ENT Flashcards

(137 cards)

1
Q

Describe the fever pain score

A

Fever in past 24 hours
Puss on tonsils
Attends within 72 hours
Severely inflamed tonsils
No cough or coryza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the centor criteria for diagnosing acute tonsilitis

A

Can’t cough
Exudates
Nodes
Temperature
OR: Young (other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management of acute tonsilitis

A

First line: aracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are antibiotics indicated in Acute Tonsilitis

A

If three or more centor criterions are present

If fever pain score is 2 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specific sign of peritonsilar abscesses

A

Trismus
Ulnar deviation
Dysphagia
Torticolis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What often preceeds acute otitis media

A

A viral URTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Features of acute otitis media

A

Pain
Hearing Loss
Aural fullness before going away as the tympanic membrane perforates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Chronic Otitis Media

A

Dry tympanic membrane without a fever etc (no signs of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of Glue Ear (otitis media with effusion) on examination

A

Dull tympanic membrane

Pain persists for a few weeks since onset (whereas the other perforates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of otitis media in children under 3 months

A

If 38 degrees or more = refer to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When are antibiotics indicated for acute otitis media

A

After 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should the four day rule be scrapped in children with otitis media

A

If they’re systemically unwell (but not enough for admission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complications of otitis media

A

Mastoiditis
Labrynthitis
Facial nerve palsy (CN 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications for an adenoidectomy

A

Persistent otitis media
Obstructive sleep apnoea or snoring
Tonsillelctomy alongside
CHornic sinusitis or adenoiditis
Dysphagia with failure to thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If someone who has had an adenoidectomy presents with persistent bleeding, what should be done

A

Post-nasal pack insertion and taken back to theatres again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the onset of acute rhinosinusitis

A

Sudden onset for less than 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the criteria to diagnose acute rhinosinusitis

A

1 nasal blockage or discharge + 1 of facial pain/reduction in sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of acute rhinosinusitis if symptoms are <5 days

A

Paracetamol, decongestants and irrigation with saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of symptoms in rhinosinusitis lasting >10 days or worsening

A

Topical steroids or antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should someone with rhinosinusitis be referred to ENT

A

If tehre are red flag signs (displaced globe, double vision or periorbital oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes BPPV

A

Calcium deposits in the semicircular canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What brings on BPPV symptoms

A

Turning head to one side, turning in bed or looking upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long do BPPV attacks last for

A

1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are there auditory symptoms in BPPV

