ENT

Question 1

The narrowest portion of the upper respiratory tract and, as such, has a major bearing on the
aerodynamics of nasal air-flow

Answer 1

LIMNE NASI

Question 2

The anterior bony opening of the nasal cavity

Answer 2

PIRIFORM APERTURE

Question 3

Most common site of epistaxis

Answer 3

Kisselbach’s plexus in Little’s Area

Question 4

Standard paranasal sinus radiographs in the occipitomental projection

Answer 4

Water projection

Question 5

Standard paranasal sinus radiographs in the occipitofrontal projection

Answer 5

Caldwell projection

Question 6

Demonstrates the maxillary sinus and gives a limited view of the sphenoid sinus

Answer 6

occipitomentalprojection (Water)

Question 7

Better for evaluating the ethmoid cells and frontal sinus

Answer 7

occipitofrontalprojection (Cadwell)

Question 8

A butterfly-shaped advancement flap used to close a defect.

Answer 8

bilobed flap

Question 9

Larger defects of the nose can be reconstructed with a forehead flap based on what 2 arteries

Answer 9

supraciliary and supratrochlear arteries

Question 10

The myocutaneous pectoralis major flap is frequently used in the head and neck and is useful for repairing large defects in the facial region. This is based on what artery?

Answer 10

thoracoacromial artery

Question 11

Converse scalp flap is usually based on what artery?

Answer 11

superficial temporal artery

Question 12

Special type of lateral midfacial fracture which is characterized by isolated fracture of the orbital floor with a partial herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus

Answer 12

Blow out fracture

Question 13

Isolated detachment of the alveolar process

Answer 13

Le Fort I

Question 14

Pyramidal fracture with detachment of the maxilla.

Answer 14

Le Fort II

Question 15

Craniofacial dysjunction.

Answer 15

Le Fort III

Question 16

Painless, tense swelling in the carotid triangle between the hyoid bone and sternocleidomastoid muscle

Answer 16

Branchial cleft cysts

Question 17

Presence of typically large hemangioma in which thrombotic processes lead to DIC with consumption coagulopathy; almost exclusive to small infants.

Answer 17

Kassabach-Merritt

Question 18

Deep bluehemangiomas with a rubbery consistency form on the integument and persist without involution

Answer 18

Blue rubber Bleb Nevus Syndrome

Question 19

Hypernasal speech

Answer 19

rhinophonia aperta

Incomplete closure of the nasopharynx

Question 20

3 drugs that commonly causes gingival hyperplasia

Answer 20

Phenytoin
Nifedipine
Cyclosporine

Question 21

An exotosis protruding from the midline of hard palate.

Answer 21

TORUS PALATINE

Question 22

Bony growth in the mandible along the surface nearest to the tongue.

Answer 22

TORUS MANDIBULARIS

Question 23

Vincent’s Angina, Vincent’s dse is also known as

Answer 23

Trench mouth

Question 24

Trench moutch is caused by

Answer 24

Borrelia vincentii

Question 25

It presents clinically with unilateral dysphagia, malaise and a fetid breath odor and examination reveals unilateral fibrin coated ulceron the palatine tonsil

Answer 25

Trench mouth

Question 26

Circle of protective lymphoid tissue at the upper ends of the respiratory and alimentary tracts

Answer 26

Waldeyer’s Ring

Question 27

In severe tonsillitis, pain may be felt in ipisilateral ear. This referred pain is due to

Answer 27

CN IX

Question 28

Complication of untreated tonsillitis which causes muffled speech and distorted quality of the voice (“hot potato voice)

Answer 28

PERITONSILLAR ABSCESS

Question 29

Duct of parotid gland

Answer 29

Stensen's duct

Question 30

Duct of submandibular gland

Answer 30

Wharton's duct

Question 31

Duct of sublingual duct

Answer 31

Rivinus duct

Question 32

Provide the most detailed view of duct system

Answer 32

Sialography

Question 33

Secondary to obstruction of sublingual gland duct/rivinus; appears like belly of frog

