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ENT Flashcards

1
Q

Give 2 or more examples of courses of hoarsness.

A
  1. Laryngitis
  2. Vocal cord nodules
  3. Laryngopharyngeal reflux
  4. Muscular tension dysphonia
  5. Vocal cord palsy
  6. Laryngeal cancer
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2
Q

Bowing of the vocal cords so that they don’t close properly on phonation, leaving a “glottic chink” can be see on endoscopy in which condition?

A

Muscular Tension Dysphonia

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3
Q

What cell type are malignant laryngeal tumours usually?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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4
Q

Which nerve does the recurrent laryngeal nerve come from?

A

Vagus nerve

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5
Q

The commonest cause of stridor is __________.

A

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

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6
Q

Stridor is a high pitched inspiratory noise due to obstruction where?

A

At or below the larynx

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7
Q

Give 1 congenital and 2 acquired causes of stridor.

A

Congenital: Laryngomalacia

Acquired: Tumour, trauma, foreign body, epiglottitis, laryngitis, croup, anaphylaxis

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8
Q

The pharyngeal mucosa herniates through Killian’s dehiscence in which condition?

A

Pharyngeal pouch

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9
Q

What condition has a sensation of a lump in the throat that is noticed on swallowing saliva (rather than food/ liquid)?

A

Globus pharyngeus

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10
Q

What are the 3 indications for tracheostomy?

A
  1. Upper airway obstruction
  2. Ventilation (weaning)
  3. Protection from aspiration
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11
Q

Which blood vessel does the left recurrent pharyngeal artery loop around?

A

Aortic arch

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12
Q

Which blood vessel does the right recurrent pharyngeal artery loop around?

A

Right subclavian artery

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13
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

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14
Q

Which nasal sinuses open into the middle meatus?

A

Frontal
Anterior ethmoid
Middle ethmoid
Maxillary

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15
Q

If a patient with nasal fracture has a boggy swelling seen on both sides of the nasal septum, what complication of fracture do they likely have?

A

Septal haematoma

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16
Q

Is X-ray indicated in nasal fracture if no other fractures are suspected?

A

No

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17
Q

What should be done first when treating epistaxis, nasal packing or nasal cauterisation?

A

Cauterisation

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18
Q

If a clear fluid leaking from the nose is positive for glucose and Beta-2 transferrin, what is it likely to be?

A

CSF

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19
Q

Fungal sinusitis is usually caused by what?

A

Aspergillosis

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20
Q

What surgical treatment is used for all types of fungal sinusitis?

A

FESS- Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery

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21
Q

What is the most common type of malignant nasal tumour?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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22
Q

Juvenile nasal angiofibroma is a benign nasal tumour than may present as recurrent ________ in young men.

A

Epistaxis

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23
Q

Which antibiotic can be prescribed to be taken long term for chronic rhinosinusitis with polyps?

A

Doxycycline

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24
Q

Acute rhinosinusitis is usually caused by a ______.

