Engine ops Flashcards

1
Q

A small, wall-mounted safe that holds building keys for emergency retrieval.

A

knox box

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2
Q

The simultaneous ignition of all surfaces and objects within a space due to their heated temperature.

A

Flashover

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3
Q

An explosion caused by the sudden entry of oxygen into an oxygen-deficient smoldering fire.

A

Backdraft

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4
Q

The movement of heated gases from the fire area into unaffected areas, resulting in flames within layers of smoke.

A

Rollover

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5
Q

The separation of fire gases into layers based on temperature, with the hottest gases at the top and cooler gases at the bottom.

A

Stratification

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6
Q

The amount of energy released by a fire over a specific period of time.

A

Heat release rate

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7
Q

The procedures used to prepare personnel at the beginning of their shifts.
a) Personnel readiness
b) Roll call
c) Line-up
d) Accountability

A

Roll call

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8
Q

The sharing of important information between outgoing and incoming shift members.
a) Personnel briefing
b) Transfer of responsibilities
c) Shift change update
d) Information exchange

A

Information exchange

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9
Q

The process of updating administrative tracking functions to reflect staffing at the start of a shift.
a) Personnel update
b) Roster management
c) Logbook maintenance
d) Staffing reflection

A

Logbook maintenance

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10
Q

The inspections conducted to ensure equipment and apparatus are in good working condition.
a) Inventory check
b) Equipment maintenance
c) Apparatus examination
d) Condition assessment

A

Equipment maintenance

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11
Q

The examination of hose loads, racks, nozzles, and appliances by engine company firefighters.
a) Equipment familiarity check
b) Hose deployment inspection
c) Nozzle and rack review
d) Appliance examination

A

Equipment familiarity check

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12
Q

What effect can coordinated ventilation have on a fire compartment?
a) Increase the volume of smoke
b) Reduce temperatures and increase visibility
c) Agitate the fire and increase its velocity
d) Cause a flashover event

A

b) Reduce temperatures and increase visibility

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13
Q

When should firefighters ventilate an area in coordination with fire attack?
a) Before the hoseline crew is ready
b) After the fire has been fully extinguished
c) Only in areas that will benefit operations
d) Without communicating with outside ventilation teams

A

c) Only in areas that will benefit operations

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14
Q

What does the velocity of smoke leaving a structure indicate?
a) The presence of toxic gases
b) The fire’s location relative to the smoke exhaust point
c) The optical density of the smoke
d) The type of fuel being burned

A

b) The fire’s location relative to the smoke exhaust point

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15
Q

How does smoke density relate to the likelihood of hostile fire events?
a) Dense smoke indicates a higher likelihood of flashover or rapid fire spread.
b) Thin smoke is more likely to cause a hostile fire event.
c) Smoke density has no correlation with hostile fire events.
d) Optical density is more important in evaluating the potential for hostile fire events.

A

a) Dense smoke indicates a higher likelihood of flashover or rapid fire spread.

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16
Q

What can be inferred from the color of smoke?
a) The fire’s size and location
b) The presence of carbon monoxide in the smoke
c) The type of fuel being burned
d) The volume of smoke being emitted

A

c) The type of fuel being burned

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17
Q

What does black smoke typically signify?
a) A fully developed ventilation-limited fire
b) Slowing fire growth with decreasing fuel availability
c) A fire in its incipient stage
d) Heavy fuel loads that are not being fully consumed

A

d) Heavy fuel loads that are not being fully consumed

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18
Q

What actions should personnel take after fire department ventilation?
a) Evacuate the building immediately
b) Assess the structural integrity of the building
c) Swiftly apply water to prevent fire spread
d) Increase the ventilation in the affected area

A

c) Swiftly apply water to prevent fire spread

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19
Q

What should firefighters consider when ventilating a building?
a) Controlling all openings regardless of their impact on operations
b) Ventilating areas that will benefit operations
c) Ventilating as soon as possible without coordination
d) Ventilating without communication with outside ventilation teams

