endocrine, diabetes, metabolism Flashcards

(396 cards)

1
Q

what is the single most effective preventative measure in almost all patients, especially those with diabetes

A

smoking cesation

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2
Q

how will free and total T4 levels and TSH levels be altered in primary hypothyroidism

A

low free and total T4 and increased TSH

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3
Q

how will free and total T4 levels and TSH levels be altered in thyroid hormone resistance

A

high TSH and T4

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4
Q

how will free and total T4 levels and TSH levels be altered in central hypothyroidism

A

low TSH and T4

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5
Q

in transient hypothyroidism during pregnancy, how are free and total T4 levels and TSH levels affected

A

decreased free and total T4 and increased TSH

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6
Q

if a new born presents with elevated serum TSH and decreased T4, and a normal size and normally located thyroid, what is the likely diagnosis

A

thyroid gland resistance to TSH

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7
Q

TSH is normally produced where?

A

anterior pituitary gland

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8
Q

name the 3 layers of the cortex of the adrenal gland starting most outward to inward

A

zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis

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9
Q

what do the cells in the zona glomerulosa secrete

A

mineral corticoids, primarily aldosterone

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10
Q

what do cells in the zona fasciculata secrete

A

glucocorticoid hormones, primarily cortisol

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11
Q

what do cells in the zona reticularis secrete

A

androgens

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12
Q

the adrenal medulla is sharply demarcated from the cortex and is composed of _____ cells with a deeply basophilic cytoplasm

A

chromaffin

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13
Q

chromaffin cells are modified neuroendocrine cells derived from ____

A

neural crest

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14
Q

chromaffin cells are stimulated by ______

A

acetylcholine

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15
Q

chromaffin cells are stimulated by acetylcholine released by sympathetic preganglionic neurons and secrete _____

A

catecholamines (80% epinephrine, 20% norepinephrine)

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16
Q

the superior thyroid artery and vein and what nerve travel together in a neurovascular triad that originates superior to the thyroid gland and lateral to the thyroid cartilage

A

external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

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17
Q

injury to the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve during a thyroidectomy may result in what symptoms due to loss of function of what muscle

A

low, hoarse voice with limited range pitch

cricothyroid muscle

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18
Q

raloxifene MOA

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator

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19
Q

tamoxifen MOA

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator

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20
Q

what are adverse effects associated with selective estrogen receptor modulators

A

hot flashes
venous thromboembolism
endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma (tamoxifen only)

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21
Q

where is epinephrine primarily produced

A

adrenal medulla

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22
Q

what is the rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis

A

conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) by tyrosine hydroxylase

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23
Q

in the adrenal medulla, norepinephrine is quickly converted to epinephrine via what enzyme

A

phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT)

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24
Q

PNMT expression in the adrenal medulla is upregulated by what?

