Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

paracrine function

A

hormone acts adjacent to site of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

endocrine function

A

hormone enters blood & acts at distant site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

autocrine function

A

hormone acts at site of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hormones released by hypothalamus

A
  • luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone
  • corticotropin-releasing hormone
  • thyrotropin-releasing hormone
  • prolactin-releasing factor
  • prolactin-inhibiting factor
  • growth hormone-releasing factor
  • growth hormone-inhibiting factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A
  • sella turcica
  • connected to hypothalamus by pituitary stalk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

adenohypophysis

A

anterior pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

posterior pituitary gland

A

neurhypophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hormones released by anterior pituitary gland

A

F- Follicle-stimulating hormone
L- Luteinizing-hormone
A- Adrenocorticotropic hormone
T- Thyroid stimulating hormone
P(i)- Prolacting
G- Growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FSH

A
  • stimulates germ cell maturation & ovarian follicle growth
  • HYPERSECRETION = early puberty
  • HYPOSECRETION = infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

LH

A
  • stimulates testosterone production, ovulation
  • HYPERSECRETION = early puberty
  • HYPOSECRETION = infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ACTH

A
  • stimulates adrenal hormone release
  • HYPERSECRETION = cushing’s disease
  • HYPOSECRETION = secondary adrenal insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TSH

A
  • stimulates thyroid hormone release
  • HYPERSECRETION = hyperthyroidism
  • HYPOSECRETION = hypothyroidism, cretinism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Prolactin

A
  • stimulates lactation
  • HYPERSECRETION = infertility
  • HYPOSECRETION = menstrual dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GH

A
  • stimulates cell growth
  • HYPERSECRETION = acromegaly, giantism
  • HYPOSECRETION = dwarfism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is ADH synthesized?

A

supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is oxytocin synthesized?

A

paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Posterior pituitary gland releases:

A
  1. ADH
  2. oxytocin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ADH

A
  • stimulates water retention
  • HYPOSECRETION = SIADH
  • HYPERSECRETION = DI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Oxytocin

A
  • stimulates uterine contraction & breast feeding
  • HYPERSECRETION = 0
  • HYPOSECRETION = uterine atony
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SIADH

A
  • TOO MUCH ADH
  • Associated w/ *TBI, small cell lung CA, carbamazepine
  • HYPOnatremia (< 135)
  • plasma osmo = hypotonic = < 275
  • low UOP
  • high urine omso & Na+
  • Tx:
    1. fluid restriction
    2. demeclocylcidine
    3. hypertonic NaCl if Na+ < 120
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DI

A
  • TOO LITTLE ADH
  • Associated w/ *pituitary surgery, TBI, SAH
  • polyuria
  • plasma omso = hypertonic = > 290
  • hypernatremia ( > 145)
  • high UOP, low urine osmo
  • Tx:
    1. DDAVP/vasopressin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acromegaly

A
  • secretion of GH after adolescence
  • associated w/ pituitary adenoma
  • difficult mask (distorted facial features)
  • difficult laryngoscopy (large tongue, teeth, epiglottis)
  • difficult ETT placement - use smaller tube (subglottic narrowing
  • epistaxis - avoid nasal intubation (turbinates enlarged)
  • OSA
  • HTN, CAD, rhythm disturbances
  • glucose intolerance
  • skeletal muscle weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

thyroid anatomy

A
  • left & right lobe joined by thyroid isthmus
  • RLN runs lateral of each lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T4

A
  • inactive form
  • released directly from thyroid
  • high concentration in blood
  • highly protein bound
  • low potency
  • 1/2 life = 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T3

A
  • active form
  • high concentration in target cell
  • low protein binding
  • high potency
  • 1/2 life = 1 day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Production & release of TH

A

Anterior pituitary releases TSH
1. stimulates thyroid to produce T3, T4 (+iodine)
2. stimulates follicular tissue to produce thyroglobulin colloid
3. stimulates iodide pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A
  • increased TH + BMR + O2 consumption + CO2 production
  • Etiologies: **Grave’s, MG, goiter, carcinoma, pregnancy, pituitary adenoma
  • Dx: ** Low TSH, High T3, T4
  • HTN, tachyarrhythmias, afib, increased Ve, goiter, weight loss, muscle weakness, warm, fine hair, heat intolerance, diarrhea, tremor, exophthalmos, hypercalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hyperthyroidism anesthesia considerations

