Engineering Management and Process Safety Flashcards by Smalling Quahog

Management is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

A. An art

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Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

C. A science

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Engineers can become good managers only through
A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Trainings

C. Effective career planning

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If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

A. Planning

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What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

D. Organizing

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What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Motivating
D. Controlling

B. Staffing

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What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

A. Directing

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Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Staffing

C. Controlling

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What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Motivating
C. Controlling
D. Leading

D. Leading

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What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
B. Motivating
C. Staffing
D. Controlling

B. Motivating

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What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Management
D. Planning

A. Project Management

PMTT Project Management Tolls and Techniques

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Which is NOT an element of project management process?
A. Data and information
B. Research and development
C. Decision making
D. Implementation and action

B. Research and development

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What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge

A. Leadership

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In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above

C. Life cycle model

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What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
A. Morris model
B. Waterfall model
C. Incremental release model
D. Prototype model

B. Waterfall model

true ans: C. Incremental release model

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In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce

B. Research and Development

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In project management O & M stands for:
A. Operation and Manpower
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
D. Operation and Mission

B. Operation and Maintenance

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A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Quality planning

D. Quality planning

PIQP project integration quality planning

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Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality feature

D. Quality feature

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What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems
B. Management Information System
C. Central Processing System
D. Data Management System

B. Management Information System

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Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning

A. Intermediate planning

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Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level? A. Lower management level B. Middle management level C. Top management level D. Lowest management level

C. Top management level

What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership? A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk B. Time consuming and cost ineffective C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision-making D. All of the above

A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk

If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to A. Set goals B. Determine the resources needed C. Set a standard D. Develop strategies and tactics

A. Set goals

What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and effectively? A. General Management B. Engineering Management C. Production Management D. Operations Management

D. Operations Management

For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good A. Interpersonal skills B. Communication skills C. Leadership D. Decision-making skills

A. Interpersonal skills

What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda? A. Technical opinion conflict B. Politics C. Ambiguous roles D. Managerial procedure conflict

B. Politics

The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as A. Division of labor B. Segmentation C. Departmentalization D. Territorialization

C. Departmentalization

By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only? A. Interim committee B. Temporary committee C. Standing committee D. Ad hoc committee

D. Ad hoc committee ## Footnote ATS Ad hoc Short Term

What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished? A. Efficiency B. Effectiveness C. Ability to manage D. Decision-making ability

B. Effectiveness

An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be ______ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days A. Efficient B. Effective C. Reliable D. Qualified

B. Effective ## Footnote Effective - finished job at required period

If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be more A. Managerial skill B. Economical C. Effective D. Efficient

D. Efficient ## Footnote ELISO Efficient Less Input Same Output

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person's current knowledge of a subject? A. Interest test B. Aptitude test C. Performance test D. Personality test

C. Performance test ## Footnote performance test - measure of applicant's current knowledge of a subject

What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in particular subject? A. On-the-job training B. Vestibule school C. Apprenticeship program D. In-basket

C. Apprenticeship program

What type of authority refers to a specialist's right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel's assignment in the organization? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority

D. Functional authority

When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority

C. Staff authority

When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control

A. Division of labor ## Footnote division of labor - scope of words departmentation - major organizational subunits

When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to: A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control

C. Departmentation ## Footnote division of labor - scope of words departmentation - major organizational subunits

Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation? A. Comparison technique B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Rational technique D. Analytical technique

B. Intuition and subjective judgment ## Footnote qualitative - intuition and subjective judgment quantitative - rational and analytical techniques

Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation? A. Rational and analytical techniques B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Comparison in number technique D. Cost analysis

A. Rational and analytical techniques ## Footnote qualitative - intuition and subjective judgment quantitative - rational and analytical techniques

What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services and markets? A. Corporate mission B. Corporate vision C. Corporate character D. Corporate identity

A. Corporate mission ## Footnote corporate mission - philosophy of management, etc.

What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives? A. Power B. Leadership C. Teamwork D. Charisma

