to the AC. Therefore, at 3,000 feet and 0.5 miles the DME (slant range) would read 0.6 miles while the GPS distance would show actual horizontal distance of 0.5 DME. This error is smallest at low altitudes and/or at long ranges.
34
What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen?
A. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight crew must use oxygen after 30 minutes
B. Above 14,000 feet MSL up to 15,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen
C. Above 15,000 feet MSL, each passenger must be provided oxygen and minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen
35
When may the PIC deviate from an ATC clearance?
In an emergency
36
If an emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom?
Each PIC who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.
37
Concerning two-way radio comms failure in VFR and IFR, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving a holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
In VFR: If occurs in VFR, or if VFR is encountered after failure, each pilot shall continue flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
In IFR: In occurs in IFR, or if VFR not in range, each pilot shall continue flight according to the following:
A. Route:
Assigned - route last assigned
Vectored - go direct from point of failure to fix, route, or airway
Expected - by route ATC advised to expect
Filed - by route filed in flight plan
B. Altitude:
Minimum - Min. for IFR ops
Expected - Altitude ATC advised to expect
Assigned - Altitude assigned in last clearance
C. Leave clearance limit:
- When the clearance limit is a fix from which the approach begins, commence descent or descent
and approach as close as possible to the EFC time if one has been received; or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC)
ETE
- If clearance limit is not aa fix from which the approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the EFC
time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit,
upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and
commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed or amended ETE
38
Assuming comms failure, discuss altitudes to be flown for the following trip:
Cleared A B C D to E
MEA from A to B to C: 5,000 feet MSL
MEA from C to D: 11,000 feet MSL
MEA from D to E: 7,000 feet MSL
Assigned A to B: 6,000 feet MSL
Expect 8,000 feet at B
Comms lost prior to receiving the higher altitude
A. Maintain 6,000 feet MSL A to B, the climb to 8,000 feet MSL
B. Continue at 8,000 feet MSL. Climb to 11,000 feet MSL at C, or prior, if necessary to comply with MCA
at C
C. Upon reaching D, descend to 8,000 feet MSL, as 8,000 feet MSL was the highest of the altitude
situations stated in the rule
39
Assuming comms failure, discuss the recommended procedure to follow concerning altitudes to be flow for the following:
A pilot experiencing comms failure while being progressively descended to lower altitudes to begin an approach is assigned 2,700 feet MSL until crossing the VOR and then cleared for the approach.
The MOCA is 2,700 feet MSL and the MEA is 4,000 feet MSL. The AC is within 22 NM of the VOR.
Pilot should remain at 2,700 feet MSL until crossing the VOR because that altitude is the minimum IFR altitude for the route segment being flown.
The plane is within 22 NM so it will still receive nav signal at MOCA.
40
If you become doubtful about your position or adverse weather ahead, should you declare an emergency?
An emergency can be either a distress or an urgency condition. Pilots do not hesitate to declare an emergency when faced with distress conditions such as a fire, Mx failure, or structural damage. However, some are reluctant to report an urgency condition when they encounter situations that may not be immediately perilous, but are potentially catastrophic. An AC is in at least an urgency condition the moment the pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, Wx, or any other condition that could adversely affect safety. This is the time to ask for help. Not after the situation has developed into a distress condition.
41
When would a pilot provide a “minimum fuel” advisory to ATC?
Indicates the ACs fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay.
42
Does ATC consider a “minimum fuel” advisory an emergency and will give you priority handling?
No
Simply indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur and does not imply a need for traffic priority. If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure safe landing, you should declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
43
Define the term “single pilot resource management”
Art and science of managing all resources available (both on board and outside sources) to a single pilot (prior to and during the flight) to ensure a successful outcome of the flight
44
What are the various resources you will use when utilizing your SRM skills?
Can include, human resources, hardware and information.
A. Human resources: All other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions required to operate a flight safely
- Dispatchers, Wx briefers, Mx, ATC, etc.
45
What are the six skills you must be competent in for effective SRM?
CARATS:
```
CFIT Awareness
Aeronautical decision making
Risk management
Automation management
Task management
Situational Awareness
```
46
A majority of CFIT accidents have been attributed to what factors?