A
  • Do NOT proceed to elective surgery until pt
    euthyroid
  • Goiter = awake intubation
  • Avoid sympathomimetic, anticholinergics,
  • ketamine, pancuronium
  • risk of corneal abrasion
  • increased incidence of MG - careful w/ NMBs
  • careful positioning
  • MAC unchanged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Medical MGMT hyperthyroidism

A
  1. Block synthesis
    - PTU, carbimazole, methimazole K+ iodide
  2. Block release
    - radioactive iodine, K+ iodide
  3. Block T4-T3 coversion
    - PTU, propanolol
  4. Block beta receptors (SNS)
    - propanolol, esmolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypothyroism

A
  • Etiology: **Hashimoto, iodine deficiency, HPA dysfx, neck radiation, thyroidectomy, amiodarone
  • Dx: **High TSH, Low T3,T4
  • decreased HR, decreased contracility, HF, pericardial effusion, decreased Ve, pleural effusion, goiter, weight gain, fatigue, dry thick skin, brittle hair, cold intolerance, constipation, delayed gastric emptying
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hypothyroidism anesthesia considerations

A
  • levothyroxine
  • cancel surgery for severe hypothyroidism
  • airway obstruction (tongue, swollen VC, goiter)
  • increased risk aspiration (delayed emptying)
  • increased risk hypotension (hypodynamic circ)
  • inhalation induction faster
  • corticosteroids
  • increased sensitivity to NDNMBs
  • MAC unchanged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

thyroid storm

A
  • increased TH in r/t stressful events
  • can occur w/ hyper/euthyroid pt
  • 6-18 hours postop
  • S/S
    1. fever, tachycardia, HTN, CHF, shock, AMS, n/v
  • Tx: 4 B’s
    1. Block synthesis (methimazole, carbimazole, PTU,
    K+ iodide)
    2. Block release (radioactive iodine, K+ iodide)
    3. Block T4 to T3 conversion (PTU, propanolol,
    glucocorticoids)
    4. Block beta receptors (propanolol, esmolol)
    Cooling
    glucocorticoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

myxedema coma

A

complication of severe hypothyroidism

34
Q

cretinism

A

Complication of neonatal hypothyroidism

35
Q

subtotal/total thyroidectomy

A
  • treatment for hyperthyroidism
  • complications
    1. hypothyroidism
    2. hemorrhage
    3. RLN injury (NIM tube)
    4. hypocalcemia (PTH removal)
  • tetany, laryngospasm, AMS, hypotension, prolonged QTi, paresthesia, chvostek, trousseau
36
Q

osteoblasts

A
  • promote bone deposition
  • add Ca+ to bone
37
Q

osteoclast

A
  • promote bone resorption
  • remove Ca+ from bone
38
Q

PTH site of production

A

parathyroid gland

39
Q

PTH site of release

A

parathyroid gland

40
Q

What stimulates release of PTH?

A
  • decreased ionized Ca+
  • increases phosphate
41
Q

PTH release effects

A
  1. increases ionized ca+
    • increases bone resorption
    • increase ca+ absorption in intestine & kidney
  2. decreases phosphate
    • decreased phosphate reabsorption in kidney
42
Q

Calcitonin site of production

A

C cells (parafollicular cells) in thyroid gland

43
Q

Calcitonin site of release

A

thyroid

44
Q

What stimulates release of calcitonin?