B. Leadership ## Footnote LISO - Leadership is Influencing and Supporting Others

What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer's waiting time and cost of service? A. Queuing theory B. Network model C. Sampling theory D. Simulation

A. Queuing theory

What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Decision theory D. Simulation

C. Decision theory

What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Statistical decision theory D. Simulation

A. Sampling theory

The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest? A. Physiological need B. Security need C. Esteem need D. Self-actualization need

A. Physiological need

What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job? A. Training B. Development C. Vestibule D. Specialized courses

A. Training

What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities? A. Benchmark job technique B. Parametric technique C. Modular technique D. Non- modular technique

A. Benchmark job technique ## Footnote benchmark job many repititions

What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization

A. Functional organization ## Footnote functional organization - special in a specific functional area product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible

What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization

D. Product organization ## Footnote functional organization - special in a specific functional area product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization

B. Matrix organization ## Footnote functional organization - special in a specific functional area product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a "dual boss" phenomenon? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization

Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization? A. Rapid reaction organization B. Adaptation to changing environment C. State-of-the-art technology D. Better utilization of resources

A. Rapid reaction organization ## Footnote MRR Matrix Rapid Reaction

Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization? A. Dual accountability of personnel B. Conflicts between project and functional managers C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult D. Inefficient use of specialist

D. Inefficient use of specialist ## Footnote matrix disadvantage inefficient use

Which one is an advantage projectized organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Good project schedule and cost control C. Single point for customer contact D. Rapid reaction time possible

A. Efficient use of technical personnel

Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization? A. Uncertain technical direction B. Inefficient use of specialist C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments D. Slower work flow

D. Slower work flow ## Footnote projectized disadvantage slower work flow

Which one is an advantage of a functional organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Rapid reaction time possible C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel D. Good technology transfer between projects

B. Rapid reaction time possible ## Footnote FORR Functional Organization Rapid Reaction

Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization? A. Weak customer interface B. Weak project authority C. Inefficient use of specialist D. Slower work flow

C. Inefficient use of specialist ## Footnote FDIU Functional Disadvantage Inefficient Use

In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Projectized organization D. Project coordinated organization

B. Matrix organization ## Footnote functional organization - special in a specific functional area product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss matrix organization - project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion? A. Finance and accounting B. Customer relation C. Location D. Technology

C. Location

What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects? A. Overhead cost B. Type of technology used C. Location of the project D. Level of uncertainty in projects

C. Location of the project

If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his to reach a compromise solution. A. Leadership B. Tradeoff analysis skill C. Authority D. Decision-making skill

B. Tradeoff analysis skill ## Footnote multidimensional - tradeoff

Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Chief engineer D. Department supervisor

B. Project manager

Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively? A. Area manager B. Sales manager C. Functional manager D. Project manager

C. Functional manager ## Footnote FMRD Functional Manager Running a Department

What is the major activity of the project support office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via the internet

A. Administrative support for projects

What is the major activity of the project office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via internet

C. Overall project management support

What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project's work content? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Gantt chart C. Life cycle model D. Project design chart

A. Linear responsibility chart

What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Matrix responsibility chart C. Responsibility interface matrix D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation

B. Critical path method

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation

C. Program evaluation review technique ## Footnote three time estimate program evaluation

For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for? A. Critical plan method B. Critical path method C. Critical project method D. Coordinated plan method

B. Critical path method

For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for? A. Project evaluation review technique B. Program evaluation review technique C. Path evaluation review technique D. Program execution review technique

B. Program evaluation review technique

What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management? A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project. B. They illustrate the inter-dependencies of all tasks C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960

A. 1957 ## Footnote 1957 - CPM developed 1958 - PERT developed

In what year was PERT developed? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960

B. 1958 ## Footnote 1957 - CPM developed 1958 - PERT developed

In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

B. 4 ## Footnote Morris 4

What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model? A. Planning and design B. Feasibility C. Production D. Turnover and startup