A. Lack of pilot currency
B. Loss of situational awareness
C. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM
D. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitudes
E. Breakdown of effective ADM
F. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments
47
Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident
A. Maintain situational awareness at all times
B. Adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures
C. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles
D. Adhere t published routes and minimum altitudes
E. Fly stabilized approach
F. Understand ATC clearances and instructions
G. Don’t become complacent
48
Define ADM
A systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances
49
The DECIDE model of decision making involves which elements?
Detect change needing attention
Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
Choose the most desirable outcome
ID actions to successfully control the change
Do something
Evaluation the effect of the action countering the change
50
What is the definition of “risk”?
Future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated
51
What is the definition of “hazard”?
A present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesirable event
52
Define “risk management”
A decision making process designed to systematically ID hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action. It is a logical process of weighing the potential costs of risks against the possible benefits of allowing those risks to stand uncontrolled
53
What is one method you can use to control and manage risk?
One way pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category, using PAVE. These are limits unique to that individual pilots current level of experience and proficiency:
Pilot
Aircraft
EnVironment
External pressures: allowance for delays, diversions, cancelation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans
54
Describe the 3P model used in ADM
Perceive, Perform, Process. Used repeatedly during all phases of flight.
A. Perceive a given set of circumstances for a flight. Think through PAVE. Ask “what could hurt me, my Pax, or my AC?”
B. Process by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Think through CARE (Consequences/Alternatives available/Reality of the situation/External pressures
C. Perform by implementing the best course of action using TEAM (Transfer/Eliminate/Accept/Mitigate)
55
Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight
Once the pilot has completed the 3P process, the process begins again. The decision making process is a continuous loop
56
Define “situational awareness”
SA is the accurate perception and understanding of all factors and conditions that affect safety before/during/after flight
57
What are some of the elements inside and outside the AC that a pilot must consider to maintain SA?
A. Inside: Status of AC systems, pilot, and Pax
| B: Outside: Awareness of where the AC is in relation to terrain, traffic, Wx, and airspace
58
What are several factors that reduce SA?
Fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and INOP equipment
59
What procedures can be used for maintaining SA in technically advanced AC?
A. Perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure
B. Check all flight routing - ensure all routing matches the planned route of flight
C. Always verify waypoints
D. Make use of all onboard navigation equipment - use VOR to back up GPS, and vice versa
E. Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency - stay within personal limits
F. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain SA - ATC doesn’t always give you correct routing
G. Be ready to verify computer data entries - incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of SA
60
When attempting to circumnavigate TS, what minimum distance is recommended?
TS identified as severe or displaying an intense radar echo should be avoided by at least 20 miles.
61
Can onboard datalink (FIS-B) be uuseful in navigating an AC safely around an area of TS?
Wx data linked from a ground Wx surveillance radar system is not real time info. It displays recent rather than current conditions. Data is typically updated every 5 minutes, but can be as much as 15 minutes old by the time it displays in the cockpit. Therefore, FIS aviation Wx products are not appropriate for tactical avoidance of severe Wx such as negotiating a path through a hazardous area.
62
In the event that you inadvertently enter a TS, what recommended procedure should you follow?
A. Tighten your safety belt, put on your shoulder harness, and secure all loose object
B. Keep your eyes on your instruments. Looking outside the cockpit can increase the danger of temporary blindness from lightening
C. Plan your course to take you through the storm in a minimum time and hold it. Don’t turn back once
you are in the TS. Remember that turning maneuvers increases stresses on AC.
D. To avoid the most critical icing, establish a penetration altitude below the freezing level or above the
level of -15 degrees Celsius.
E. turn on pitot heat and carb heat or jet inlet heat. Icing can be rapid at any altitude and can cause
instantaneous power failure or loss of airspeed indication
F. Establish power settings for reduced turbulence penetration airspeed recommended in your AC
manual. Reduced airspeed lessens the structural stresses on the AC.
G. Turn up cockpit lights to highest intensity to lessen danger of temporary blindness from lightening
H. If using autopilot, disengage altitude hold mode and speed hold mode. The automatic altitude and
speed controls will increase maneuvers of AC, thus increasing structural stresses
I. Maintain a constant attitude; let the AC “ride the waves”. Maneuvers to try to maintain constant
altitude increase stresses on AC
63
Describe the hazardous AC icing conditions a pilot may encounter in stratus clouds
Form a layer that may cover a wide area. The lifting process that form them are usually gradual so they rarely have exceptionally high liquid water content.