A

increased ionized ca+

45
Q

Calcitonin release effects

A
  1. decreased ionized ca+
    • increased ca+ bone deposiiton
  2. increased phosphate
46
Q

Primary hyperPTH

A
  • most common cause of hyperca+
  • cause = PTH adenoma
  • high PTH level, hyperca+, hypophos
  • Tx: parathyroidectomy
  • S/S:
    1. HTN, short QTi, confusion/lethargy/psychosis, bone pain, osteopenia, pathologic fx, anorexia, n/v, PUD, abd pain, pancreatitis, polyuria, polydipsia, kidney stones
47
Q

Secondary hyperPTH

A
  • most common cause = CKD
  • renal osteodystrophy = bone disease caused by increased PTH 2nd to CKD
48
Q

HypoPTH

A
  • cause = iatrogenic removal during thyroidectomy
  • S/S
    1. hypotension, myocardial depression, long QTi, tentany, paresthesias, SZ, muscle spasms, abd cramping
49
Q

Adrenal cortex synthesizes/releases

A

G - Salt
F - Sugar
R - Sex

  • zona Glomerulosa = (Salt) mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
  • zona Fasciculata = (Sugar) glucocorticoids (cortisol)
  • zona Reticularis = (Sex) androgens
50
Q

Adrenal medulla synthesizes/releases

A
  1. Epi (80%)
  2. NE (20%)
51
Q

Aldosterone release is increased by

A
  1. RAAS
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hyponatremia
52
Q

Aldosterone

A
  • Fx: resorption of Na+/H2O, excretion of K+ & H+
  • regulates IV volume
53
Q

Cortisol

A
  • glucocorticoid
  • production = 15-30 mg/day, 12 mcg/dL
  • Fx:
    1. gluconeogenesis
    2. protein catabolism
    3. fatty acid mobilization
    4. anti-inflammatory effects
    5. improves myocardial fx by increasing # & sensitivity of beta receptors in myocardium
54
Q

Most to least glucocorticoid effect potency

A
  1. dexamethasone, betamethasone (25)
  2. fludrocortisone (10)
  3. methylprednisolone, triamcinolone (5)
  4. prednisone, prednidisolone (4)
  5. cortisol (1)
  6. cortisone (0.8)
  7. aldosterone (0)
55
Q

Conn’s syndrome

A
  • too much mineralocorticoid (aldosterone)
  • Causes:
    1. too much aldosterone release (pheo, hyperthyroid)
    2. renovascular HTN
  • licorice ingestion (glycyrrhizic acid) resembles conn’s
  • S/S
    1. HTN (Na+/H2O retention)
    2. Hypokalemia (K+ excretion)
    3. Metabolic alkalosis (H+ excretion)
      -Tx: remove tumor, spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist), K+, Na+ restriction
  • Anesthesia
    1. low K+ = sensitive to NMBs, U wave on EKG, avoid hyperventilation
    2. HTN
56
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • too much cortisol
  • Causes: pituitary tumor (Cushing’s Dz) too much ACTH, adrenal tumor releases cortisol
  • Glucocorticoid effects
    1. hyperglycemia
    2. weight gain (central obesity, buffalo hump, moon
      face)
    3. increased infection risk
    4. osteoporosis
    5. muscle weakness
  • Mineralocorticoid effects
    1. HTN
    2. hypokalemia
    3. metabolic alkalosis
  • Androgenic effects
    1. women become masculinized
    2. men become feminized
  • Tx
    1. transsphenoidal resection pituitary gland
    2. adrenalectomy
    3. pituitary radiation
  • MGMT
    1. aseptic technique
    2. careful positioning
    3. steroids
    4. DI following pituitary resection
57
Q

A patient w/ adrenal insufficiency & sepsis requires an emergency intubation in ICU. Which drug should be avoided?
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopental

A

Etomidate. Inhibits 11-beta-hydroxylase & causes adrenocortical suppression for > 8 hours.

58
Q

Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s Disease)

A
  • destruction of all cortical zones
  • decreased production of mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, & androgens
  • muscle weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, n/v, hyperpigmentation
  • Tx: steroids (15-30 mg cortisol/day)
59
Q

Acute adrenal crisis

A
  • medical emergency
  • caused by chronic AI faced w/ stress
  • HD instability/collapse, fever, hypoglycemia, AMS
  • Tx: steroids, D5NS, HD support
60
Q

alpha cells

A

glucagon

61
Q

beta cells

A

insulin

62
Q

delta cells

A

somatostatin

63
Q

PP cells

A

pancreatic polypeptide

64
Q

Things that stimulate insulin release

A
  • PNS & SNS stimulation
  • glucagon
  • catecholamines
  • cortisol
  • GH
  • beta agonists
65
Q

Things that reduce insulin release

A
  • insulin
  • VA
  • beta antagonists
66
Q

insulin receptor

A
  • 2 alpha & 2 beta subunits joined together by disulfide bonds
  • insulin binds to receptor & activates tyrosine kinase which activates insulin receptor substrates
67
Q

Things that stimulate glucagon release

A
  • hypoglycemia
  • stress
  • trauma
  • sepsis
  • beta agonists
68
Q

Things that reduce glucagon release

A
  • somatostatin
  • insulin
69
Q

What are uses for glucagon other than increasing blood sugar?