A

cortisol

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25
following pituitary resection, the loss of ____ results in decreased synthesis of cortisol in the adrenal cortex which results in decreased ______ activity leading to low conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
ACTH | PNMT
26
medullary carcinoma, a primary thyroid carcinoma, is derived from what cell type
parafollicular calcitonin-secreting C cells
27
what is the most common type of primary thyroid carcinoma
papillary
28
_____ carcinoma cells are characteristically large with overlapping nuclei containing finely dispersed chromatin, giving them an empty or ground glass appearance (Orphan Annie eye nucleus). numerous intranuclear inclusions and grooves may be found. Psammoma bodies may be found within the tumor.
papillary
29
a majority of T4 is bound to ____
thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
30
to patients with congenital thyroxine binding globulin deficiency require treatment
no total T4 is low because decreased fraction of bound T4 but feedback on the thyroid still functions properly to keep free T4 levels constant
31
what presents as painful thyroid enlargement with transient hyperthyroid symptoms following the onset of a viral illness
subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
32
what are diagnostic tests with subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
elevated ESR & CRP | decreased radioiodine uptake
33
pathology of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis shows inflammatory infiltrate with ____ and ___ cells
macrophage | giant cells
34
what condition is an autoimmune condition that causes painless thyroid enlargement and presents with predominantly hypothyroid features
Hashimoto thyroiditis
35
pathology of Hashimoto thyroiditis shows lymphocytic infiltrate with well-developed _____ and ____ cells (eosinophilic epithelial cells)
germinal centers | Hurthle
36
what is the Whipple triad
symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia (tremor, diaphoresis, confusion) low blood glucose level relief of symptoms when glucose is administered
37
nocturnal back pain, spinal tenderness, and indurated prostate suggests what diagnosis
prostate adenocarcinoma with bony metastases
38
leuprolide MOA
GnRH analog ( treats prostate cancer)
39
what are androgen levels in a patient starting leuprolide
``` transiently elevated (GnRH analog) then decrease as it leads to downregulation of GnRH receptors ```
40
in a patient with an insulin deficiency, how can glucose be formed in the liver
triglycerides in adipose tissue is degraded and produces glycerol which can be converted to glucose in gluconeogenesis via glycerol kinase
41
How does testosterone use alter serum LH
Decreases serum LH
42
How does testosterone use alter serum estrogen
Increases
43
How does testosterone use aler spermatogenesis
Decreases spermatogenesis
44
Spermatogenesis is driven by what hormone
FSH
45
Testosterone is produced by ____ cells in the testes
Leydig cells
46
Excess testosterone is converted by aromatase to ____
Estradiol
47
The thyroid gland is formed from evagination of the ____
Pharyngeal epithelium
48
The thryoid gland descends to the lower neck. Failure of migration can cause the thyroid to reside anywhere along the _________'s usual path
Thyroglossal duct
49
The thyroglossal duct extends from the ____ on the dorsal surface of the tongue to the superior border of the thyroid isthmus
Foramen cecum
50
Primary adrenal insufficieny is also called what
Addison disease
51
In Addison disease, how is serum sodium and urine sodium altered
Decreases Increased (Decreased aldosterone --> renal salt wastin)
52
In Addison disease, how is serum and urine potassium effected?
Increased Decreased (In renal collecting duct principal cells, decreased aldosterone --> increased potassium absorption)
53
Low cortisol levels in Addison disease stimulates increased _____ which leads to water retention and hyponatremia
ADH
54
Paraneoplastic hypercortisolim, most commnly caused by small cell lung cancer, is due to ectopic ____ secretion
ACTH
55
What common feature of Cushing syndrome is uncommon in paraneoplastic hypercortisolism
Central obesity
56
Hyperthyroidism causes upregulation of ________ leadng to increased catecholamine effect
Beta adrenergic receptor expression
57
Beta blockers are used to blunt adrenergic manifesttions of hyperthyroidism as wll as reduce _______ activity in peripheral tissues
5'-monodeiodinase
58
Familial chylomicronemia syndrome(type I hyperlipoproteinemia) is due to a defect in what protein(s)
Lipoprotein lipase | ApoC-2
59
What lipoproteins are elevated in familial chylomicrnoemia syndrome (type I hyperlipoproteinemia)
Chylomicrons
60
What are the major manifestations offamilial chylomicronemia syndrome (type I hyperlipoproteinemia)
Acute pancreatitis Lipemia retinalis Eruptive xanthomas
61
What proteins are defected ini familial hypercholesterolemia (type II A hyperlipoproteinemia)
LDL receptor | ApoB-100
62
What lipoproteins are elevated in familial hypercholesterolemia (type II A hyperlipoproteinemia)
LDL
63
What are the major manifestations of familial hypercholesterolemia (type II A hyperlipoproteinemia)
Premature atherosclerosis Tendon xanthomas Xanthelasmas
64
What proteins are defected in familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)
ApoE
65
What lipoproteins are elevated in familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)
Chylomicron | VLDL remanants
66
What are the major manifestations of familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)
Premature aterosclerosis | Tuboeruptive and palmar xanthomas
67
What protein is defective in familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV hyperlipoproteinemia)
Polygenic
68
What lipoproteins are elevated in familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV hyperlipoproteinemia)
VLDL
69
What are the clinical manifestations of familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV hyperlipoproteinemia)
Associated with coronary disease, pancreatitis, and diabetes
70
Where are ApoE3 and ApoE4 found
On chylomicrons and VLDLs
71
ApoE3 and ApoE4 function
Bind hepativ apolipoprotein receptors (allow liver to remove chylomicrons and VLDLs from circulation)
72
How is hyperprolactinemia treated (ex. Prolactinoma)
Dopamine agonist (cabergoline, bromocriptine)
73
Diabetes insipidus is due to impaired activity of what hormone
ADH
74
Injection of exogenous ADH can help distinguish between central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Which will have an increase in urine osmolality
Central diabetes insipidus
75
_____ injury results in dath of magnocellular neurons, causing permanent central diabetes insipidus
Hypothalamic
76
Damage to ___ causes transient diabetes insipidus because the cell bodies of the magnocellular neurona remain intact
More distal portions of the hypothalamic hypophyseal tract (below the infundibulum)
77
what may present months after birth with an enlarged fontanelle, lethargy, poor feeding, protruding tongue, puffy face, umbilical hernia, and constipation
congenital hypothyroidism
78
ADH administration substantially increases urine osmolality in patients with ____ diabetes insipidus (central or nephrogenic)
Central
79
Permanant central DI is due to injury where? while transient central diabetes insipidus is due to damage where?
Permanent: hypothalamic injury --> death of magnocellular neurons Transient: distal portions of hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract (below infundibulum) --> madocellular neurons remain intact
80
How does hyperthyroidism caus osteoporosis
T3 stimulates osteoclast differentiation --> increased bone resorption --> release of calcium
81
Insulin causes activation of PFK-1 or PFK-2
PFK-2
82
Insulin causes activation of PFK-2 leading to increased levels of ______ which ihibits gluconeogenesis
Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
83
High levels of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate inhibit gluconeogenesis leading to decreased conversion of alanine and other substrates to ____
Glucose
84
What is the likely diagnosis of a patient with severe hypertension, headaches, and an adrenal mass
Pheochromocytoma
85
Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor of ___ cells in the adrenal ____
Chromaffin | Medulla
86
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2 is associated with germ-line mutations in the ____ gene
RET
87
What are the characteristics of MEN type 2
Pheochromocytomas Medulary thyroid cancer Either parathyroid hyperplasia (MEN 2A) or mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus (MEN 2B)
88
The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla re derived from ____ tissue
Neural crest
89
The adrenal cortex is derived from _____
Mesoderm
90
Medullary thryoid cancer is a malignancy of ____ cells
Parafollicular C
91
What are the structures arising from neural crest cells
``` "SOME SALTS" Schwann cells Odontoblasts Melanocytes Enterochromaffin cells Spinal membranes (pia and arachnoid) Adrenal medulla/ganglia Laryngeal cartilage Tracheal cartilage ```
92
Progressive symptoms of hypothyroidism and diffuse goiter are consistent with what diagnosis
Lymphocytic (hoshimoto)thyroiditis)
93
Characteristic findings of hashimoto thyroiditis biopsy
Intense mononuclear infiltrate: lymphocytes and plasma cells Germinal centers Hurthle cells surounding residual follicles
94
What are the 3 reactions carried out by thyroid peroxidase
(Thyroid peroxidase = TPO) Oxidation of iodide Iodination of thyroglobulin Coupling reaction between 2 iodized tyrosine residues
95
Antibodies against ____ are present in >90% of patients with chronic lymphocytic (hoshimoto) thyroiditis
TPO (thyroid peroxidase)
96
alkaptonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of ____ metabolism
Tyrosine
97
Alkapotonuriais an auto recessive disorder of tyrosine metabolism that leads to the accumulation of ______
Homogentisic acid
98
The build up of homogentisic acid in alkaptonuria leads to what change in urine
Black color (homogentisic acid undergoes oxidation if sits around long enough and turns black)
99
What physical exam findings are seen in alkaptonuria
Ochronosis (blue-black pigmentation most evident in ears, nose, cheeks) Ochronotic artropathy
100
Wha hormone influences development of internal male genitalia, spermatoenesis, male sexual differentiation at puberty
Testosterone
101
What hormone influences the development of external male genitalia, growth of prostate, male pattern hair growth
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
102
What hormone influnces endometrial proiferation, development of ovarian granuosa cells, and breast development
Estrogen
103
Deficiency in what enzyme resultls in deminished conversion of testosterone to DHT in the male urogenital tract
5 alpha reductase type 2
104
Male pseudohermaphroditism will have what clinical features
Genitalia at birth can range from small phallus with hypospadias to ambiguous or female-type genitalia (many are raised female util reaching puberty)
105
Where is 5 alpha reductase type 1 found
Postpubescent skin
106
Where is 5 alpa reductase type 2 found
Genitals
107
For a patient with male pseudohermaphroditism who have a deficiency in 5alpha reductase type 2, what changes happen at peuberty?
5 alpha reductase type 1 is still functional --> male pattern muscle ass, voice deepening, penile and scrotal growth, testicular descent
108
Stress hyperglycemia is due to secretion of cortisol, catecholamines, glucagon, and proinflammatory cytokines increasing what metabolic processes
Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver
109
The release of proinflammatory cytokines is associated ith the increased expression of what GLUT transporter and therefore the decreased expression of what GLUT transporter
Increased GLUT1 | Decreased GLUT4
110
Proinflammatory cytokines promote increased expression of GLUT1 and decreased expression of GLUT4 resulting in increeased glucose uptake where?
Brain | Immune cells
111
Ezetimibe MOA
Decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol by inhibiting the Niemann-Pik C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) transporter
112
What physical exam findings can be seen in glucagonoma
Necrolytic migratory erythema Erythematous papules/plaques on face, perineum, and extremities Lesions enlarge and coalesce, leaving a central indurated area with peripheral blitering and scaling Diabetes mellitus GI symptoms
113
Glucagonoma arises from ____ cells
Alpha
114
Insulin increases or decreases pancreatic glucagon secretion?
Decreases
115
Insulin increases or decreases glycogen syntheis in the liver?
Increases
116
Insulin increases or decreases glycogenolysis in the liver?
Decreases
117
In diabetic keto acidosis describe the intracellular and extracellular potassium levels as either increased or decreased
Intracellular: decreased Extracellular: normal or increased
118
A nonselective beta blocker will decrease neurogenic or neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia?
Neurogenic
119
Neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia are mediated via _____ and ___ release
Norepinephrine/epinephrine | Acetylcholine
120
What are some neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia
``` Trmulousness Tachycardia Anxiety/arousal Sweating Hunger Paresthesias ```
121
Neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia include what?
Behavioral changes, confusion, visual disturbances, stupor, seizure
122
Thiazolidinedione binds PPAR gamma to decrease insulin resistance by upregulating what 2 genes
GLUT4 | Adiponectin
123
Fucntion of adiponectin
Increases number of insulin-responsive adipocytes Stiulates fatty acid oxidation (Cytokine secreted by fat tissue)
124
DiGeorge syndrome is due to a ______ microdeletion
22q11.2
125
In DiGeorge sydnrome, the neural crest fails to migrate into the derivatives of what 2 pharyngeal pouches
3 and 4
126
Why will patients with DiGeorge syndrome have hypocalcmia
Insuficienct parathyroid growth (arises from 3rd (inferior) and 4th (superior) pouches)
127
Describe Chvostek sign seen in patients with DiGeorge syndrome
Tapping on the facial nerve --> twitching of nose and lips
128
Describe Trousseau sign seen in patients with DiGeorge syndrome
Inflation of bloo pressure cuff --> carpal spasm
129
Sheehan syndrome presents with panhypopituitarism due to ______ of the pituitary gland
Ischeic necrosis
130
Why are women susceptible to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland peripartum
Estrogen levels during pregnancy --> enlargement of pituitary gland without proportional increase in blood supply (even higher risk if paeripartum hypotension occurs due to peripartym hemorrhage (low hemoglobin can indicate this))
131
Estrogen effects what part of the bone which results in ceasation of bone growth
Epiphyseal plate
132
Why might a patient with thyroid hormone resistance present with tachycardia and ADHD
Most cases are due to an inherited mutation in thyroid hormone receptor beta. Thyroid receptor alpha is found in higher level in the CNS and heart
133
Congenital adrenal cortical hyperplasia and elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone and testosterone is most commonly due to a deficiency in what enzyme
21-hydroxylase
134
Why do girls present earlier (at birth) than boys (around age 2-4) with 21-hydroxylase deficiency
21-hydrozylase deficiency --> increased testosterone --> ambiguous genitalia for females at birth Boys will have normal genitalia but begin early virilization (body odor, pubic hair)
135
Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase causes adrenal cortical hyperplasia due to excess stimulation of the adrenal cortex by _____