Answer 33

Ranula

Question 34

Aka post-parotidectomy syndrome characterized by gustatory sweating or excessive sweating of the cheek, temple, or behind the ears after food ingestion

Answer 34

Frey Syndrome

Question 35

Obesity hyperventilation syndrome

Answer 35

Pickwickian Syndrome

Question 36

Apnea index that is diagnostic of Peripheral/ Obstructive Sleep ApneaSyndrome (OSAS)

Answer 36

>5

Question 37

Gold standard in confirming OSAS

Answer 37

POLYSOMNOGRAPHY (PSG)

Question 38

In a diagnostic method for OSAS, patient sits in an upright/45. reclined position; endoscope put in place; patient’s nostrils compressed & instructed to inhale the residual intraoral air while keeping mouth closed. What do you call this maneuver?

Answer 38

Muller maneuver

Question 39

“Swimmer’s ear”

Answer 39

ACUTE OTITIS EXTERNA

Question 40

Most common pathogen of AOE

Answer 40

P. aeruginosa 99% S. aureus Streptococcus

Question 41

Bulging of TM is what stage of AOM?

Answer 41

Stage 3 (exudative) Stage 1 - hyperemic Stage 2 - transudative Stage 4 - suppurative

Question 42

Non-surgical treatment for OSAS that "pneumatically splints” unstable portions of airway via continuous positive pressure ventilation which keeps tissues from collapsing during sleep & obstructing airflow

Answer 42

Transnasal CPAP/BIPAP mask

Question 43

Where is the point of weakness in the upper cervical esophagus which is the site of the origin of Zenker’s diverticulum: A. the esophageal introitus B. the middle pharyngeal constrictor C. the transition between the thyropharyngeus and the cricopharyngeus D. the uppermost portion of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

Answer 43

C. the transition between the thyropharyngeus and the cricopharyngeus

Question 44

A young patient in a psychiatric institution undergoes rigid esophagoscopy for the removal of an open safety pin in the distal esophagus. Following the procedure, she develops midchest pain and fever. In this patient: A. esophageal perforation should be considered B. esophageal ulceration should be suspected C. a flexible esophagoscopy should be done D. antibiotic therapy should be commenced

Answer 44

A. esophageal perforation should be considered

Question 45

The most common important prognosticating factor in well differentiated thyroid cancer is:

Answer 45

Age of the patient

Question 46

A 40 year old male presents with progressive dysphagia and weight loss. On esophagoscopy, the esophagus is dilated with food debris but the procedure is completed with ease. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Esophageal cancer B. Achalasia C. Adenocarcinoma of the cardia D. Reflux esophagitis

Answer 46

A. Esophageal cancer

Question 47

Which of the following esophageal lesions is most likely to be followed by the development of adenocarcinoma: A. Achalasia B. Barrett’s esophagus C. Caustic burn D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Answer 47

B. Barrett’s esophagus

Question 48

The most common presenting symptom in patients with esophageal carcinoma is: A. Chest pain B. Palpable lower cervical nodules C. Dysphagia D. Hematemesis

Answer 48

C. Dysphagia

Question 49

Histologic examination of a thyroid gland tumor reveals psammoma bodies. This findings indicates that the lesion is: ``` A. Benign B. Metastatic C. Follicular CA D. Medullary CA E. Papillary CA ```

Answer 49

E. Papillary CA

Question 50

A 42-year old female with goiter, a 4 x 6 cm mass on the scalp of 6 months duration and a pulmonary nodule on chestx-ray. In this case, one suggests: ``` A. Follicular CA of thyroid B. Bronchogenic CA with scalp and thyroid metastases C. Soft tissue sarcoma of scalp D. Papillary CA of thyroid E. Medullary CA of thyroid ```

Answer 50

A. Follicular CA of thyroid

Question 51

The radiographic examination of choice for diagnosing an unstable cervical spine is: A. Cervical lateral x-ray B. Cervical AP x-ray C. Cervical MRI D. Cervical CT Scan

Answer 51

A. Cervical lateral x-ray