Endocrine Flashcards

exam 4 (119 cards)

1
Q

The ___ is the primary source of glucose production via glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis

A

liver

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2
Q

__% of the glucose released by the liver is freely metabolized by tissues in the brain, GI tract, and red blood cells

A

75

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3
Q

__-__ hours after eating, when glucose usage exceeds availability, endogenous production occurs to maintain a normal plasma glucose level​

During this time, insulin production ____ to maintain normal blood glucose

A

2-4; diminishes

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4
Q

Glucagon plays a primary role by:​

___ glycogenolysis ​

____ gluconeogenesis​

____ glycolysis​

A

Glucagon plays a primary role by:​

Stimulating glycogenolysis ​

Simulating gluconeogenesis​

Inhibiting glycolysis​

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5
Q

describe type 1a, type 1b, and type 2 diabetes

A

Type 1a DM is caused by an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β cells, leading to minimal or absent insulin production​

Type 1b DM is a rare, non-immune disease of absolute insulin deficiency​

Type 2 DM is also non-immune, and results from defects in insulin receptors and signaling pathways​

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6
Q

in type 1 DM what percent of B cell function must be lost before hyperglycemia happens

A

80-90%

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7
Q

hyperglycemia SX

A

w/ fatigue, weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, blurry vision, hypovolemia, ketoacidosis​

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8
Q

what type of DM does this describe:
In initial stages, tissues become desensitized to insulin, leading to ↑secretion​

A

type 2 DM

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9
Q

3 main abnormalities in 2 DM

A

Impaired insulin secretion​

↑hepatic glucose release *c/b a reduction in insulin’s inhibitory effect on liver ​

Insufficient glucose uptake in peripheral tissues​

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10
Q

what is usually the first sign of 1 DM

A

polyuria, kids will wet the bed

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11
Q

Causes of insulin resistance include: ​(3)

A

Abnormal insulin molecules​

Circulating insulin antagonists​

Insulin receptor defects​

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12
Q

what 3 areas require insulin to bring glucose into the tissues

A

skeletal muscle
adipose tissue
liver

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13
Q

A1C of 5.7-6.4 =

A

pre-diabetic

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14
Q

A1C > 6.5 =

A

diabetes

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15
Q

FBG > _____mg/dl is diagnostic for DM (fasting for 8 hr)

A

126

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16
Q

what does diet and exercise improve

A

improves hepatic & peripheral insulin sensitivity​

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17
Q

what does metformin do?

A

Metformin: A biguanide, preferred initial drug tx​

Enhances glucose transport into tissues​

↓TGL & LDL levels​

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18
Q

what do sulfonylureas do? when are the no longer effective?

A

Sulfonylureas: ​

Stimulate insulin secretion​

Enhances glucose transport into tissues​

d/t diabetic progressive loss of B cell function, Sulfonylureas not effective long term​

SE’s include hypoglycemia, weight gain & cardiac effects​

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19
Q

if the pt is compliant with diet and exercise we can see a __-___ % drop in A1C

A

1-2

same as metformin`

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20
Q

metformin is contraindication with ____ insufficient

A

renal

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21
Q

name the regular, short, intermediate, and long acting insulins

A
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22
Q

hypoglycemia is exacerbated by

what specific medications

A

Exacerbated by ETOH, metformin, sulfonylureas, ACE-I’s, MAOI’s, Non-selective BB’s​