ACTH
136
Treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase defiency can be treated by targeting the supression of what hormone in order to limit androgen over production?
``` Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (Impaired cortisol synthesis --> increased ACTH release --> stimulate adrenal cortex and adrenal adrogen overproduction) ```
137
Thiomides (methimazole, propylthiouracil) MOA
Inhibit thyroid peroxidase
138
How can chronic adrenal insufficiency be fatal during a medical procedure?
Severe stress normally --> increased glucocorticoid | Adrenal insufficiency cannot produce more --> adrenal crisis (hypotension, shock)
139
In a patient with adrenal insuficiency why would skin hyperpigmentation be highly suggestive of primary adrenal insufficiency rather than secondary?
Primary adrenal insufficiency --> increased ACTH secretion ACTH is derived from POMC (proopiomelanocortin) which is prohormone of melanocyte stimulating hormone as well, therefore increased ACTH secretion --> increased MSH secretion --> hyperpigmentation
140
What is the most common cause of primary adrenal insuficiency? Is it more often bilateral or unilateral?
Autoimmune adrenalitis | Bilateral
141
What is the main function of brown adipose tissue in humans
Heat production
142
Brown adipose cells contain more miochondria than white adipose cells and function to produce heat by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation with the protein ______
Thermogenin
143
In a patient with hypertension, elevated triglyceride, and a an elevated fasting glucose, what is another physical characteristic that is most suggestive of increased insulin resistance?
Increased weight circumfrance (indicates high visceral fat) | This question was getting at metabolic syndrome
144
Glucocorticoids have what effect on hepatic gluconeogenesis? Glycogenosis?
Increase, increase | Liver enyzme expression with be increased as a result
145
Metformin inhibits glycerophosphate dehydrogenase and complex I in the mitochondria to reduce substrates for what metabolic process
Gluconeogenesis
146
Metformin upregulates AMPK in hepatocytes which inhibits what metabolic process
Lipogenesis
147
Gynecomastia is due to increased _____ to androgen ratio in males
Estrogen
148
Why can tamoxifen be useful in treating males with gynecomastia
Selective estrofen receptor modulator that acts as an estrgen antagonist in the breast
149
Leuprolide MOA
GnRH analog (used to suppress testosterone levels in tx of prostate cancer)
150
In what tissues are the glucose transporter proteins found that are upregulated in response to insulin?
Muscle cells | Adipocytes
151
A patient with type 1 diabetes is having overflow incontinence. What is the likely source of these symptoms?
Diabetic autonomic neuropathy affecting detrusor muscle innervation (Initially infrequent urination bc unable to sense full bladder then incomplete emptying due to loss of inervation to detruser)
152
``` Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoglycemia in insulin-treated diabetes Infection Pain Sleep deprivation Intense exercise Mental stress ```
Intense exercise (The rest cause hyperglycemia due to production of counterregulatory hormones such as catecholamines and cortisol which increase glyconolysis and gluconeogenensis)
153
What hormones are produced in cells with highly developed, smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Steroid hormones | Smooth ER involved in synthesis and processing of hydrophobic compounds
154
The initial step in the synthesis of steroid hormones is the conversion of ______ to pregnenolone in the mitochondria
Cholesterol
155
In a patient with cushing syndrome with normal-elevated ACTH levels, high-does dexamethasone supression test resulted in supression of ACTH and cortisol levels. What is causing the Cushing syndrome?
Pituitary adenoma
156
In a patient with Cushing syndrome and normal-elevated ACTH levels, a high-dose dexamethasone supression test does not change ACTH or cortisol levels. What is the cause of the patient's cushing syndrome?
Ectopic ACTH production
157
In a patient with Cushing syndrome and supressed levels of ACTH, what are 3 possible causes of the cushing syndrome?
Adrenal adenoma Adrenal malignancy Exogenous glucocorticoid intake
158
Corticotropin-releasing hormone is released from the ___ to stimulate release of _____
Hypothalamus | ACTH
159
How will long term exogenous glucocorticoid use effect endogenous CRH, ATCH, and cortisol synthesis/release
Decrease all of them
160
How is insulin cleared
Hepatic and renal
161
Why might a patient with CKD who is being treated for type 1 diabetes suddenly begin having hypoglycemic episoides despite no change in treatment
CKD --> less renal clearance
162
Insulin causes an increase in glycolysis by activating _____ , the enzyme that produces fructos 2,6-bisphosphate
Phosphofructokines-2 (PFK2)
163
The most potent stimulator of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1) is _____
Fructose 2,6-bisphospate
164
Hypercortisolism causes hyper- or hypo-glycemia?
Hyperglycemia
165
What pathologic finding is preseent in the adrenal glads with ACTH dependent Cushing Syndrome
Bileteral hyperplasia involving the zona fasciculata and reticularis
166
ACTH is the major trophic hormone for which area(s) of the adrenal gland while angiotensin II is the major trophic hormone for which area(s)?
ACTH: zon fasciculata and reticularis | Angiotensin II: zona glomerulosa
167
Exopthalmos in Grave's disease is treatd by what medication
Glucocorticoids
168
Binding of PCSK9 to _____ increases degradation --> decreased uptake of circulating LDL into hepatocytes
LDL receptor
169
Evolocumab MOA
PCSK9 inhibitor (decrease LDL-R degredation)
170
What is the peak for subcutaneously administered regular insulin
2-4 hours
171
What is the most sensitive test for primary hypothyroidism
TSH
172
how does TNF alpha affect the insulin receptor
TNF alpha activate serine kinases --> phosphorylate beta subunits on insulin receptor and insulin receptor substrate 1 --> inhibits tyrosine phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate by the insulin receptr
173
what are 4 things that inhibit the insulin receptor by phosphorylation by serine kinase
TNF alpha catecholamines glucocorticoids glucagon
174
what tyrosine panel levels will be abnormal in euthryoid sickness sydrome
low T3 | aka low T3 syndrome
175
what causes low T3 levels in euthyroid sick syndrome
high cortisol, inflammatory cytokines and free fatty acids suppress 5' deiodinase
176
multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 classification (3)
primary hyperparathyroidism pituitary tumors pancreatic tumors
177
multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A classifications (3)
medullary thyroid cancer pheochromatoma primary hyperparathyroidism
178
multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B classifications (3)
medullary thryoid cancer pheochromocytoma mucosal neuromas/marfanoid habitus
179
estrogen is synthesized from androgens by _____
aromatase
180
expression of aromatase in ovarian tissue is dependent on _____
gonadotropin
181
anastrozole MOA
aromatase inhibitor
182
maple syrup urine disease, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the defective breakdown of _______
branched chain amino acids
183
what are the branched chain amino acids
leucine isoleucine valine
184
branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase complex requires what 5 cofactos
``` thiamine lipoate coenzyme A FAD NAD (tender loving care for nancy) ```
185
diet restriction and ___ supplementation can be used in managing patients with maple syrup urine disease
thiamine
186
methimazole is preferred for most patients due to what side effect of PTU
hepatotoxicity
187