A

b) Ventilating areas that will benefit operations

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20
Q

What should firefighters consider when ventilating a building?
a) Controlling all openings regardless of their impact on operations
b) Ventilating areas that will benefit operations
c) Ventilating as soon as possible without coordination
d) Ventilating without communication with outside ventilation teams

A

c) Ventilating as soon as possible without coordination

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21
Q

How does the volume of smoke leaving a structure relate to other characteristics?
a) Smoke volume has no relation to other characteristics.
b) Smoke volume determines the optical density of the smoke.
c) Smoke volume is affected by the building’s interior size and available fuel.
d) Smoke volume is solely dependent on the duration of burning.

A

b) Smoke volume determines the optical density of the smoke.

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22
Q

What does the velocity of smoke leaving a structure indicate?
a) Toxicity of the smoke
b) The fire’s location relative to the smoke exhaust point
c) The density of the smoke
d) The type of fuel being burned

A

b) The fire’s location relative to the smoke exhaust point

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23
Q

What does slow-moving smoke indicate when viewed from outside a building?
a) The fire compartment is still absorbing heat
b) The seat of the fire is remote from the exhaust point
c) The fire is close to the exhaust point
d) The fire is growing with sufficient oxygen

A

b) The seat of the fire is remote from the exhaust point

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24
Q

How does smoke density relate to the likelihood of hostile fire events?
a) Dense smoke indicates a higher likelihood of flashover or rapid fire spread.
b) Thin smoke increases the chance of hostile fire events.
c) Smoke density has no correlation with hostile fire events.
d) Optical density is the determining factor for hostile fire events.

A

a) Dense smoke indicates a higher likelihood of flashover or rapid fire spread.

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25
Q

What does the color of smoke typically indicate?
a) The size and location of the fire
b) The presence of carbon monoxide in the smoke
c) The optical density of the smoke
d) The material make-up of the burning fuel

A

d) The material make-up of the burning fuel

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26
Q

What is the potential impact of uncoordinated ventilation performed in an area remote from the fire compartment or before the hoseline crew is ready?
a) Increase in temperature and visibility
b) Reduction in smoke volume
c) Enhancement of operational impact
d) Hindrance to operational impact

A

d) Hindrance to operational impact

27
Q

The acronym RECEO VS stands for:
a) Risk, Exposure, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage
b) Rescue, Exposure, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage
c) Rescue, Extinguishment, Confinement, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage
d) Rescue, Exposure, Containment, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage

A

b) Rescue, Exposure, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage

28
Q

Which firefighting objective represents the primary focus of any incident?
a) Exposure
b) Confinement
c) Extinguishment
d) Rescue

A

d) Rescue

29
Q

In firefighting, what does the term “overhaul” refer to?
a) Rescuing trapped victims
b) Minimizing fire spread and containing the fire
c) Systematically checking the entire fire scene for any remaining traces of fire
d) Opening windows or removing windows in the structure for ventilation

A

c) Systematically checking the entire fire scene for any remaining traces of fire

30
Q

What is the purpose of ventilation on the fireground?
a) To protect exposures
b) To perform salvage operations
c) To rapidly advance the attack hoseline to the fire area
d) To create additional fire intensity and spread

A

c) To rapidly advance the attack hoseline to the fire area

31
Q

What are the two modes of operation in firefighting?
a) Offensive and defensive
b) Interior and exterior
c) Rescue and extinguishment
d) Confinement and overhaul

A

a) Offensive and defensive

32
Q

When should personnel conduct ongoing size-ups?
a) Only during initial fire attack
b) Only during interior operations
c) Only during exterior operations
d) Throughout their time on the fireground

A

d) Throughout their time on the fireground

33
Q

What should crews assess during an ongoing interior size-up?
a) Fire’s location and victims’ presence
b) Effectiveness of fire attack and structural stability
c) Smoke changes and structural stability
d) Condition of interior firefighting crews