Icing layers in stratus clouds with vertical thickness in excess of 3,000 feet are rare, so either climbing or descending may be effective in exiting icing conditions in clouds
64
Define the hazardous AC icing conditions a pilot may encounter in cumulus clouds
Hazardous icing conditions can occur in cumulus clouds, which sometimes have very high liquid water content. It is not advisable to fly through a series of such clouds or to execute holds within them. However, because these clouds do not extend very far horizontally, any icing encountered in such a cloud may be of limited duration and it may be possible to deviate around the cloud
65
Define the hazardous AC icing conditions a pilot may encounter in freezing rain
Forms when rain becomes super cooled by falling through a subfreezing layer of air. It may be possible to exit the freezing rain by climbing into the warm layer
66
Define the hazardous AC icing conditions a pilot may encounter in freezing drizzle
Because freezing drizzle often forms by the collision-coalescence process, the pilot should not assume that a warm later of air exists above the AC. A pilot encountering freezing drizzle should exit the conditions ASAP either vertically or horizontally. The three possible actions are to ascend to an altitude where the freezing drizzle event is less intense, to descend to an area of warmer air, or to make a level turn to emerge from the area of freezing drizzle.
67
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
You should leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean descending to an altitude below the cloud bases, climbing to n altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course. If this is not possible, then the pilot must move to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing. If your going to climb, do so quickly; procrastination may leave you with too much ice. If you’re going to descend, you must know the temperature of the air ad the type of terrain below.
68
If an airplane has anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?
The presence of anti-icing and de-icing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards, and manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations.
69
A pilot flying an AC certificated for flight in known icing should be aware of a phenomenon known as “roll upset”. What is roll upset?
An uncommanded and uncontrolled roll phenomenon associated with severe in flight icing. It can occur without the usual symptoms of ice accumulation or a perceived aerodynamic stall. Pilots flying certificated FIKI aircraft should be aware that severe icing s a condition outside of the AC’s certification envelope. The roll upset that occurs may be caused by airflow separation (aerodynamic stall), which induces self-deflection of the ailerons and loss of or degraded roll handling characteristics. The aileron deflection may be caused by ice accumulation in a sensitive area of the wing aft of the deicing boots.
70
What is the recommended recovery procedure for a roll upset?
A. Reduce the angle of attack by reducing AC pitch. If in a turn, roll the wings level
B. Set appropriate power and monitor the airspeed and angle of attack. A controlled decent is a vastly better alternative than an uncontrolled descent
C. If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless you can determine that the upper surface of the airfoil is clear of ice, because retracting the flaps will increase the AOA at a given airspeed.
D. Verify that wing ice protection is functioning normally by visual observation of the wings
71
What is recommended procedure for removing ice from an aircraft equipped with a pneumatic deicing systems?
The deicing system should be activated at the first indication of icing. Because some residual ice continues to adhere between pneumatic boot system cycles, the wing is never entirely “clean”. The amount of residual ice increases as airspeed or temperature decreases. At airspeeds typical of small airplanes, it may take many boot cycles to effectively shed the ice. It may appear that the boots are not having any effect at all until shedding occurs.
72
After cruising above an overcast later en route to you destination, you determine that weather reports and PIREPs at your destination now indicate that your descent will take you through clouds that contain ice. If you cannot divert to your alternate (low fuel), what can you do to prepare for the descent through icing conditions in a non-FIKI AC?
A. Advise ATC of your situation and declare and emergency
B. Apply carb heat, windshield heat, and pitot heat
C. Set the prop to max RPM to prevent ice from forming on the blades
D. Advise ATC that you would like to remain above the clouds for as long as possible. Ask for a descent
at pilot’s discretion.
E. Expedite your descent through the clouds to minimize the AC’s exposure to icing
F. Delay flap and gear extension and maintain a clean configuration as long as possible
73
During your initial climb away from the RWY, you hear and see what appears to be small ice pellets hitting the AC. Are you in danger? What are ice pellets an indication of?
By themselves, are not a hazard to the airframe with respect to icing, but ground observation of ice pellets indicates freezing rain or super cooled large droplets aloft which could be extremely hazardous.