what are the two potential diagnoses for a thyroid nodule that reveals neoplastic follicular cells and microfollicles
``` follicular adenoma (benign) follicular carcinoma (malignant) ```
188
how are folicullar adenomas and follicular thyroid carcinomas differentiated
follicular thyroid carcinomas invade the tumor capsule and/or surrounding blood vessels
189
what thyroid neoplasm tends to spread hematogenously
follicular thyroid carcinoma
190
11 beta hydroxylase leads to a build up of aldosterone and cortisol precursors which are then shunted toward adrenal ____ synthesis
androgen
191
what deficiency can cause ambiguous genitalia (virilization) in XX females
11 beta hydroxylase
192
11 beta hydroxylase deficiency leads to hypertension and hypokalemia how?
build up of 11-deoxycorticosterone which acts a mineralcorticoid
193
Hormone sensitive lipase is activated by what?
Stress hormones (catecholamines, glucagon, ACTH)
194
Hormone sensitive lipase is inhibitted by ____
Insulin
195
In Graves disease antibodies against ___ are present
Thyrotropin (TSH) receptor
196
In chornic lymphocytic (Hashimoto) thyroidits, ____ antibody is present
Thyroid peroxidase
197
What effect do the antibodies in Grave's disease have?
TSH receptor antagonist (Gs)
198
What causes hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis
Excessive calitriol formation by activated macrophages
199
A hypothalamic mass such as neurosarcoidosis (sarcoidosis involvement of hypothalamus) could cause increase in which of the pituitary hormones
Prolactin
200
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 is characterized by what 3 things?
Medullary thyroid cancer Pheochromocytoma Parathyroid hyperplasia (type 2A) or marganoid habitus and mucosal neuromas (type 2B)
201
Medullary thyroid cancer is a neuroendocrine tumor that arises from what cells
Parafollicular calcitonin-secreting C cells
202
What is seen microscopically in medullay thyroid cancer
Nests or sheets of polygonal or spindle shaped cells | Extracellular amyloid deposits
203
Amyloid deposits in medullary thyroid cancer is derived from ____ secreted by neoplastic C cells and stains with ____
Calcitonin | Congo red
204
Pulsatile secretion of GnRH from hypothalamus stimulates the release of ____ and ____
FSH | LH
205
FSH and LH are prouced by ____ cells in the anterior pituitary
Gonadotroph
206
LH stimulates _____ release from ___ cells
Testosterone | Leydig (in testes)
207
FSH stimulates the release of ____ from ____ cells
Inhibin B | Sertoli (testes)
208
Inhibin B suppresses _____ secretion
FSH
209
Why will patients with only one testicle have elevated FSH
Less sertoli cells --> less inhibin B to supress FSH release
210
What causes hyperpigmentation in a patient with Addison disease
Increased release of melanocyte stimulating hormone (decreased cortisol feedback on pituitary gland)
211
The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is autoimmune adrenalitis which results from autoantibodies against _____ zones in the adrenal cortex
All 3
212
How does Addisons disease affect Na, K, Cl, and bicarb levels
Decreased aldosterone --> decreased Na and increased K and H Low H excretion --> nonanion gap metabolic acidosis with low plasma bicarb --> Cl retention to maintain electrical neutrality of extracellular fluid (Decreased Na and bicarb, increased K and Cl)
213
What is the most common cause of acromegaly
Pituitary somatotroph adenoma --> increased growth hormone release
214
How does excessive GH in acromegaly cause joint pain
Hyperplasia of articular chondrocytes and synovial hypertrophy --> degeneration of articular cartilage and periarticualr bone resembling osteoarthritis
215
If a patient presents with antidiabetic drug induced hypoglycemia and an increased C peptide level, what are the possible drugs that could cause this
Sulfonylureas | Meglitinides
216
Gastrin secreating tumors can occur in association with what?
Multiple endocrine neoplasia
217
What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
A gastric secreting pancreatic tumor
218
Why would you ask a patient with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome if they have a family history of recurrent kidney stones
Zollinger-Ellison could be due to MEN1 which is also associated with hyperparathyroidism (can cause kidney stones)
219
Diabetic ketoacidosis most commonly affects patients with which type of diabetes?
Type 1
220
The destruction of beta cells in type I diabetes is primarily through _______
Cell mediated immunity (islet leukocytic infiltration)
221
Congenital goiter causing hypothyroidism with increased TSH and low free T4 can be caused by maternal medication with what drug?
Propulthiouracil or antithyroid medication
222
Congenital goiter that causes hyperthyroidism with decreased TSH and elevated free T4 can be due to transplacental _______ antibodies
TSH receptor-stimulating | Neonatal Graves disease
223
Patients with sheehan syndrome will have ______ (central or peripheral) _____(hyper or hypo) thyroidism
Central | Hypo
224
What is the purpose of treating patients with thyroid cancer with levothyroxine
Supress pituitary secretion of TSH which can promote growth f residual malgnant cells following thyroidectomy
225
Agranulocytosis due to propylthioruacil use most commonly present as _____
``` Oropharyngeal infection (fever, sore throat, oral ulcerations) (Sepsis can develop quickly after)0 ```
226
Why can erythrocytes not use ketone bodies for energy
They lack mitochondria
227
Why can the liver not use ketone bodies for energy
Liver lacks succinyl CoA-acetoacetate CoA transferase | Required to convert acetoacetate to acetoactyl CoA
228
How does cortisol cause increased blood pressure
Stimualtion of mineralcorticoid receptors (sodium retention) Increased angiotensinogen production (increased vasoconstriction) Increased adrenergic sensitivity (vasoconstriction)
229
Primary hyperaldosteronism causes what changes in Na, K, and bicarb
Na: normal K: low Bicarb: high
230
How does hyperaldosteronism cause metabolic alkalosis
Increased H+ excretion by alpha intercalated cells --> bicarb production
231
Why are normal serum Na levels seen in hyperaldosteronism depsite increased Na reabsorption
Aldosterone escape Incerased intravascular volume --> increased renal blood flow --> pressure natriuresis --> limits net sodium retention and prevents development of overt volume overloadand significant hypernatremia
232
After glucose enters the beta cell, it is metabilized to glucose-6-phosphate by what enzyme
Glucokinase
233
What is the role of glucokinase in beta cells
Functions as a glucose sensor Its lower glucose affinity than other hexokinases allows it to limit the rate of glucose entry into the glyolytic pathway based on glucose levels
234
How does maturity onset diabetes of the young differ from type 2 diabetes mellitus
MODY: mild hyperglycemia that often woresns with pregnancy induced insulin resistance. Patients are typically younger and nonobese. Non progressive condition, even without treatment
235
Mutations in glucokinase gene lead to what effect on insulin secretion
Higher glucose levels are required to stimulate insulin secretion
236
What are incretins
Gastrointestinal hormones produced by gut mucosa | Stimulate insulin secretion in response to sugar containing meals
237
Incretins are secreted in response to what? Do blood glucose levels affect incretin release?
Oral consumption of glucose | No
238
Pituitary apoplexy usually occurs in a preexisting _____
Pituitary adenoma
239
Patients with pituitary apoplexy can develop cardiovascular colapse, how?
ACTH deficiency and subsequent adrenocortical insufficiency
240
Pituitary apoplexy is a medical emergency that requires urgen neurosurgical consultation and what pharmalogic treatment?
Glucocorticoids (to treat the adrenal isufficiency which can cause cardiovascular colapse)
241
Define macrosomia, a common finding in infants of diabetic mothers