B. Feasibility

Risk management is: A. Risk avoidance B. Controlling risk C. To gain opportunities D. All of the above

B. Controlling risk

What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project? A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule B. Use a different technology C. Use a different supplier D. Buying insurance

A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule

Buying insurance is a form of: A. Risk elimination B. Risk reduction C. Risk sharing D. Risk absorption

C. Risk sharing

What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences? A. Reliability management B. Risk management C. Quality assurance management D. Project assurance management

B. Risk management

What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies? A. Risk management B. Risk-benefit analysis C. Benefit management D. Uncertainty analysis

B. Risk-benefit analysis

What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager? A. Responsibility B. Leadership C. Authority D. Tradeoff skill

C. Authority

What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives? A. Goal B. Strategy C. Program D. Plan

B. Strategy

When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge: A. Lacks leadership skill B. Has inadequate control C. Has poor organization D. Has no proper planning

B. Has inadequate control

What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand? A. Statistical confidence B. Tolerance C. Incompleteness of the data D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem

B. Tolerance ## Footnote tolerance - measure of relavance of available information

One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for? A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask? A. What do we need to get it done? B. What are we aiming to do? C. How are we going to do it? D. What is the operation environment?

A. What do we need to get it done? ## Footnote Administration - need to be done

In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance C. Identify a need for a product or service D. Develop a technological concept

C. Identify a need for a product or service

In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step? A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance B. Develop a budget C. Develop a schedule D. Develop the technological concept

A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance

What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Implement a plan C. Monitor and control the project D. Evaluate project success

C. Monitor and control the project

To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is "A careless planned project will take ____ times longer to complete than expected". A. Three B. Four C. Two D. Two and a half

A. Three ## Footnote careless project - three times longer

In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the A. Finance manager B. Manufacturing manager C. General manager D. Marketing manager

C. General manager

What is a diagram of the organization's official positions and formal lines of authority called? A. Organization chart B. Authority chart C. Policy chart D. Control chart

A. Organization chart

What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations? A. Sampling theory B. Alternative-analysis C. Problem-solving D. Decision-making

D. Decision-making

What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money? A. Engineering management B. Engineering technology C. Technical manger D. General management

A. Engineering management

Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an organization's resources to achieve its mission and objectives. A. Management B. Planning C. Organizing D. Supervision

A. Management

Refers to the activity combining "technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money." A. Engineering Management B. Engineering Materials C. Engineering Organization D. Engineering Club

A. Engineering Management

The following are considered as functions of an engineer except A. Testing B. Construction C. Sales D. Physical Education

D. Physical Education

A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing

A. Research

A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term. A. Research B. Manufacturing C. Testing D. Design and Development

D. Design and Development

A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing

C. Testing

A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing

D. Manufacturing

A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process. A. Construction B. Sales C. Consulting D. Government

A. Construction

A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company's customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise. A. Construction B. Government C. Consulting D. Sales

D. Sales ## Footnote SEA Sales = Engineer Assists

A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services. A. Construction B. Sales C. Consulting D. Government

C. Consulting

A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private. A. Construction B. Sales C. Government D. Consulting

C. Government

A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses. A. Teaching B. Government C. Management D. Consulting

A. Teaching

A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks. A. Teaching B. Government C. Management D. Consulting

C. Management

Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation. A. Decision Making B. Engineering Management C. Initiative D. Problem solving

A. Decision Making

The first step in Decision making process is to A. Analyze environment B. Diagnose problem C. Make a choice D. Articulate problem or opportunity

B. Diagnose problem

The last step in decision making process is to A. Analyze environment B. Make a choice C. Diagnose problem D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment. A. Quantitative evaluation B. Qualitative evaluation C. Relative evaluation D. Subjective evaluation

B. Qualitative evaluation

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical. A. Quantitative evaluation B. Qualitative evaluation C. Relative evaluation D. Subjective evaluation

A. Quantitative evaluation

Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives. A. Management B. Planning C. Organizing D. Supervision