74
During your descent and while being vectored for an approach, you notice a trace amount of rime ice collecting on your wings leading edges and struts. The ice is extremely light, and even though you are in a descent, your airspeed is decreasing towards stall speed. What could be the problem?
The pitot tube opening and the drain hole are blocked. If the pitot tube ram air input plus the drain hole are blocked the pressure is trapped in the system and the airspeed indicator will act like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends. If the static port is not blocked, the airspeed indicator will show an increase in a climb and a decrease in descent. During level flight airspeed will not change. Your pitot heat is either off or failed.
75
If icing is inadvertently encountered, how would configuration for approach and landing be different?
A. Extension of landing gear may create excessive drag when coupled with ice. Flaps should be
deployed in stages, carefully noting the AC’s behavior at each stage.
B. If anomalies occur, it is best not to increase the amount of flaps ad perhaps even retract them
depending on how much the AC is deviating from normal performance
C. If landing with an accumulation of ice, use a higher approach speed
D. During the landing flare, carry a higher than normal power if there is ice on the airplane. Use a longer RWY, if available.
E. After touchdown, use brakes sparingly to prevent skidding. Be prepared for possible loss of directional control caused by ice buildup on gear
76
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
108.0 to 117.95 MHz
77
What restrictions are VORs subject to?
VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment
78
What are the normal usable distances for the various classes of VOR stations? (AIM 1-1-8)
H-VORs and L-VORs have a normal usable distance of 40 NM below 18,000 feet.
T-VORs are short range facilities with power output of about 50 watts and a usable distance of 25 NM at 12,000 feet and below. Used primarily for instrument approaches in terminal areas, on or adjacent to airports.
79
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
It is important to recognize which identifier is retained for the operative facility. A single coded identifier with a repeat interval every 30 seconds indicates DME is operative. If no identification is received, the facility has been taken off the air for tune up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
80
Will all VOR stations have the capability of providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?
No
Aircraft receiving equipment that provides for automatic DME selection assures reception of azimuth and distance info from a common source, only when designated VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME are selected.
81
For IFR ops off established airways, the “route of flight” portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR NAVAIDs that are no further than what distance from each other?
Below 18,000 feet MSL, use aids no more than 80 NM apart
Between 14,500 feet MSL and 17,999 feet MSL, H facilities not more than 200 NM apart may be used.
82
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half scale deflection of the CDI?
Full scale deflection = 10 degrees
Half scale deflection = 5 degrees
83
What are the essential components of all VOR indicator instruments?
A. OBS
B. CDI
C. To/From indicator
D. Flags or other signal strength indicators
84
What is reverse sensing?
When the VOR needle indicated the reverse of normal operation. This occurs when the AC is headed toward the station with a from indication or when the AC is headed away from the station with a To indication. Also, unless the AC has reverse sensing capability and it is in use, when flying inbound on the back course or outbound on the front course of an ILS, reverse sensing will occur.
85
What is the procedure for determining an intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?
A. Turn to a heading to parallel the desired course, in the same direction as the course to be flown
B. Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are
located
C. Double the difference to determine the intercept angle, which will not be less than 20 degrees nor
greater than 90 degrees
D. Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course
E. Turn to the intercept heading
F. Hold this heading until the CDI centers, which indicated the AC is on course
- With practice in judging the varying rates of closure with course centerline, you learn to lead the
turn to prevent overshooting the course
G. Turn to the MH corresponding to the selected course and follow the tracking procedures inbound
or outbound
86
What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation?
Accurate to plus/minus 1 degree
87
Explain the function of NDB and ADF equipment
NDB is a ground based radio transmitter that transmits in all directions. Operate within the low-to-medium frequency band, 190 to 535 kHz.
ADF receiver in the airplane determines the bearing from the AC to the transmitting station. The ADF needle points to the NDB ground station to determine the relative bearing to the transmitting station. It is the number of degrees measured clockwise between the ACs heading and the direction from which the bearing is taken.
88
When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with an ILS marker beacon, what is it called?
Compass locator
89
There are 4 types of NDB facilities in use. What are they and what are their effective ranges?
HH facilities: 75 NM
H facilities: 50 NM
MH facilities: 25 NM
ILS compass locator: 15 NM
90
How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing?
A magnetic bearing is the direction of an imaginary line from the AC to the station or the station to the AC referenced to magnetic north. To determine:
MH+RB=MB
If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing to the station. The reciprocal of this number is the magnetic bearing from the station.