Used to describe newborns who are much larger than average (more than 8 lbs 14 oz)
242
Poorly controld maternal glucose leads to excessive transplacental ____ transfer to the fetus
Glucose
243
What pancreatic changes occur in a fetus who is recieving excessive transplaental glucose from a mother who is poorly controling their glucose levels
Beta cell hyperplasia --> hyperinsulinism
244
_____ is a catecholamine secreting neoplasm arising from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
Pheochromocytoma
245
Why must patients with medullary thyroid cancer and RET mutation be screened for pheochromocytoma before surgery?
Induction of anesthesia --> catecholamine surge --> hypertensive crisis, flash pulmonary edema, and atrial fibrillation
246
How do SGLT2 inhibitors reduce hyperfiltration
They increase sodium delivery to macula densa --> decreased renin secretion (--> delayed progression of nephropathy)
247
How does diabetes stimulate RAAS in the kidneys?
Excessive filtered glucose --> sodium reabsorbed with glucose by SGLT2 --> less sodium delivered to macula densa --> renin secretion
248
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea, seen in patients with anorexia nervosa, is caused by decreased serum ____ levels
Leptin
249
In funcitonal hypothalamic amenorrhea, decreased serum leptin has what effect on GnRH?
Decreased leptin levels --> inhibits pulsatile GnRH
250
How does functional hypothalamic amenorrhea affect LH and FSH secretion
Both are decreased
251
How are circulating estrogen levels effected in functional hypothalamic amnorrhea
Decreased
252
Prostate enlargement in BPH is driven primarily by what hormone
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
253
DHT is derivedfrom testosterone by ____ in peripheral tissues
5 alpha reductase
254
Finasteride MOA
5 alpha reductase inhibitor
255
What are the side effects associated with 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
Decrease libido, erectile dysfunction, decreased ejaculation volume (due to low DHT) Gynecomastia (residual testosterone availible for conversion to estradiol)
256
In menopause, how is FSH effected?
Increased (lack of feeback from inhibin from follicles)
257
An elevated serum ____ level confirms diagnosis of menopause
FSH
258
What is the function of FSH in the sertoli cells
Induce androgen binding protein production which concentrates. Testosterone in teh seminiferous tubuls and facilitates spermatogenesis
259
What provides feedback regulation to FSH
Inhibin
260
How does a unilateral orchiectomy affect erectile function and sperm count
Sperm count: decreased | Erectile function: normal
261
A patient with 45, XO karyotype has what syndrome that may present with webbed neck, delayed growth, low set ears, arched palate and cubitus valgus.
Turner syndrome
262
What can be used to treat patients with Turner syndrome in order to normalize height
Growth hormone
263
Growth hormone receptor is what class of receptor
JAK STAT
264
_____ is secreted by intestinal L cells in response to food intake and regulaes glucose levels by slowing gastric emptying, suppressing glucagon secretion, and increasing glucose-dependent insulin release
GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide-1)
265
GLP-1 is degraded by _____
DDP-4 (dipeptidyl peptidase 4)
266
What test should be run prior to starting a patient on SGLT2 inhibitors
Serum ceatinine to determine the GFR (the effectiveness of SGLT2 inhibitors is dependent on GFR)
267
What is the most common cause of death in patients with diabetes mellitus
Coronary heart disease
268
What is reverse T3
An inactive form of thyroid hormone that is generated almost entirely from peripheral conversion of T4
269
What is xanthelasma?
A type of xanthoma usually found on the medial eyelid | Yellowish macules/papules
270
What is xanthoma
Dermal accululations of benign apparing macrophages with abundant, finelyvacuolated (foamy)cytoplasm containing cholesterol, phospholipids, and triglycerides
271
What can cause xanthomas, including xanthlasmas
Hyperlipidemia and/or dyslipidemia
272
After an obese patient loses 15 pounds what are the likely changes to be seen in grhelin, leptin, and insulin
Ghrelin: increased Leptin: decreased Insulin: decreased
273
What receptor/second messanger system does glucagon use to exert its effects
Adenulate cyclase: Gs --> adenylate cyclase --> cAMP --> PKA
274
What 2 tests should be monitored when administering testosterone therapy
PSA (prostate specific antigen) indicates increased prostate volume which increases risk of prostate cancer Hematocrit: should not be started on patients with hematocrit >50% because testosterone can induce erythrocytosis --> increased blood viscocity --> increased risk of thromboembolism
275
Parasympathetic stimulation of ____ receptors promotes insulin secretion and is induced by the smell and/or sight of food
M3
276
Stimulation of ___ adrenergic receptors stimulates insulin release and stimulation of ___ adrenergic receptors inhibits insulin release
Beta 2 | Alpha 2
277
Which adrenergic receptor mediated response is predominant in beta cells
Alpha 2 (sympathetic stimulation leads to overall inhibition of insulin secretion)
278
What is the likely diagnosis of a 7 yr old boy with 4 cm multiloculated, cystic, supracella lesion with calcifications
Craniopharyngioma
279
Craniopharyngiomass are tumors arisingfrom remnants of ___
Rathkes pouch
280
How does glucagon restore blood glucose
Inducing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver
281
What are the most common hormonally active adenomas
Prolactinoma
282
How will male patients present with prolactinomas
Mass effect: headaches, bitemporal heminanopsia | Supression of GnRH: hypogonadism (impotence, decreased libido, infertility)
283
Hypertension and muscle weakness may be due to overactivity of what area in the adrenal gland
Zona glomerulosa
284
Overactivity of the adrenal zona glomerulosa will result in increased secretion of what
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
285
What is the function of aldosterone
Sodium retention | Decreased potassium and H+ reabsorption
286
What crosses the placenta and allows newborns with hypohyroidism to appear asymptomatic
T4
287
What is vitilization
Occurs with very high andreogen levels | Characterized by clitoromegaly, increased muscularity, and voice deepending in addition to hirsutism
288
What is the most common cause of hirsutism
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
289
Where is somatostatin released from
Pancreatic delta cells
290
Somatostatin decreases the release of what? (6)
``` Secretin Cholecystokinin Glucagon Insulin Gastrin Growth hormone ```
291
Gallbladder stones in a somatostatinoma is due to the inhibition of what?
Cholecystokinin (normally causes gallbladder contraction)
292
MOA glyburide
Sulfonylurea
293
How can hypothyroidism cause elevated prolactin levels
Increasedd TRH --> prolactin release
294
Diabetes insipidus leads to increased osmolarity and contracted volumes in ICF, ECF, or both?
Both
295
In diabetes insipidus, is the volume contraction isosmotic, hyposmotic, or hyperosmotic
Hyperosmotic (loss of free water with retention of electrolytes)
296
What causes amenorrhea in a female with low body weight
Low leptin --> inhibits pulsatile GnRH from hypothalamus -> low FSH and LH release --> low estrogen --> emenorrhea
297
What is Kallmann syndrome
Absence of GnRH secretory neurons in hypothalamus due to defective migration from the olfactory placode Presentation: hypogonadism and anosmia that often present with delayed puberty
298
What is the primary source of ATP at the begining (first 10 sec) of exercise
Phosphocreatine shuttle
299
How does SGLT2 inhibitor cause decreased sodium levels
SGLT2 is a sodium/glucose symptor, when inhibitted it increases both Na and glucose secretion
300
