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Endocrine Drugs ,Antibiotic Drugs ,Cardiovascular Drugs > Endocrine Drugs ,Antibiotic Drugs ,Cardiovascular Drugs > Flashcards

Endocrine Drugs ,Antibiotic Drugs ,Cardiovascular Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

A chemical substance produced in the body that controls and regulates
the activity of certain cells or organs.

A

HORMONES

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2
Q

Releases neurotransmitters Norepinephrine and Epinephrine

A

Adrenal Medulla

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3
Q

Produces hormones called CORTICOSTERIODS

A

Adrenal Cortex

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4
Q

Glucocorticoid-

A

Cortisone,
Hydrocortisone

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4
Q

Glucocorticoid-

A

Cortisone,
Hydrocortisone

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5
Q

Mineralocorticoid -

A

Aldosterone

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6
Q

Gonadocorticoid-

A

Androgens

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7
Q

Potent immunosuppressants used to prevent organ-transplant rejection

A

GLUCOCORTICOIDS

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8
Q

Used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome

A

Dexamethasone

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9
Q

Impair the ability of
phagocytes and block
production of antibodies

A

IMMUNOSUPPRESSIVE

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10
Q

Produces Levothyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)

A

Regulates the rate of metabolism
, Growth and development

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11
Q

one of the principal fuels used by our body
[broken down to ATP]

A

Glucose

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12
Q

one of the principal fuels used by our body
[broken down to ATP]

A

Glucose

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13
Q

gliclazide and tolbutamide

A

Short acting

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14
Q

chlorpropamide, glibenclamide, glipizide

A

Longer acting

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15
Q

Also known as prokaryotes which are
single-celled organisms that lack a true
nucleus and nuclear membrane

A

BACTERIA

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16
Q

Substances that inhibit bacterial growth or kill
bacteria and other microorganisms

A

ANTIBACTERIAL DRUGS

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16
Q

Substances that inhibit bacterial growth or kill
bacteria and other microorganisms

A

ANTIBACTERIAL DRUGS

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17
Q

Equal to the sum of
the effects of two antibiotics

A

ADDITIVE EFFFECT

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18
Q

occurs when
one antibiotic increases the effectiveness of
the 2nd drug

A

POTENTIATIVE EFFECT

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19
Q

when two
drugs are used together, the desired effect
may be greatly reduced

A

ANTAGONISTIC EFFECT

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20
Q

primarily effective against one type of
organism (selective)

A

NARROW SPECTRUM

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21
Q

effective against gram-positive and gramnegative organisms

A

BROAD SPECTRUM

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22
Q

once the MO is identified in the
lab, the antibiotic therapy is tailored by using the most narrow-spectrum, least toxic drug based on C&S results

A

DEFINITIVE THERAPY

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23
Q

occurs when the antibiotics reduce
or completely eliminate the normal bacterial flora

A

SUPERINFECTION

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23
Q

occurs when the antibiotics reduce
or completely eliminate the normal bacterial flora

A

SUPERINFECTION

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24
Q

when signs and symptoms do not
improve

A

SUBTHERAPEUTIC

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25
Q

when a drug selected is known to
be the best drug that can kill the MO

A

EMPIRIC THERAPY

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26
Q

Have the broadest antibacterial actions of any antibiotics; Bactericidal and inhibit cell wall
synthesis and are often reserved for complicated body cavity and connective tissue infections

A

CARBAPENEMS

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27
Q

R-
I-
P-
E-
S-

A

R-RIFAMPICIN
I-ISONIAZID
P-PYRAZINAMIDE
E-ETHAMBUTOL
S- STREPTOMYCIN

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28
Q

term used to described fungal infection

A

Mycosis

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29
Q

works by inhibiting DNA and RNA polymerase and
raises the pH within the parasite which
interferes with the parasite’s ability to
metabolize and use erythrocyte’s
hemoglobin

A

Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine;
Mefloquine and Quinine

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30
Q

inhibit dihydrofolate
reductase, enzyme needed for
production of vital substances

A

Pyrimethamine

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31
Q

Binds and alters parasitic
DNA

A

Primaquine

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32
Q

blocks ACh which results to paralysis of the worm

A

Pyrantel

33
Q

potentiates CNS of the nematode
leading to paralysis

A

Ivermectin

34
Q

increases permeability of the cell
membrane of the worm which causes dislodgement on the site of residence which they are then killed by the host

A

Praziquantel

35
Q

destroys worm’s cytoplasm which
immobilizes and kills the worm

A

Albendazole

35
Q

destroys worm’s cytoplasm which
immobilizes and kills the worm

A

Albendazole

36
Q

inhibit helminth-specific enzyme

A

Thiabendazole

37
Q

lactating women,
children below 12y/o, eczematous rash

A

Amantadine

38
Q

in general,
severe allergy

A

Contraindications

39
Q

renal toxicity and those
receiving nephrotoxic drugs

A

Cidofovir

39
Q

renal toxicity and those
receiving nephrotoxic drugs

A

Cidofovir

40
Q

high teratogenic potential

A

Ribavirin

41
Q

STAGES OF HIV INFECTION

A
42
Q

early, general symptoms of disease (lymphadenopathy with fever, rash, sore
throat, night sweats, candidiasis. Patient is termed HIV positive. May still be able to
seroconvert .CD4 cells begin to drop