91
What is an HSI?
Horizontal situation indicator.
A direction indicator that uses the output from a flux valve to drive the compass card. Combines the magnetic compass with NAV signals/glideslope and gives the pilot an indication of the location of the AC with relationship to the chosen course or radial. The AC magnetic heading is displayed on the compass card under the lubber line and the course select pointer shows the course selected and its reciprocal. The course deviation bar operates with a VOR/Localizer (VOR/LOC)or GPS navigation receiver to indicate left or deviations from the course selected with the course select pointer. The desired course is selected with the course select pointer in relation to the compass card by means of the course select knob. The HSI has a fixed AC symbol and the course deviation bar displays the ACs position relative to the selected course.
92
What is DME?
Stands for Distance Measuring Equipment. AC equipped with DME are provided with distance and groundspeed info when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility.
Paired pulses are sent out from the AC and received at the ground station. The ground station transmits paired pulses back to the AC at the same pulse spacing but on a different frequency. The time required for the roundtrip of the signal exchange is measured in the airborne DME unit and translated into distance and groundspeed.
Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line of sight altitude. DME operates on frequencies in the UHF spectrum from 960 MHz to 1215 MHz. Distance information is slant range, not horizontal.
93
When is DME required?
If VOR navigational equipment is required for flight at and above FL240, the AC must be equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system.
If the DME or RNAV system fails at or above FL240, the PIC shall notify ATC immediately, and then may continue ops to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made or equipment replacement can be done.
94
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?
Slant range error will be at a minimum if the AC is one or more miles from the facility for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
95
What is RNAV?
Area Navigation is a method of navigation that permits AC operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or spaced based NAVAIDs or within the limits of the capability of self contained aids, or a combination of these.
96
Give a brief description of the Global Positioning System
Satellite based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a psuedo-range measurement that is then used to determine use location
97
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of 5 is always observable by any user anywhere on earth. The receiver uses data from a minimum of 4 satellites above the mask angle ( =lowest angle above the horizon at which i can use a satellite).
- 3 Satellites: Latitude and longitude only
- 4 Satellites: Latitude, longitude, and altitude (3D)
- 5 Satellites: 3D and RAIM
- 6 Satellites: 3D and RAIM isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigational solution
98
What are the various Technical Standard Orders that apply to GPS navigation equipment?
A. TSO-C129:
- Non-WAAS
- Airborne Supplemental Navigation Equipment Using the GPS
B. TSO-C196:
- Non-WAAS
- Airborne Supplemental Navigation Sensors for GPS Equipment Using AC based Augmentation
C. TSO-C145:
- WAAS
- Airborne Navigation Sensors Using the GPS Augmented by WAAS
D. TSO-C146:
- WAAS
- Stand-alone Airborne Navigation Equipment Using GPS Augmented by WAAS
99
What is WAAS?
Wide Area Augmentation System
A satellite navigation system consisting of the equipment and software that augments the GPS Standard Positioning Service.The WAAS provides enhanced integrity, accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above GPS SPS. The differential correction function provides improved accuracy required for precision approach.
100
Briefly describe the operation of WAAS
WAAS ground stations receive GPS signals and forward position errors to two master ground stations. Time and location info are analyzed, and correction instructions are sent to comms satellites in geostationary orbit over the National Airspace System. The satellites broadcast GPS-like signals that WAAS-enabled GPS receivers use to correct position info received from GPS satellites. A WAAS enabled GPS receiver is required to use the wide area augmentation system.
101
In what ways can RNAV equipment be used as a substitute means of navigation guidance?
Suitable RNAV systems may be used in the following ways:
A. To determine AC position relative to, or distance from, a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, DME
fix; or a named fix defined by a VOR radial, TACAN course, NDB bearing, or compass locator bearing
intersecting a VOR or localizer course.
B. Navigate to or from a VOR, TACAn, NDB, or compass locator
C. Hold over a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, or DME fix
D. Fly an arc based upon DME
102
What are several examples of ops where RNAV equipment cannot be used as a substitute means of navigation?