Why would a patient with MEN type 2B have episodic headaches
Pheochromocytoma --> catecholamines -> paroxysmal hypertension and tachycardia --> increase in BP --> headache
301
What can cause paresthesias and muscle weakeness in patients with primary hyepraldosteronism
Excess urinary K and H secretion
302
Do patients with primary hyperaldosteronism have significant fluid volume expansion? Why?
No | Aldosterone escape
303
What 2 hormones are dependent on neurophysins
Oxytocin | Vasopressin
304
Niemann-pick disease is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder caused by a deficiency in ____
Sphingomyelinase
305
What are the key features of Niemann-Pick disease
Macular cherry red spot Progressive neurodegeneration Hepatosplenomegaly
306
How will radioactive iodine uptake change in subactute (de Qyervain) thyroiditis
Decrease ( decreased thyroid metabolic activity and organification of iodine due to loss of TSH)
307
What is the pathophysiology of postpardum thyroiditis
Autoimmune distrution of thyroid follicles and release of preformed thyroid horone Lymphocytic infiltrates and sometimes germinal centers present
308
How does cystic fibrosis cause increased serum glucose during glucose tolerance testing
Thick, inspissated secretions blok the lumen of pancreatic ducts --> destruction of pancreatic islet cells --> decreased insulin production --> CF related diabetes
309
How does estrogen tratment effect thyroid hormone levels
Estrogen increases thyroglobulin --> increased bound T4 and transient decrease in fre T4 and T3 until TBG is saturated andT3 and T4 normalize --> increased total T4
310
What test should be done before begining metformin treatment
Serum creatinine measurement (contraindicated in renal dysfucntion due to increased risk of lactic acidosis)
311
What are tamoxifen's effects in breast, bone and endometrial tissue
Breast: estrogen antagonist Bone: estrogen agonist Endometrium: estrogen agonist
312
What are raloxifene's effects in the breast, bone, and endometrial ltissue
Breast: antagonist Bone: agonist Endometrium: antagonist
313
How does chronic glucocorticoid use accelerate osteoperosis
Inhibit proliferation and differentiations of osteoblast precursosrs Increased expression of RANK and RANK-L Supressed calcium absorption and reabsorption --> increased clacium release from bone
314
What type of receptor is the insulin receptor
Transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor --> phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1
315
Activation of what kinase inducs the metabolic functions of insulin
Phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) | Stimulates GLUT4 translocation, glycogen synthesis, fat synthesis
316
Insulin activates phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase which activates _____ which dephosphorylates glycogen synthase, leading to its activation and promoting glycogen synthesis
Protein phosphatase
317
What is the likely diagnosis of a patient presenting with a history of hypothyroidism, weight loss, hyperpigmentation, abdominal pain, vomiting, weakness, fever, severe hypotension and refractory shock
Adrenal crisis (with chronic primary adrenal insufficiency)
318
What is the treatment fo acute adrenal crisis
``` Agressive fluid resuscitation Glucocorticoid supplementation (hydrocortisone or dexamethasone) ```
319
In a non medical setting (without venous access), sever hypoglycemia, causing loss of consciousness can be treated how?
Emergency glucagon kit: intranasal or subcutaneous/intramuscular formulations
320
In an emergency setting, subcutaneous administration of glucagon corrects hypoglycemia how?
Increasing hepatic glycogenolysis
321
How does hypothyroidism cause elevated total cholesterol
Decreased expression of LDL receptor expression --> decreased clearance of LDL (May also decrease LDL receptor activity and biliary excretion of cholesterol)
322
How can hypothyroidism cause hypertriglyceridemia?
Decreased expression of lipoprotein lipase
323
What causes hypoglycemia in neonates born from mothers with diabetes
Hyperfuctioning of pancreatic beta cells
324
Patients with long standing type 1 diabetes can have increased risk of hypoglycemia due to decreased ___ secretion
Glucagon (long standing diabetes patients frequently also have alpha cell failure)
325
21 hydroxylase is responsible for conversion of ____ to _____
Progesterone --> 11 deoxycorticosterone And 17 hydroxyprogesterone --> 11 deoxycortisol
326
Deficiency of 21 hydroxylase deficieny causes a build up of 17 hydroxyprgesterone which is then shunted toward ____ production
Androgen
327
Labratory studies in all forms of 21 hydroxylase deficiency reveal elevated _____ and ____ levels
17 hydroxyprogesterone | Testosterone
328
FSH stimulates ____ release and ____ production from Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules
Inhibin B | Androgen binding protein
329
What is the most commno inborn error of methionin metabolism leading to ectopia lentis (dislocated lens), intellectual disability, and marfanoid habitus?
Homocystinuria
330
Homocystinuria is most frequently caused by an autosomal recessive deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase, an enzyme that requires _____ as a cofactor
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) | (50% patients repsond to pyrdoxine supplementation_
331
Homocystinuria is most commonly caused by a deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase and can be treated by dietary restriction of _____
Methionine
332
Excessive vitamin D can cause symptomatic ______
Hypercalcemia
333
Presentation of hypercalcemia
(Due to impaired depolarization of neuromuscular membranes) Weakness Constipation Confusion (Impaired concentration of urine in distal tubule) Polyuria Polydipsia
334
How do granulomatous diseases such as sarcoidosis and tuberculosis caues hypercalcemia
They can have PTH independent conversion of 25 hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25 hydroxyvitamin D due to expresion of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in activated macrophages
335
How can hyperparathyrdism cause constipation
High PTH --> hypercalcemia --> inhibitted nerve depolarization --> impaired smooth muscle contraction and reduced colonic motility
336
____ is secreted by intestinal L cells in response to food intake and regulates glucose by slowing gastric emptying, supressing glucagon secretion, and increasing glucose-dependent insulin release
GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide)
337
Deposits of ___ are universally seen in the pancreatic islets of patients with type 2 diabetes
Amylin
338
How do 5 alpha reductase inhibitos cause gynecomastia
By blocking the conversion of testosterone to DHT, te excess testosterone is availble for conversion to gynecomastia
339
A patient presenting with infertility, gynecomastia, and long lower extremeties is suggestive of what diagnosis
Klinefeler syndrome
340
What is klinefelter syndrome cause by
Chromosomal disorder: 47, XXY
341
Klinefelter syndrome is the most common cause of male hypogonadism. How does it cause male hypogonadism?
Progressive destruction and hyalinization of the sminiferous tubules, leading to small, firm testes Sertoli cells are damaged --> decreased inhibin levels Leydig cells damaged --> decreased testosterone Loss of feeback inhibition --> increased FSH and LH
342
Cholestyramine MOA
Bile acid-binding resin
343
How do bile acid binding resins such as cholestyramine cause hypertriglyceridemia
Increase hepatic production of triglycerides and increase the release of triglyceride heavy VLDL particles into circulation
344
How does low cortisol contribute to hyponatremia
Cortisol usually inhibits ADH
345
Primary adrenal insufficiency affects what portions of the adrenal gland
All 3 layers of the cortex
346
Normal aging causes what changes to free testosterone, total testosterone, LH, and serum sex hormone-binding globulin