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23
Q

what is hypoglycemia unawareness

A

Repetitive hypoglycemia lead to “hypoglycemia unawareness”​

Pt becomes desensitized to hypoglycemia and doesn’t show autonomic sx​

Neuroglycopenia ensues→fatigue, confusion, h/a, seizures, coma​

Tx: PO or IV glucose (may give SQ or IM if unconscious)​

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24
Q

High glucose exceeds the threshold for _____ reabsorption​

A

renal

Creating osmotic diuresis & hypovolemia​

The liver overproduces of ketoacids​

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25
DKA has serum glucose > ____ pH < ____ HCO3 < Serum osmolarity < _____ serum urine ketone level ______
26
insulin loading dose
0.1u/kg + low dose infusion @ 0.1u/kg/hr
27
HHS is characterized by what 3 symptoms
Characterized by severe hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity & dehydration​ Sx: polyuria, polydipsia, hypovolemia, HoTN, tachycardia​
28
HHS can have acidosis T or F
T
29
TX of HHS
Tx: fluid resuscitation, insulin bolus + infusion, e-lytes​
30
symptoms of nephropathy?
Sx: HTN, proteinuria, peripheral edema,↓GFR ​
31
When GFR < 15-20, kidneys no longer clear ____
potassium ---> hyperkalemic acidosis
32
what drug slows progression of proteinuria and the drop in GFR ​
ACE-I’s
33
Peripheral Neuropathy starts in the ____ and progresses ___
Starts in toes/feet, progresses proximally​ Loss of large sensory & motor fibers, reducing light touch & proprioception​ Loss of small nerve fibers decreases pain/temp perception​
34
can retionpathy be reversed?
yeah, just do what you are supposed to and dont be a doodoo head
35
Cardiovascular sx in DM
Cardiovascular sx: abnormal cardiovascular dynamics, loss of HR variability, ortho-HoTN & dysrhythmias​
36
GI problems in DM
gastroparesis sx: bloating, epigastric pain
37
Silent ischemia is possible w/____ neuropathy​
autonomic
38
Autonomic neuropathy predisposes pt's to peri-op ____ and ____​
Autonomic neuropathy predisposes pt's to peri-op dysrhythmia and HoTN​
39
Gastroparesis may ↑aspiration rx, regardless of ____ status​
NPO
40
PO diabetic drugs should be _____ to avoid hypoglycemia​
held
41
what is an Insulinoma​
Rare, benign insulin-secreting pancreatic tumor​ Occurs 2x more in women than men, normally in 50s-60s​
42
what is a whipple triad with an Insulinoma​
Dx based on Whipple triad:​ Hypoglycemia w/fasting​ Blood glucose <50 w/sx​ Sx relief w/glucose​
43
diazoxide is given in preop to ________
Preop- Diazoxide, which inhibits insulin release from B cells​ Other tx: verapamil, phenytoin, propranolol, glucorticoids, octreotide​
44
can see ___ during the insulinoma removal surgery when the surgeon is manipulating the tumor
hypoglycemia
45
what nerves are you worried about with thyroid surgery
The Recurrent Laryngeal N and external motor branch of the SLN are in close proximity to the thyroid​
46
Production of thyroid hormones dependent on the availability of exogenous _____​
iodine
47
The T4/T3 ratio is __:__
10:1
48
Iodine is reduced to iodide in the _____ tract, rapidly ____, then transported into thyroid follicular cells​
Iodine is reduced to iodide in the GI tract, rapidly absorbed, then transported into thyroid follicular cells​
49
Thyroid function is regulated by the (3)
hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and thyroid glands​
50
Iodide binds to ____ and yields inactive monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine​
Iodide binds to thyroglobulin and yields inactive monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine​
51
____ _____ is best test of thyroid action at the cellular level​
TSH Assay
52
normal TSH is ____-___
0.4-5.0 milliunits/L​
53
TRH stimulation test used to test _____ function and TSH-secretion​
pituitary
54
Main 3 causes of hyperthyroidism
Graves disease​ toxic goiter​ toxic adenoma​
55
T__ affects the myocardium and peripheral vasculature
T3
56
Extreme thyroid enlargement may cause _______
dysphagia, difficulty swallowing, and inspiratory stridor from tracheal compression​
57