B. Planning

Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

C. Strategic planning

The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

C. Strategic planning

Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

This type of planning is undertaken by middle management. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

A. Operational Planning

This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning

A. Operational Planning ## Footnote lower management - operational planning middle management - intermediate planning top management - strategic planning

This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization's marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans

A. Marketing Plan

This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans

C. Production Plan

It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans

B. Financial Plan

It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company's strategic plan. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Human Resource Management Plan

D. Human Resource Management Plan

These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans

A. Short-range plans

These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans

B. Long-range plans

Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans

C. Standing Plans ## Footnote SPAA standing plans - again and again

These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules

A. Policies

These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules

B. Procedures ## Footnote ESAP exact series of actions - procedures

These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules

D. Rules ## Footnote RRF Rules Require or Forbid

Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement

B. Budget

A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement

C. Program

A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement

A. Project

A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner. A. Organizing B. Planning C. Supervising D. Structure

A. Organizing

The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization. A. Organizing B. Planning C. Supervising D. Structure

D. Structure

This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization

A. Functional Organization

This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization". A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization

A. Functional Organization

This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization

C. Matrix Organization

Refers to a manager's right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority

A. Line authority

A staff specialist's right to give advice to a superior. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority

B. Staff authority

A specialist's right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority

C. Functional authority

A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life. A. Ad hoc committee B. Standing committee C. Sinking committee D. Midget committee

A. Ad hoc committee

A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis. A. Ad hoc committee B. Standing committee C. Sinking committee D. Midget committee

B. Standing committee

Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization. A. Resourcing B. Recruitment C. Hiring D. Staffing

D. Staffing

An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization. A. Forecasting B. Control C. Programming D. Recruitment

A. Forecasting

Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals. A. Forecasting B. Control C. Programming D. Recruitment

C. Programming ## Footnote programming - translation to personnal objectives and goals

This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Programming D. Recruitment

B. Evaluation and Control

Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Programming D. Recruitment

D. Recruitment

Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Selection D. Training

C. Selection

In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers. A. Performance Appraisal B. Induction and Orientation C. Training and Development D. Monetary Rewards

B. Induction and Orientation

Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job. A. Performance Appraisal B. Induction and Orientation C. Training and Development D. Monetary Rewards

C. Training and Development

Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition. A. Monetary reward B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer

B. Promotion

The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization. A. Monetary reward B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer

D. Transfer

The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position. A. Separation B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer

C. Demotion

Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee. A. Separation B. Transfer C. Termination D. Demotion

A. Separation

A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message. A. Counseling B. Communication C. Hypnotism D. Language

B. Communication

Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function

A. Information Function

A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function

C. Motivation Function

Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function

B. Emotive Function

A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight. A. Verbal B. Oral C. Written D. Nonverbal

A. Verbal

A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements. A. Verbal B. Oral C. Written D. Nonverbal

D. Nonverbal ## Footnote verbal - hearing or sight nonverbal - body language

Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal. A. Suppression B. Motivation C. Praising D. Unification

B. Motivation

The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except: A. Willingness to do a job B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task C. Needs satisfaction D. Inferiority complex

D. Inferiority complex

The following are considered theories of Motivation except: A. Maslow's Needs Hierarchy Theory B. Expectancy Theory C. Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory D. Gagarin's Theory

D. Gagarin's Theory

It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals. A. Sales talk B. Motivation C. Leading D. Commanding

C. Leading

A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes: A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power

A. Legitimate power

When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as: A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power

D. Reward power

When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment. A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power

C. Coercive power ## Footnote coercive - threats or punishment

When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former. A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power

B. Referent power

Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader: A. A high level of personal drive B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology C. Charisma D. Greedy

D. Greedy

Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future. A. Planning B. Controlling C. Evaluation D. Inspection

D. Inspection ## Footnote achieve objectives Inspection

A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control

A. Feed forward control

A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control

C. Concurrent control

A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control

D. Feedback control

Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways. A. Operation B. Production C. Construction D. Creation