A

Stage 2

43
Q

severe symptoms, often leading to death – increasing destruction of helper
T cells, decline in immune function. When CD4 drops to 200 cells/mm3 below, severe
opportunistic infections and other system symptoms appear

A

Stage 4

44
Q

moderate symptoms – infection progresses, and opportunistic infection
begins

A

Stage 3

45
Q

asymptomatic infection (Few weeks to months after exposure)

A

Stage 1

46
Q

What are the GOALS OF HAART

A
  1. Decrease viral load to
    undetectable levels
  2. Preserve and increase number of
    CD4+ T cells
  3. Prevent resistance
  4. Have client in good clinical
    condition
  5. Prevent secondary infections and
    cancers
47
Q

what are the circulatory system has two primary functions

A

(1) delivery of oxygen, nutrients,
hormones, electrolytes, and other
essentials to cells and
(2) removal of carbon dioxide and
metabolic wastes from cells. In
addition, the system helps fight
infection

48
Q

load against which a
muscle exerts its force = arterial
pressure that the left ventricle
overcomes to eject blood

A

AFTERLOAD

49
Q

determined by 1)
myocardial contractility (force with
which the ventricles contract), 2)
cardiac afterload, 3) cardiac preload

A

STROKE VOLUME

50
Q

amount of tension
(stretch) applied to a muscle before
contraction = force of venous return

A

PRELOAD

50
Q

amount of tension
(stretch) applied to a muscle before
contraction = force of venous return

A

PRELOAD

51
Q

controlled by the ANS

A

HEART RATE

52
Q

Defined as a persistent
systolic pressure of
greater than 140mmHg
and/or a diastolic pressure
of greater than 90mmHg

A

HYPERTENSION

52
Q

Defined as a persistent
systolic pressure of
greater than 140mmHg
and/or a diastolic pressure
of greater than 90mmHg

A

HYPERTENSION

53
Q

amount of
blood ejected from the left
ventricle and measured in Lpm

A

CARDIAC OUTPUT

54
Q

resistance to blood flow
that is determined by the
diameter of the blood vessels and
vascular musculature

A

SVR

55
Q

achieve a blood pressure of
less than 140/90mmHg and for
patients with hypertension and
diabetes, less than 130/90mmHg

A

JNC 7

56
Q

morbidities and impact of patient’s
quality of life

A

Individualized considering co

57
Q

Works along the carbonic anhydrase enzyme system in the proximal convoluted tubule Carbonic Anhydrase is needed to make hydrogen ions for the exchange of sodium and water

A

MOA

58
Q

intense but subsides
within 15 mins of rest or medication and caused
mainly by atherosclerosis and can be triggered
by exertion or stress (cold, emotions) and
exacerbated by smoking, alcohol, coffee and
some drugs.

A

Chronic Stable Angina

58
Q

from spasms of the
smooth muscle that surrounds the coronary
arteries and occurs at rest without any triggers
but usually occurring at the same time of day

A

Vasospastic Angina

59
Q

early stage of progressive
artery disease characterized by pain increasing
in severity and frequency and may even occur at
rest

A

Unstable Angina

60
Q

potent
vasoconstrictor and
can prevent Na and
water resorption
causing diuresis

A

ACEI

61
Q

potent
vasodilator and
decreases systemic
vascular resistance

A

ARB

62
Q

reduce/block SNS
stimulation with
cardioprotective
quality

A

BB

63
Q

used as a topic
anesthetic is with added
epinephrine to control
bleeding in the area.
Never used intravenously

A

Lidocaine

64
Q

used to treat cardiac
conditions

A

Plain lidocaine solution

65
Q

hemostatic drugs, promote blood
coagulation

A

Anti-fibrinolytic

66
Q

breaks down clots and thrombi that have
already formed

A

Thrombolytic

66
Q

breaks down clots and thrombi that have
already formed

A

Thrombolytic

67
Q

alter platelet function without preventing
the platelets from working

A

Hemorrheologic

68
Q

prevent platelet plugs from forming by
inhibiting platelet aggregation

A

Antiplatelet

68
Q

prevent platelet plugs from forming by
inhibiting platelet aggregation

A

Antiplatelet

69
Q

inhibit the action or formation of clotting
factors and prevents clots from forming

A

Anti-coagulants

69
Q

inhibit the action or formation of clotting
factors and prevents clots from forming

A

Anti-coagulants

70
Q
  • inhibits cyclooxygenase in the platelet to prevent formation of TXA2
    (thromboxane is an enzyme that causes vessels to constrict and platelets to aggregate)
A

ASPRIN

71
Q

– inhibits ADP to prevent signal to aggregate and form a clot

A

CLOPIDOGREL

72
Q

reduces viscosity of the blood by increasing the flexibility of the
RBVs

A
  • PENTOXYFYLLINE
72
Q

reduces viscosity of the blood by increasing the flexibility of the
RBVs

A
  • PENTOXYFYLLINE
73
Q

reduced platelet aggregation via inhibition of T3 Phosphodiesterase

A

CILOSTAZOL

73
Q

reduced platelet aggregation via inhibition of T3 Phosphodiesterase

A

CILOSTAZOL

Endocrine Drugs ,Antibiotic Drugs ,Cardiovascular Drugs (1 decks)

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