A

b) Effectiveness of fire attack and structural stability

34
Q

What should crews reassess during an ongoing exterior size-up?
a) Victims’ condition and location
b) Fire’s status and hazards encountered
c) Fire’s location and presence of victims
d) Effectiveness of fire attack and search area prioritization

A

c) Fire’s location and presence of victims

35
Q

How should officers communicate significant incident changes to Command?
a) Through CAN report
b) Through a progress report
c) Through a personnel accountability report
d) Through a situation report

A

a) Through CAN report

36
Q

When does transition occur?
a) When incident dynamics no longer align with the current operation mode
b) When initial strategies have been developed
c) When interior operations are no longer possible
d) When fire growth is uncontrollable

A

a) When incident dynamics no longer align with the current operation mode

37
Q

In what circumstances is a defensive strategy temporary?
a) When the fire is well-advanced and extending to exposures
b) When there is heavy fire loading in the building
c) When the amount of fire is underestimated
d) When interior hoselines cannot reach the seat of the fire

A

d) When interior hoselines cannot reach the seat of the fire

38
Q

What is a withdrawal?
a) Relocation of units and equipment from an unsafe area to a safe area
b) Evacuation of all personnel from an unsafe structure
c) Relocation of interior units to an exterior position
d) Relocation of exterior units to an interior position

A

a) Relocation of units and equipment from an unsafe area to a safe area

39
Q

How is an emergency evacuation different from a withdrawal?
a) It involves a higher degree of urgency
b) It requires relocation to a specific area
c) It requires personnel accountability report
d) It involves the deployment of hose streams

A

a) It involves a higher degree of urgency

40
Q

What is the purpose of a forward lay?
a) To secure own water supply
b) To secure a positive water source for the first-arriving engine
c) To perform a relay operation
d) To perform a dump site operation

A

b) To secure a positive water source for the first-arriving engine

41
Q

What determines the selection of a hoseline?
a) Fire’s size and location
b) Type of building on fire
c) Amount of hose needed to reach the fire

A

d) All of the above

42
Q

What is the primary advantage of hydraulic ventilation?
a. It quickly improves conditions within the compartment.
b. It removes smoke and heat from the structure’s interior.
c. It increases visibility for the engine company.
d. It can be performed quickly and simply from within the structure.

A

d. It can be performed quickly and simply from within the structure.

43
Q

According to UL fire-stream experiments, what type of fog pattern is effective for hydraulic ventilation?
a. Wide fog pattern covering 80% of the ventilation opening.
b. Narrow fog pattern moved in an “O” pattern as far from the opening as possible.
c. Dense fog pattern directed towards the ceiling.
d. Horizontal fog pattern sweeping the floor.

A

b. Narrow fog pattern moved in an “O” pattern as far from the opening as possible.

44
Q

When should hydraulic ventilation take place?
a. Before extinguishment of the fire.
b. During extinguishment of the fire.
c. As soon as possible after extinguishment of the fire.
d. After the fire has been fully extinguished.

A

c. As soon as possible after extinguishment of the fire.

45
Q

What should firefighters do when a compartment is entering preflashover conditions?
a. Cool the gases by directing a stream at the ceiling.
b. Retreat immediately from the compartment.
c. Coordinate with other operating units for ventilation.
d. Continue operating in the compartment as usual.

A

a. Cool the gases by directing a stream at the ceiling.

46
Q

Which attack method involves applying water to all six sides of the compartment?
a. Pushing in
b. Direct attack
c. Indirect attack
d. Combination attack

A

a. Pushing in

47
Q

In an indirect attack, where should the stream be directed?
a. Towards the floor to cool embers and hot material.
b. Towards the ceiling to break the fire stream into droplets.
c. Towards the walls to create steam and displace oxygen.
d. Towards the exit to facilitate the evacuation of victims.

A

b. Towards the ceiling to break the fire stream into droplets.

48
Q

What is a blitz attack?
a. Using an exterior master stream to knock down the main body of fire.
b. Directing a stream at the ceiling to absorb heat and convert steam.
c. Applying water directly onto the burning materials until the fire darkens down.
d. Utilizing both the direct and indirect attack methods simultaneously.