A. Operation

The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively. A. Planning B. Operations management C. Evaluation management D. Backboning

B. Operations management

A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation. A. Product Design B. Blueprinting C. Product planning D. Conceptualizing

A. Product Design

Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities. A. Product Design B. Blueprinting C. Product planning D. Conceptualizing

C. Product planning

The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes. A. Plotting B. Scheduling C. Timetable D. Anticipating

B. Scheduling

Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm. A. Work B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management

C. Inventory Control ## Footnote "stocks of goods" - inventory control

The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A. Work-Flow Layout

Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management

B. Quality Control

A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services. A. Advertisement B. Commercial C. Marketing D. Sales

C. Marketing

The four P's of marketing are the following except: A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Publicity

D. Publicity

It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place

A. Product

Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place

B. Price

An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place

D. Place

Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place

C. Promotion

A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling

A. Advertising

The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling

B. Publicity

A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling

D. Personal selling

Which of the following is not a measure of effectiveness safety program? * OSHA incident rate * Fatal Accident Rate (FAR) * Fatality rate * HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study)

HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study)

How toxicants enters into organisms? * Injection * Inhalation * All of the above * Ingestion

All of the above

Lowest value on response vs dose curve is called * Threshold limit value * Average response * Highest response * Relative toxicity

Threshold limit value

Identification, evaluation and control are the phases of * Safety program * Industrial hygiene * Material handling * None of the above

Industrial hygiene

Fire is rapid __________ of ignited fuel * Exothermic oxidation * Exothermic reduction * Endothermic reduction * Endothermic oxidation

Exothermic oxidation

_____________ is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy in an extreme manner, usually with the generation of high temperatures and the release of gases. * Fire * Flammability * Explosion * Toxicity

Explosion

_____________ is the lowest temperature that the vapors of a material will ignite when exposed to an ignition source. * Flash point * Fire point * Autoignition temperature * Inerting

Fire point

An explosion occurring within vessel or a building * Confined explosion * Unconfined explosion * BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion) * None of the above

Confined explosion

Which of the following causes of overpressure? * Ambient heat * Valve failures * All of the above * None of the above

Both A and B

For material handling which is wrong statement? * Indoor storage facilities for flammable liquids should have ventilation * Flammable liquids should be stored in retaining embankments so they cannot spread uncontrollably * Corrosive substances should not be stored above eye level * Environmental risk assessments should not be available.

Environmental risk assessments should not be available.

Who is responsible for ensuring the workers are provided with safe working environment? * HAZAN (Hazard Analysis) * HAZOP * PICHE * OSHA

OSHA

Hazard evaluation consist of the elements * Safety review/audit/inspection * HAZAN * HAZOP * All of the above

All of the above

PHA stands for * Process hazard analysis * Public housing authority * Public health association * Personal health assessment

Process hazard analysis

Which of the following is not Guide word of HAZOP? * NO * LESS * MORE * AND

AND

HAZAN study involves * Estimate how often an incident will occur * Steps can be taken to either eliminate risk or reduce risk to an acceptable level * It is centered around the hazard analysis and functional based safety process * All of the above

All of the above

Process of adding inert gas to combustible mixture to reduce concentration of oxygen below limiting oxygen concentration (LOC). * Fire point * Flash point * Inerting * toxicity

Inerting

Vessels can be pressure-purged by adding inert gas * Under atmospheric pressure * Atmospheric pressure * Above atmospheric pressure * At high temperature

Under atmospheric pressure

The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect. * Hazard identification * Exposure assessment * Toxicity assessment * Risk characterization

Hazard identification

Hazard is defined as the probability of * Suffering harm or loss * Accident * Development * Fire

Suffering harm or loss

________________ occurs when a tank containing a liquid held above its atmospheric pressure boiling point ruptures, resulting in the explosive vaporization of a large fraction of the tank contents. * boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion * Vapor cloud explosions * Missile damage * Blast damage to people

boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion

For _______________ the reaction front propagates at a peed less than the speed of sound. * Deflagration * Detonation * Confined explosions * Unconfined explosions