graves disease is an ____ disease causing.....
autoimmune; thyroid-stimulating antibodies, stimulating growth, vascularity, and hypersecretion
58
graves disease labs
Dx labs: +TSH antibodies, low TSH, high T3 & T4​
59
first line tx for graves disease
Treatment: 1st line is antithyroid drug, methimazole or propylthiouracil (PTU)​
60
___ therapy is temporary, reserved for acute situations, like going to surgery
iodine
61
Propranolol impairs the peripheral conversion of ____ to ____
T4 to T3​ BB will treat sx not the cause
62
Surgical complications on thyroidectomy
hypothyroidism, hemorrhage, hematoma, tracheal compression, RLN damage, and parathyroid damage​
63
laryngeal spasm can be causes by hypo____ if the parathyroid is resected
calcemia
64
Elective cases may need to wait ___-___ weeks for antithyroid drugs to take effect ​
6-8
65
In emergent cases what drugs will you give for someone with graves disease
IV BBs, glucocorticoids, and PTU usually necessary​
66
thyroid storm is triggered by
stress, infection, trauma, surgery
67
Primary hypothyroidism results in ↓___ & ___ despite adequate TSH​
T3 T4
68
Hashimoto thyroiditis is an ______ hypothyroidism, often involving a ____ and usually affects middle-aged ____​
autoimmune hypothyroidism, goiter ; women​
69
strong correlation with ___ and hypothyroidism
SIADH
70
Treatment of hypothyroidism is
L-thyroxine is DOC​
71
Pre-op implications for hypothyroidism: ​
Pre-op implications: ​ Assess for airway compromise, swelling, edematous vocal cords, goiter​ Expect slower gastric emptying, aspiration rx​ Cardiovascular system may be hypodynamic​ Respiratory function may be compromised​ More prone to hypothermia​ Electrolyte imbalances possible​ If elective case, Thyroid tx should be initiated at least 10 days prior​ If emergent surgery: IV Thyroid replacement along with steroids ASAP​
72
what is Myxedema Coma what? What symptoms?
Rare, severe form of hypothyroidism characterized by delirium, hypoventilation, hypothermia, bradycardia, HoTN, and dilutional hyponatremia​
73
If elective case with hypothyroid, Thyroid tx should be initiated at least ___ days prior​
10
74
Myxedema Coma is more likely to affect what population
Occurs most commonly in elderly women w/ long hx of hypothyroidism​
75
Myxedema Coma​ treatment
Tx: IV L-thyroxine or L-triiodothyronine ​ IV hydration w/glucose solutions, temp regulation, e-lyte correction, and supportive care​ Mechanical ventilation is frequently required​
76
Myxedema Coma​ is triggered by
Triggered by infection, trauma, cold, and CNS depressants ​
77
causes of a goiter are
Causes: lack of iodine, ingestion of goitrogen, or a hormonal defect​
78
when is surgery of a goiter indicated
Surgery indicated only if medical tx is ineffective, and goiter compromises AW or is cosmetically unacceptable​
79
____ scan must be examined to assess the extent of the tumor​ with a goiter
CT
80
Limitations in the inspiratory limb of the loop indicate _____ obstruction​ Delayed flow in the expiratory limb indicates an ____ obstruction​
Limitations in the inspiratory limb of the loop indicate extra-thoracic obstruction​ Delayed flow in the expiratory limb indicates an intra-thoracic obstruction​
80
___ in upright or supine position is predictive of AW obstruction during GA​
Dyspnea
81
complications of thyroid surgery
82
The adrenal cortex synthesizes:
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), and androgens​
83
Hypothalamus sends _____ to the ___ pituitary, which stimulates release of ____ ## Footnote regarding the adrenal gland
corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH); anterior; corticotropin (ACTH) ​
84
_____ stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol​
ACTH Cortisol helps convert NE to EPI, and induces hyperglycemia
85
a Pheochromocytoma is a Catecholamine-secreting tumor that originates from ____ cells in adrenal medulla​
chromaffin can lead to HTN, CVA, and MI
86
Most Pheo’s secrete NE:EPI ratio __:___ the inverse of normal adrenal secretion​
85:15
87
Pheochro. attack can result from ....
may occur spontaneously or triggered by injury, stress, or meds​