A. Lateral navigation on localizer based courses (including back course guidance) without reference to
raw localizer data
B. Procedures that are identified as not authorized by NOTAM, without exception
C. Pilots may not substitute for the NAVAID (for example, a VOR or NDB) providing lateral guidance for
the final approach segment. This restriction does not refer to instrument approach procedures with
“or GPS” in the title when using GPS or WAAS
103
When using RNAV equipment for navigation, what is the difference between the terms “Track (TRK)” and “Desired Track (DTK)”?
A. Track: The actual flight path of an AC over the surface of the earth. The track, which is the result of AC heading and winds, tells you which direction the AC is actually flying. Winds make it likely that the track and heading will be different
B. Desired Track: The planned or intended track between two waypoints. Desired track is measure in degrees from either magnetic or true north. The instantaneous angle may change from point to point along the great circle track between waypoints. The desired track is the intended course for the active leg in the programmed flight plan.
104
Why is there a difference between the distance information provided by a GPS receiver and the distance information provided by conventional DME equipment?
Variations in distances will occur since GPS distance-to-waypoint values are along-track distances (ATD) computed to the next waypoint, and the DME values published on underlying procedures are slant range distances measured to the station. The difference increases with AC altitude and proximity to the NAVAID.
105
When navigating with GPS equipment, explain the CDI scaling changes (sensitivity) that occur for the appropriate route segment and phase of flight
A. Departures and DPs (Terminal Mode): CDI sensitivity = Plus/Minus 1 NM
B. More than 30 NM from the destination: CDI sensitivity = Plus/Minus 5 NM (Plus/Minus 2 NM WAAS)
C. Within 30 NM from destination (terminal mode): CDI sensitivity = Plus/Minus 1 NM
D. Within 2 NM from FAWP (Approach Mode Armed): CDI sensitivity = Plus/Minus 1NM to 0.3 NM at
the FAWP
E. Missed Approach Segment: CDI sensitivity = Plus/Minus 0.3 NM to Plus/Minus 1 NM
106
What is OBS or non-sequencing mode?
A FMS/RNAV navigation mode that does not automatically sequence between waypoints in the programmed route. The non-sequencing mode maintains the current active waypoint indefinitely, and allows the pilot to specify desired track to or from a waypoint
107
What is the purpose of baro-aiding?
A method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a non-satellite input source (AC static System) to provide a vertical reference. GPS derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine AC altitude since the vertical error can be quite large and no integrity is provided. To ensure that baro-aiding is available, the current altimeter setting must be entered into the receiver. Baro-aiding satisfies the RAIM requirement in lieu of a fifth satellite.
108
Some approaches contain RNP in the approach title, such as “RNAV (RNP) RWY 17.” What does this mean?
RNP is RNAV with onboard navigation monitoring and alerting. RNP is also a statement of navigation performance necessary for navigation within a defined airspace. A critical component of RNP is the ability of the AC navigation system to monitor its achieved navigational performance, and to identify for the pilot whether the operational requirement is or is not being met during an operation. The RNP capability of an AC will vary depending upon the AC equipment and the navigation infrastructure.
109
What is ADS-B?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
Surveillance system in which an AC to be detected is fitted with cooperative equipment in the form of a data link transmitter. The AC broadcasts its GPS derived position and other information such as position, altitude, and velocity over the data link, which is received by a ground based transmitter/receiver (transceiver) for processing and display at an ATC facility.
In addition, AC equipped with ADS-B IN capability can also receive these broadcasts and display info to improve the pilot’s situational awareness of other traffic.
ADS-B is automatic because no external interrogation is required. It is dependent because it relies on onboard position sources and broadcast transmission systems to provide surveillance info to ATC, and other users.
110
What are the designated altitudes for the airways in the VOR and L/MF Airway System?
Consists of airways designated from 1,200 feet above the surface (or in some instances, higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. These airways are depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts
111
What are the lateral limits of low altitude federal airways?
Each federal airway includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 NM each side of the centerline
112
How are airways and route systems depicted on enroute low altitude charts?
VHF/UHF data is depicted in black. LF/MF data is depicted in brown. RNAV route data is depicted in blue.
Note: Segments of VOR airways in Alaska are based on L/MF NAVAIDs and charted in brown instead of black.
113
What is a changeover point?
A point along a route or airway segment between two adjacent navigational facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigational guidance should occur
114
What is a mileage breakdown point?
Occasionally an “x” will appear at a separated segment of an airway that is not an intersection. The “x” is a mileage breakdown or computer navigation fix and indicated a course change.