A

a. Using an exterior master stream to knock down the main body of fire.

49
Q

What should engine company drivers prioritize during firefighting operations?
a. Familiarizing themselves with apparatus and equipment.
b. Establishing primary and secondary water supplies.
c. Placing portable ladders and advancing hoselines from the exterior.
d. Safely delivering personnel to and from the scene.

A

b. Establishing primary and secondary water supplies.

50
Q

What are the responsibilities of the backup firefighter?
a. Operating the nozzle and deploying hoselines.
b. Eliminating kinks and managing the room.
c. Maintaining correct position on the line and observing conditions.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

51
Q

When should the engine company officer communicate the action plan based on size-up information?
a. Before the first engine arrives at the scene.
b. After the first engine completes the initial stretch.
c. After the first-arriving units have taken their assigned positions.
d. Upon establishing Command as the Incident Commander.

A

c. After the first-arriving units have taken their assigned positions.

52
Q

What should firefighters do after being dispatched to an emergency incident?
a) Determine the type of emergency they will encounter
b) Identify the incident location
c) Anticipate the responsibilities associated with their unit’s arrival order
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

53
Q

How can firefighters shorten response times?
a) By quickly turning out for responses
b) By driving recklessly
c) By following each jurisdiction’s respective procedures
d) By identifying the incident location

A

a) By quickly turning out for responses

54
Q

Why should personnel responding to fire alarms prepare as if responding to a confirmed building fire?
a) To eliminate complacent behaviors
b) To arrive safely at the incident scene
c) To mitigate any emergency
d) To anticipate the responsibilities associated with their unit’s arrival order

A

a) To eliminate complacent behaviors

55
Q

What should engine company officers do when responding with a truck or rescue company?
a) Identify a water supply and prepare to lay out if needed.
b) Stage at the water supply and allow the special service unit to investigate.
c) Consider having one firefighter remain with the engine driver to facilitate water supply operations and deploy the initial hoseline if needed.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

56
Q

What should engine company personnel do before entering a building equipped with a standpipe?
a) Remain with the vehicle while all other engine company personnel enter the building to investigate.
b) Equip themselves with appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), including SCBA.
c) Obtain Knox box keys, if present, for access to remote areas.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

57
Q

What should engine companies do based on their position in the dispatched run order?
a) Take their predetermined assignments
b) Alter response order responsibilities
c) Communicate primary water supply reports
d) None of the above

A

a) Take their predetermined assignments

58
Q

When should the unit officer of an engine company consider the complications caused by altering response order responsibilities?
a) When multiple units are already responding to a dispatched call
b) When the first due engine arrives
c) When there is a delay in response time
d) None of the above

A

a) When multiple units are already responding to a dispatched call

59
Q

What are the typical responsibilities of the first due engine company?
a) View as much of the structure as possible during approach.
b) Communicate primary water supply report to the second due engine.
c) Perform a 360-degree lap of the structure.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

60
Q

What should the second due engine company do?
a) Ensure primary water supply to the first due engine is established.
b) Assist the first engine with the initial hoseline, if needed.
c) Prepare to deploy a second hoseline.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

61
Q

What are the typical responsibilities of the third due engine company?
a) Establish a secondary water supply.
b) Position to allow for rapid advancement of hoselines to the side of the structure opposite the initial hoseline.
c) Deploy a third hoseline and begin fire suppression operations.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

62
Q

What are the typical responsibilities of the fourth due engine company?
a) Ensure a secondary water supply is established.
b) Establish an initial Rapid Intervention Team (RIT).
c) Assist the first due engine with initial hoseline operations.
d) None of the above

A

b) Establish an initial Rapid Intervention Team (RIT).

63
Q

When is the response of a fifth due engine required?
a) Incidents involving mid- or high-rise buildings.
b) Incidents involving buildings associated with the Washington Metropolitan Area Transit Authority (i.e., Metro).
c) Incidents involving data centers.
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above