88
Pheo are dx how
Dx: 24h urine collection for metanephrines and catecholamines​ also can be a mass on the kidney
89
TX of Pheo
90
Never give nonselective BB before α blocker​. WHY??
blocking vasodilatory β2 receptors results in unopposed α agonism, leading to vasoconstriction and hypertensive crises​
91
differentiate ACTH dependent and ACTH independent Cushings
ACTH-dependent Cushings: high plasma ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex to produce excess cortisol ​ ACTH-independent Cushings: excessive cortisol production by abnormal adrenocortical tissue that is not regulated by CRH and ACTH​
92
dx of cushing disease
24hr urine cortisol
93
Treatment of choice for Cushings is
transsphenoidal microadenomectomy if resectable​ for a pituitary adenoma
94
Hallmark sx of Conn Syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) is
Spontaneous HTN w/hypokalemia
95
In secondary hyper-aldosteronism is due to an increase in ___
renin in primary the renin will be suppressed
96
Long term ingestion of ____ can cause a syndrome that mimics hyperaldosteronism
licorice
97
TX of hyperaldosteronsim
Tx: Aldosterone antagonist (Spironolactone), K+ replacement, antihypertensives, diuretics, tumor removal, possible adrenalectomy​
98
Hypoaldosteronism hallmark sign is
high K without renal issues
99
what kind of metabolic acidosis is common with hypoaldosteronism
Hyperchloremic
100
Indomethacin-induced prostaglandin deficiency is a _____ cause​ of hypoaldo.
reversable
101
Primary AI (Addison dz): Autoimmune ____ gland suppression ​
adrenal
102
Secondary AI: hypothalamic-pituitary suppression leading to a lack of ___ or ___ production​
CRH or ACTH production​ Unlike Addison’s, there is only a glucocorticoid deficiency ​ Most cases are iatrogenic, with causes including synthetic glucocorticoids, pituitary surgery, or radiation​ These pts lack hyperpigmentation​ ​
103
Dx with Addisons disease is baseline cortisol < ___ μg/dL and remains <___ μg/dL after ACTH stimulation​
20
104
Absolute AI is characterized by a ____ baseline cortisol level and a positive ACTH stimulation test​ Relative AI is indicated when the baseline cortisol level is _____, but the ACTH stimulation test is positive​
low; higher
105
___ parathyroid glands located behind the upper & lower poles of the thyroid​
4
106
Hypocalcemia ____ the release of PTH, whereas hypercalcemia ____ PTH synthesis and release​
stimulates; suppresses
107
Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by: ​
benign parathyroid adenoma (90%)​ carcinoma (<5%)​ parathyroid hyperplasia​ sx are basically hypercalcemia
108
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism: _____ response of the parathyroid glands to counteract a separate disease process involving hypocalcemia s/a CRF​
compensatory example: renal issue where you are spilling Ca
109
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is a disorder where ____ is adequate, but the kidneys are unable to respond to it​
PTH
110
Dx labs for hypoparathyroid : __PTH, __Ca++,__phos​
↓PTH, ↓Ca++,↑phos​
111
what 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary gland secrete
GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, prolactin
112
Posterior pituitary stores ____ and ___ after being synthesized in the hypothalamus
vasopressin and oxytocin
113
Acromegaly is Excessive growth hormone, most often seen with _____ pituitary adenomas​
anterior
114
acromegaly can cause what airway problems
obstruction; RLN paralysis Distorted facial anatomy may interfere with mask placement ​ Enlarged tongue & epiglottis predisposes to upper AW obstruction and interferes w/visualization of vocal cords on DL​ Increased distance btw the lips and vocal cords d/t mandible overgrowth ​ Glottic opening may be narrowed d/t vocal cord enlargement ​ May require smaller ETT, VL, awake fiberoptic intubation​ ​
115
What is DI and the treatment
116
what is SIADH and the treatment
117
Neurogenic and nephrogenic DI are differentiated b/o response to ______,
DDAVP which causes urine-concentration in neurogenic, but not nephrogenic, DI​
118