Deflagration

The MIE depends on the * Specific chemical or mixture * The concentration * Pressure and temperature * All of the above

All of the above

An explosion resulting from the sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure nonreactive gas * Deflagration * Mechanical explosion * Flammability limits * Firepoint

Mechanical explosion

The essential elements for _______________ are fuel, an oxidizer and an ignition source. * Fire triangle * Explosion * Flammability limits * Toxicity

Fire triangle

What is toxicity equivalence factor? * Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference * Ratio of the toxicity of a containment to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference * Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another chemical pollutant chosen as a reference * Ratio of toxicity of a chemical to that of source

Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference ## Footnote toxicity equivalence - ratio of chemical to another structurally related

OSHA ensures that employees have been provide with * Job * PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) * Insurance * Security

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)

ED stands for * Effective dose * Toxic dose * Erectile dysfunction * Lethal dose

Effective dose

Eco-toxicology is based on ____________ of chemicals * Chemical * Physical * Toxicological * Biological

Toxicological

During the ______________ phase, the various types of existing control measures and their effectiveness are also studied. * Identification * Evaluation * Control * Hygiene

Evaluation

The unit-specific technical requirements are designed to * Prevent the release of HW * Chemical analysis * Pathway analysis * Evaluation of long term impact

Prevent the release of HW

What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity? * Hazard identification and dose-response evaluation * Chemical analysis * Pathway analysis * Evaluation of long term impact

Hazard identification and dose-response

_________________ establishes the relationship between the contaminants of concern and the receptor. * Hazard identification * Toxicity assessment * Risk characterization * Exposure assessment

Toxicity assessment ## Footnote toxicity assessment contaminants and receptor

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? * Toxicity * Corrosivity * Ignitibility * Leakage

Leakage

Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as * Acute toxicity * Chronic toxicity * Moderate toxicity * none

Chronic toxicity

Which of the following chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from Bhopal gas tragedy? * Methylisocyanate * Methylisocyanade * Methyl * methylcyanate

Methylisocyanate

Heavy metals like arsenic, cadmium and cyanide effects * Immune system * Nervous system * Skin * Respiratory system

Nervous system

___________ represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object. * Dose * Response * Exposure * concentration

Exposure

Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a * Safe workplace * Land * Insurance * Estimation

Safe workplace

OSHA was created to * Data analysis * Reduce hazards * Ecological development * EIA analysis

Reduce hazards

How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation? * By critical assumptions * Chemical assessment * Character assessment * Personal measurement

By critical assumptions

An incident can be called hazardous only when? * stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems * Poses threat to surrounding * Monitoring is failed * Outburst of chemicals

stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems

The purpose of ventilation is to dilute the _________ with air to prevent explosion and to confine the ______ mixtures. * Toxic vapors; flammable * Hazardous flammable; explosive vapors * Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable * Flammable; toxic vapors

Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable

Each chemical family should be separated from all other chemical families by an approved non-combustible partition or by distance of _________ ft * Ten * Twenty * Thirty * Forty

Twenty ## Footnote chemical families 20 ft distance

While storing of chemicals in store rooms the care must be taken for the leaks, spills and * Weeps * Holes * Drips * None of the above

Drips ## Footnote LSD leaks spills drips

Prevent chemicals from running down sink, flow or * Storm water drains * Holes * Channels * None of the above

Storm water drains

An inerting system is required to maintain an inert atmosphere in the __________ above the liquid * Vacuum space * Confined space * Vapour space * None of the above

Vapour space

Vacuum purging is a common procedure for which of the following * Storage vessels * Crystallizers * Distillation columns * Reactors

Reactors

Probability of the event that might occur X severity of the event if it occurs = * Accident * Hazard * Risk * None of the above

Risk

Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of * Work area, material, machine, tools * Men, machine, work area, tools * Men, machine, work area, tools * Men, work area, material, tools

Work area, material, machine, tools