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Do BPPV symptoms recur
Yes
26
Diagnosis of BPPV
Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
27
Treatment of BPPV
Epley Manouevre
28
What is a branchial cyst and where does it manifest
Manifests as a painful cyst ANTERIOR to sternocleidomastoid muscle just below the ear
29
What is a cholesteatoma
accumulation of skin debris iwthin th emiddle ear
30
What is cholesteatoma a complication of
Chronic otitis media
31
Features of Cholesteatoma
Foul smelling discharge, headache and otalgia
32
Examination findings in cholesteatoma
Areas of white in the attack behind the tympanic membrane
33
COmplication of cholesteatoma
Facial nerve palsy
34
What preceeds chornic sinusitis
Acute URTI
35
Signs of acute sinusitis
Unilateral, intense apin Unilateral nasal discharge Pain worse on sitting forwards
36
SIgns of chronic sinusitis
Painless but discharge full
37
Differentials for Sinusitis
TMJ Migraines Temporal arteritis Herpes Zoster virus
38
COmplications of thyroid surgery
Hypoparathyroidismn Hypothyroidism Recurrent or superior laryngeal nerve destruction Neck Haematoma Thyrotoxic Storm
39
What is conductive hearing loss
Obstruction of sound waves between the outer ear and the stapes in the middle ear (path of osund movement
40
auses of conductive hearing loss
Wax Otitis media with effusion Eustachian tube dysfunction Ear Infections Perforations Chornic Otitis Media
41
Examination findings in conductive hearing loss
Bone conduction greater than air conduction
42
First line management of epixstasis
Direct compression of nasal alae and sit forwards - spit out blood.
43
If direct compression does not work to fix epixstasis, what should be done
Cautery
44
If nasal cautery doesn't work to fix epixstasis, what should be done
Nasal packing
45
What aggressive therapies may be used for persistent nasal bleeds
Nasal Balloon Catheter
46
What condition is a big risk factor for malignant otitis externa
DM
47
WHat species usually causes malignant otitis externa
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
48
If pain is worsening in otitis externa, what should be doen
Refer to ENT
49
Is hering affected in Vestibular Neuritis
No
50
SIgns of Meniere's disease
Hering loss, tinnitus and sensation of fullness or pressure in one or both ears
51
Signs of an acoustic neuroma
Absent corneal reflexes
52
What condtiions is an acoustic neuroma associated with
Neurofibromatsosis Type 2
53
First line treatment of otitis externa
Topical antibiotic + topical steroid for 1-2 weeks
54
What finding is Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre supposed to sus out
Rotary Nystagmus
55
What is Sialadenitis
Inflammatorion of slaivary gland secondary to obstructed stones in the duct
56
What medication is most useful to prevent taccks of meniere's disease
Betahistine
57
What surgery is commonly used to improve airflow thorugh the nasal passage
INferior Turbinectomy
58
What is Empty Nose SYndrome
Complication of a turbinectomy - secondary atrophic rhinitis (nasal obstruction, sob and dryness)
59
Management of button batteries being put up the nose
Emergency removal (surgical)
60
WHy do button batteries need to be removed form the nasal passage immediately
The negative pole and cause tissue necrosis through electolysis
61
Main type of cancer of the head and neck
SCC
62
RIsk factors for head and neck neoplasms
Smoking Alcohol EBV HPV 16 UV exposure Immunosuppression Asbestosis
63
Signs of Head and Neck neoplasms
Hoarseness Throat Pain Tongue Ulcers Painless neck lumps
64
When should someone with a neck lump be referred to ENT
If the neck lump / symptoms persist for more than 3 months
65
Management of hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
BLood transfusion and iron supplements
66
When should a patient presenting with hoarsness be referred to ENT 2 week rule
>3 weeks symptom durations
67
When is chronic laryngitis from GORD most commonly experienced
Morning
68
What is Reinke's Oedema
Enlargement of the vocal cords (hypothyoridism oassociated)
69
Signs of Reinke's Oedema
Persistent Hoarsness
70
What is Meniere's Disease
Dilation of endolymphatic spaces
71
How long does vertigo last in Meniere's disease
12-24 hours
72
Onset of Meniere's Disease
30-60
73
Is Meniere's disease unilateral or bilateral
Unilateral
74
Describe the pattern of onset of meniere's disease
Comes in clusters with periods of remission where function recovers
75
Management of Meniere's Disease
Betahistine
76
Role of betahistine
Reduces frequency of attacks
77
What branch of the facial nerve supplies taste to the anterior tnoguse
Chorda Tympani nerve
78
Investigations for bleeding noses (specifically after trauma)
Anterior rhinoscopy
79
If there has been nasal trauma, what is the first line management
Refer all patients suspected of septal haematoma to ENT for emergency incision and drainage
80
What is the most commmon cause of otitis externa
Staph aureus Pseudomonas
81
Management of mild to moderate otitis externa
Topical antibiotic and steroid drops Keep ear dry for 7-10 days