115
What is a “waypoint”?
It is a predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach definition, progress reports, published VFR routes, visual reporting points or points of transitioning and/or circumnavigating controlled and or special use airspace. A waypoint is defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.
116
What is tower enroute control service?
At many locations, instrument flights can be conducted entirely in terminal airspace. These tower enroute control (TEC) routes are generally for AC operating below 10,000 feet, and they can be found in the Chart Supplement US. Pilots desiring to use the TEC should include that designation in the remarks section of the flight plan.
117
Are the courses depicted on an Enroute Low Altitude Chart magnetic or true courses?
Magnetic
118
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyond which a higher MEA exists
A pilot may climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies
119
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix at which a MCA exists
Initiate the climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed. The MCA is usually indicated when you are approaching steeply rising terrain, and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised.
120
What requirement must be met before ATC will allow an AC to operate on an unpublished RNAV route?
Unpublished RNAV routes are direct routes, based on area navigation capability between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at a specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes, except for GNSS-equipped AC cleared via filed published waypoints recallable from the ACs navigation database
121
What are “T” and “Q” routes?
Published RNAV routes that can be flight planned for use by AC with RNAV capability. They are depicted in blue on charts and are identified by the letter “T” or “Q” followed by the airway number. They provide more direct routing for IFR AC and enhances system safety and efficiency.
T-Routes: Depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts. Available for RNAV equipped AC from 1,200 feet above the surface (or in some instances, higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Q-Routes: Depicted on Enroute High Altitude Charts. Available for use by RNAV equipped AC between 18,000 feet MSL and FL450 inclusive.
122
What is Class A airspace?
Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM off the coast of the contiguous US and Alaska, and designated international airspace beyond 12 NM off the coast of the contiguous US and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
123
What is Class B airspace?
Airspace from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports in terms of IF ops or Pax enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area of two or more layers (some resemble an upside down wedding cake), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an AC enters the airspace.
An ATC clearance is required for all AC to operate in the area, and all AC cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace.
The visibility and cloud clearance requirements for VFR ops is 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
124
What is Class C airspace?
From the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR ops or Pax enplanements.
Although the configuration of each Class C airspace is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.
125
What is Class D airspace?
From the surface area to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each is individually tailored, and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will usually be designed to contain those procedures.
126
When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable.
127
What is the definition of Class E (controlled) airspace?
Controlled airspace is airspace defined by dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights IAW the airspace classification. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, B, C, D, and E
128
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport with an approved IAP?
700 feet AGL
129
What is the floor of class E airspace when designation in conjunction with a federal airway?
1,200 feet AGL
130
Explain the purpose of class E transition areas
Extend upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL and are designated for airports with an approved IAP. Class E transition areas exist to help separate (via cloud clearance) arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR AC operating in the vicinity.
131
What is Class G airspace?
That portion f the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E
132
What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace?
Begins at the surface and continues up to but not including the overlying airspace, or 14,500 feet MSL, or where Class E airspace begins, whichever occurs first.
133
Define Prohibited Area (airspace)
For security or other reasons, AC flight is prohibited
134
Define Restricted Area (airspace)
Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to AC, flights must have permission from the controlling agency, if VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it
135
Define Military Operations Area (MOA)
Consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Permission is not required for VFR flights., but extreme caution should be exercised. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around.
136
Define Warning Area (airspace)
Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the US containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating AC. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. Permission is not required but a flight plan is advised.
137
Define Alert Area (airspace)
Depicted on charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should exercise extreme caution. IFR flights will be cleared through it or vectored around.
138
Define Controlled Firing Area
Contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating AC. These activities are suspended immediately when spotter AC, radar or ground lookout positions, indicate an AC might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.
139
Define National Security Area
Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimension established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When is it necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSA’s may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provision of 14 CFR 99.7
140
Define Temporary Flight Restrictions
A regulatory action issued via the US NOTAM system to restrict certain AC from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace.
141
Define Special Flight Rules Area
An area of airspace within which Special Federal Aviation Regs apply. Examples include the Grand Canyon SFRA and the Washington, DC SFRA.
142
Where can info on special use airspace be found?
Charted on IFR or visual charts and includes hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency. Current and scheduled status info can be found on FAA’s SUA website