Free Testosterone: decreased Total testosterone: decreased LH: increased (due to decreased testosterone feedback) Sex hormone binding globulin: increased
347
Niemann-Pick disease is characterized _______ deficiency
Sphingomyelinase
348
What fundoscopic finding is consistant with Niemann-Pick disease
Cherry-red macular spot
349
What are 3 clinical features of Niemann-Pick disease
Hepatosplenomegaly Neurological regression Cherry-red macular spot
350
What behavior often causes weight gain in patients who initiate insulin therapy for type 2 diabetes
Patients may eat more to supress feelings of hypoglycemia | Should inquire about paitents perspective on appetite, dietary patterns, and hypoglycemic symptoms
351
Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of ___ cells in the _____ characterized by increased production of ____
Chromaffin Adrenl medulla Catecholamines
352
Pheochromocytoma stains positive for what 3 stains?
Synaptophysin Chromogranin Neuron-specific enolase
353
Failure of serum 11-deoxycortisol and urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroid levels to rise in response to metyrapone indicate what?
Either primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency
354
Metyrapone blocks ___ synthesis by inhibiting 11 beta hydroxylase
Cortisol
355
List the 3 characteristics of MEN type 1
Primary hyperparathyroidism Pituitary tumors Pancreatic tumors
356
In SIADH, what is the volume status and sodium status
Euvolemic | Hyponatremia
357
In congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylse deficiency, how will aldosterone, cortisol, and androgen production be affected
Decreased aldosterone and cortisol production | Increased androgen production
358
How does 21 hydroxylase deficiency present in male patients
1-2 weeks after birth with vomiting, hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia due to salt wasting, genitalia are normal
359
What cellular mechanism causes hypoglycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes
Increased transocation of GLUT4 induced by muscle contraction --> increased glucose uptake during exercise
360
What is the most common cause of secondary hyperthyroidism
TSH secreting pituitary adenoma
361
Hypertension, hypokalemia, and absent secondary sexual characteristics, and a blind puch vagina in a person with X,Y chromosome indicate a deficiency in what enzyme
17 alpha hydroxylase
362
Elevated TSH and low T4 in a newborn who has normal length and weight likely has what diagnosis
Thyroid dysgenesis
363
In the polyol pathway, glucose is converted into ____ by aldose reductase, which is trapped inside the cell until it is converted into ____ to facilitate excretion
Sorbitol | Fructose
364
Build up of ____ leads to cataracts in patients with diabetes
Sorbitol (and advanced glycosylation end products)
365
How does sorbitol lead to cell injury
Itt accumulates in certain cells and causes an influx of water --> osmotic cellular injury Also aldose reductase (converts glucose to sorbitol) depletes NADPH which increases oxidative strewss
366
What are signs that Cushing syndrome is ACTH dependent
Hyperpigmentation (MSH is derived from POMC also) Androgenization (ACTH stimualtes production of adrenal androgens --> increased DHEAS and hirtutism and menstrual abnormalities)
367
Why might a patient with lupus show signs of Cushing syndrome
Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome from chronic glucocorticoid use
368
Phentermine MOA
Stimulates the release and inhibits the reuptake of Norepinephrine
369
What mechanism is responsible for hyponatremia following a subarachnoid hemorrhage
Damage to hypothalamus --> excesive production of ADH
370
Beta thalassemia minor causes what hemoglobin changes
Decreased hemoglobin A | Inceased hemoglobin A2
371
Beta thalassemia major causes what hemoglobin changes
Hemoglobin A absent Hemoglobin A2 increased Hemoglobin F increased
372
How can hemolytic anemia give a misleadingly low hemoglobin A1C
Rapid erythrocyte turnover --> misleadingy low A1C
373
Diagnostic riteria for diabetes includes fasting plasma glucose _____, hemoglobin A1C ____, or random glucose _____ in a patient with symptoms of hyperglycemia, or oral glucose tolerance test ith plasma glucose _____
Fasting: > or equal to 126 A1C: > or equal to 6.5% Random: > or equal to 200 Glucose tolerance: > or equal to 200 (2 hrs after glucose ingestion)
374
what is acanthosis nigricans and what does it indicate
hyperpigmentation is skin folds | insulin resistance
375
how do chronically elevated free fatty acids contribute to insulin resistance
they impair insulin dependent glucose uptake and increase hepatic gluconeogenensis
376
what amino acids should be restricted from the diet of a patient with maple syrup urine disease
leucine isoleucine valine
377
what enzyme is deficient in patients with maple syrup urine disease
branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase complex
378
In a patient presenting with hyperthyroid symptoms, low TSH, elevated T4 and low thyroglobulin indicates what diagnosis
thyrotoxicosis from exogenous source (ie. levothyroxine tablets)
379
thyrotropin receptor antibodies are present in what disease
Graves disease
380
thyroid dermopathy is caused by stimulation of ____ by TRAb and activated T cells, leading to excess production of ____ and adipogenesis
fibroblasts | glycosaminoglycans
381
what is a common adverse side effect of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
medication induced body fat redistribution (lipoatrophy or lipodystrophy)
382
advanced atherosclerosis at a young age seen in both a father and a son causing early onset MI is likely due to decreased expression of what receptor
LDL receptor in the liver (familial hypercholesterolemia)
383
fibrates MOA
activate peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha (PPAR alpha) --> increased synthesis of lipoprotein lipase
384
what are the most effective agents for the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia
fibrates (fenofibrate, gemfibrozil)
385
what is the most common cause of inadequate thyroid hormone level in infants with treated hypothyroidism
``` rapid growth (which increases the physiologic need for thyroid hormone) another common reason is decreased absorption ```
386
what can cause poor intestinal absorption of levothyroxine
co administration with various foods (soy products) and certain medications (iron, calcium, antacids)
387
Growth hormone's growth promoting effects are primarily mediated by ____ which is released from the liver
IGF-1
388
besides rapid linear growth, what are other manifestations of gigantism in children
``` large hands and feet thickening of calvarium protrusion of jaw excessive sweating oily skin ```
389
if metoclopramide is not tolerated, what antibiotic can be used to treat gastroparesis
erythromycin
390
how is erythromycin prokinetic
it activates the motilin receptor in smooth muscle of the upper GI tract which results in persistaltic contractions
391
what changes in GnRH, LH, and testosterone are seen in a patient with a prolactinoma
GnRH, LH, and testosterone are all decreased
392
what vitamin D supplementation should be chosen for patients with hypoparathyroidism
calcitriol | calcidiol is dependent on PTH for conversion into calcitriol
393
high serum levels of _____ confirms diagnosis of infants with 21-hydroxylase deficiency
17-hydroxyprogesterone
394
21 hydroxylase is responsible for converting ____ into 11-deoxycorticosterone and 17-hydroxyprogesterone to _______
progesterone | 11-deoxycortisol
395
what does a TSH level
their current dose is too high
396
what is the most common risk of thyrotoxicosis due to thyroid replacement therapy
cardiovascular complications due to increased beta adrenergic receptor expression (A fib, angina, high output heart failure)