A
  • increases myocardial contractility, HR, AV node conduction by increasing intracellular cAMP
  • Useful in: BB OD, CHF, low CO after CPB, improving MAP after anaphylaxis, relaxing sphincter of Oddi (ERCP)
  • SE: N/V
70
Q

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes

A
  • fasting glucose > 126
  • random glucose > 200 + classic symptoms
  • 2 hour glucose > 200 during oral glucose tolerance test
  • Hgb A1C > 6.5%
71
Q

Type 1 DM

A
  • lack of insulin production from beta cell destruction
  • causes = **autoimmune, genetic, viral
  • presents in childhood
  • thin
  • low insulin levels, high glucagon but can be suppressed
  • Tx: insulin
  • Associated w/ DKA
72
Q

Type 2 DM

A
  • lack of insulin + insulin resistance
  • cause = obesity
  • presents in adulthood
  • android obesity
  • insulin level normal to high, glucagon high & resistant to suppression
  • Tx: weight loss, diet, oral hypoglycemic, insulin
  • Associated w/ hyperglycemia hyperosmolar syndrome
73
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

At least 3 of the following:
- fasting glucose > 100-110
- abdominal obesity (waist > 40 in M, > 35 in F)
- triglyceride > 150
- HDL < 40 M, < 50 F
- BP > 130/85

74
Q

DKA

A
  • *More common in DM Type 1
  • Not enough insulin –> ketoacidosis,
  • hyperosmolarity, dehydration
    S/S:
    Labs:
    1. *CBG > 250 mg/dL
    2. pH < 7.3
    3. bicarb < 18
    4. anion gap > 10
    5. hyperosmolarity > 300
    6. ketones > 5
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Kussmaul’s respirations
  • Fruity-smelling breath
  • Tx:
    1. fluids
    2. insulin
    3. K+
75
Q

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State

A
  • More common w/ DM Type 2
  • Caused by insulin resistance or inadequate
    production
  • Labs:
    1. CBG > 600 mg/dL
    2. osmolarity > 330 mOsm/L
    3. mild metabolic acidosis
    4. pH > 7.3 , no anion gap
  • Tx:
    1. fluids
    2. insulin
    3. correct electrolytes
76
Q

DM Anesthetic MGMT

A
  • painless MI
  • tachycardia (reduced vagal tone)
  • dysrhythmias
  • ortho hypotension
  • aspiration risk
  • hypothermia
  • difficult intubation (stiff joint syndrome-Prayer’s sign)
  • neuropathy
  • LR may contribute to hyperglycemia
  • GA , BB, & DM autonomic neuropathy may mask hypoglycemia
77
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A
  • GI tumor
  • secretion of vasoactive substances from enterochromaffin cells
  • Most common s/s = flushing, diarrhea
  • Histamine release
    1. bronchoconstriction
    2. vasodilation
    3. hypotension
    4. flushing
  • kinins & kallikrein
    1. bronchoconstriction
    2. vasodilation
    3. hypotension
    4. flushing
  • serotonin
    1. bronchoconstriction
    2. vasoconstriction
    3. HTN
    4. SVT
    5. diarrrhea
78
Q

Carcinoid crisis

A
  • tachycardia
  • hypo/hypertension
  • flushing
  • abd pain
  • diarrhea
79
Q

Drugs to give carcinoid syndrome

A
  • somatostatin (octreotide)
  • antihistamines
  • 5HT3 antagonists
  • steroids
  • phenylephrine, vasopressin
80
Q

Drugs to avoid carcinoid syndrome

A
  • histamine-releasing drugs = morphine, meperidine, atracurium, thiopental, sux
  • catecholamines
  • ephedrine, ketamine (stimulate SNS)