82
Management of severe otitis media
Topical Gentamycin
83
What indictaes severe otitis media
When the meatus is completely occluded or has significant swelling
84
When should oral antibiotics be considered for otitis externa
WHen infection spreads beyond external ear canal or a wick cannot be inserted for topical antibiotics People with diabetes or immunocompromised
85
Signs of otosclerosis
Progressive deafness in young adults (not acute)
86
What causes otosclerosis
Bone at the base of the stapes thickens and fuses with the choclea Stops stapes from banging into the chochloea - conductive hearingl oss
87
Initial management of otosclerosis
Hearing aids
88
Last lie management of otosclerosis
Stapedectomy
89
Management of a pinna haematoma
Decompression of the haematoma within 24 horus
90
Most common cause of pinna haematomas
Rugby tackles
91
Name two glands affected in sialdenitis
Sub-mandibular glands Parotid glands
92
What examination sign points to a thyroglossal cyst
It will move up when the tongue is pushed out
93
What is Presbycusis
Age-related conductive hearing los (loss of higher frequency noise)
94
Labrynthitis vs vetsibular neuritis
Labrynthitis has hearing loss whereas vestibular neuritis does not
95
How is Ramsay hunt syndrome treated
Aciclovir and high dose prednisolone
96
Name two medications that can cause ototoxicity
Gentamycin Vacomycin
97
First line investigation and GOLD standard for presbycusis
Audiometry
98
Medical managmenet of nasal polyps
Intransala topical steroid drops
99
What can cause glossitis
Iron deficiency anaemia B12 deiciency Folate deficiency Coeliac's
100
Treatment of oral candidiasis
Miconazoel gel
101
How long does it take for a perforate ear drum to resolve
6 weeks
102
What is the most common cause of sudden onsett sensineural hearing loss
Idiopathic
103
First line management from chronic rhino sinusitis (>12 weeks)
Nasal irrigation with saline
104
How is a haemorrhage 5-10 days after a tonsillectomy treated differently to one that happens hours after
More likely to be wound infection as a cause rather than a primary haemorrhage cause
105
Where are cystic hygromas commonly found
In babies on the left side of the neck
106
Where is a branchial cyst located
Sternocleidomastoid and the pharynx
107
What is the role of the weber's test
To check for sensorineural hearing loss
108
What is the role of Rhinne's test
To check for conductive hearing loss
109
In sensorineural hearing loss, what is a positive weber's test
If the sound localises to the unaffected side
110
In conductive deafness, what is a positive Weber's test
Sound localises to the affected side
111
Medical treatment of vestibular neuronitis
Prochlorperazine (antiemetic)
112
How long should prochlorperazine be given for vestibular neuronitis
3 days maximum
113
What is the threshold at which an audiometry reading is normal
20db
114
Management of post operative stridor
urgent removal of sutures and call for help - EMERGENCY
115
What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia
Phenytoin Ciclosporins CCBs
116
In what gland are Whartons ducts found
Submandibular gland
117
What type of nystagmus is seen with Vetsibular Neuritis
Horiztonal
118
Management of Vestibular Neritis
Oral Prochlorperazine
119
Risk Factors of nasopharyngeal carcniomas
Southern Chinese people EBV
120
CLinical features of nasopharyngeal carcniomas
Otalgia Cervical Lymphadenopathy Unilateral otitis media Epizstasis
121
First line management of a nasopharyngeal carcniomas
Radiotherapy
122
What findings are consistent with presbycusis on audiometry
Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss Air conduction better than bon e
123
AGe onset of cholesteatoma
30+
124
Signs of otitis media in children
Touching and pulling at her ear
125
Criteria for referring mouth ulcers to oral surgery
Ulcer persisting for over 3 weeks Unexplained Bleeding at site Associated neck lump Pain in neck >4 weeks Signs of oral cavities >6 weeks >40
126
Management of septal haematoma
Admission to hospital: Surgical incision and drianage + antibiotics
127
Is aural fullness experienced in Meniere's disease?
Yes
128
Indications for 1-yearly outpatient surveillance
When the patient refuses active treatment for malignant ear tumours
129
Management of sensirneural hearing loss
High dose prednisolone
130
Where is the origin of Kiesselbach's plexus
Anterior Nasal Septum
131
HOw many arteries suppply Kiesselbach's plexus
4 arteries
132
Management of glue ear in adults
Refer to ENT under 2 weeks rule Glue ear not common in adults -> possibly nasopharyngeal carcnioma
133
What drug causes nasal polyps
Aspirin
134
When, with someone who has nasal polyps, should they be referred to ENT as first line
If polyps are unilateral
135
Where are pleomorphic adenomas commonly found
IN the tail of the parotid glands
136
Warthins tumour vs pleomorphic adenomas
Warthin tumours affect males vs females Warthin tumours is multiple tumour nodules vs one large mass
137
What medications can cause tinnitus
NSAIDs and Aspirin