A

Virus

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25
Two of the arteries which supply the nose, the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries are branches of which artery?
Internal carotid artery
26
90% of patients with necrotising (malignant) otitis externa have which systemic condition?
Diabetes
27
What is the likely cause of a neck lump that is smooth, flutuant, non tender, located to the anterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and does not move with tongue protrusion?
Branchial cysts (=embryological remnant of the cervical sinus)
28
Give 3 potential differentials for a neck lump in the anterior triangle.
1. Lymph node enlargement 2. Branchial cyst 3. Carotid body tumour 4. Carotid artery aneurysm 5. Laryngocele 6. Submandibular salivary stone
29
Give 3 potential differentials for a neck lump in the midline.
1. Thyroid nodule 2. Thyroglossal cyst 3. Dermoid cyst
30
Give 2 potential differentials for a neck lump in the posterior triangle.
1. Lymph node 2. Cystic hygroma 3. Sebaceous cyst 4. Pharyngeal pouch
31
_______________ cancer is more common in people of Asian origin and typically presents with epistaxis, headaches, lymph node metastasis or unilateral hearing loss.
Napsopharyngeal
32
If a patient with likely bacterial pharyngitis is penicillin allergic which other antibiotics can be prescribed?
Clarithromycin | Erythromycin
33
Myringoplasty is an operation to repair what?
A hole in the tympanic membrane
34
Name 4 possible causes of vertigo.
1. BPPV 2. Labyrinthitis 3. Meniere's disease 4. Vestibular migraine 5. Acoustic neuroma 6. MS 7. Head injury
35
Name 1 or more drugs that are associated with causing tinnitus.
1. Aspirin 2. Quinine 3. Aminoglycosides eg. Gentamicin 4. Loop diuretics 5. Cisplatin
36
In Ramsay Hunt syndrome vesicular lesions may be seen on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and where else?
External auditory meatus, pinna
37
Little's area is the most common origin of epistaxis and is located on the ______ nasal septum.
Anterior
38
In otosclerosis which middle ear bone becomes fixed in place?
Stapes
39
Which condition is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by conductive deafness, tinnitus and potential vertigo, a normal tympanic membrane, and tends to appear age 20-40yrs
Otosclerosis
40
Branchial cysts are usually filled with _________ crystals.
Cholesterol
41
Cystic hygromas are located in the _______ triangle of the neck.
Posterior
42
A perforated ear drum will usually heal by itself in _____ to _____ weeks.
6-8 weeks
43
The most common causes of bacterial otitis _______ are Hib, Strep pneumoniae and Moraxella.
Otitis media
44
NICE guidelines recommend sinusitis treatment with intra-nasal corticosteroids if the symptoms are severe or have lasted for ___ or more days.
10
45
Prebycusis is age related, bilateral, _____ frequency SNHL.
High
46
What is the scan of choice if an acoustic neuroma is suspected in a patient?
MRI
47
Nasopharyngeal cancer has lymphadenopathy in the ______ area in 90% of patients.
Cervical
48
Younger patients with laryngeal cancer are typically positive for which virus?
HPV
49
Sialadenitis is acute infection of which 2 glands?
Submandibular salivary glands | Parotid salivary glands
50
Sialolithiasis (salivary stones) usually affect which gland?
Submandibular (thickest secretion)
51
Are pleomorphic adenomas and Warthin's tumour benign or malignant salivary gland tumours?
Benign
52
Squamous cell carcinomas, adenocarcinomas and adenoid cystic carcinomas are __________ types of salivary gland tumour.
Malignant
53
Otosclerosis may cause tinnitus and ________ hearing loss.
Conductive / bilateral
54
Which antibiotic should be prescribed in patients with Acute Otitis Media (AOM) who are unwell or under 2 years?
Amoxicillin
55
Which cranial nerve must be affected by an acoustic neuroma in order to cause an absent corneal reflex?
Trigeminal (CNV) as this controls the corneal reflex
56
Which type of hearing loss is usually treatable and can resolve?
Conductive
57
_________________ hearing loss makes up around 90% of hearing loss.
Sensorineural
58
Otitis externa is usually caused by which bacteria?
Pseudomonas
59
Cholesteatoma can lead to which type of hearing loss?
Conductive
60
A CT scan of which bone is indicated in cholesteatoma?
Temporal bone
61
Which condition may present as treatment resistant otitis externa and can result in osteomyelitis of the temporal bone and facial palsy?
Malignant (necrotising) otitis externa
62
Which antibiotic is usually given for malignant (necrotising) otitis externa?
Ciprofloxacin
63
_____________ causes vertigo and may follow an URTI. It can be treated with fluids, rest, and vestibular suppressants such as Cyclizine and Prochlorperazine.
Labyrinthitis
64
What are likely features of Meniere's disease that are usually NOT found in BPPV?
Tinnitus Nausea Nystagmus
65
____________ is caused by distension of the endolymphatic spaces in the ear, and results in a triad of vertigo, nystagmus and sensorineural hearing loss.
Meniere's disease
66
Give 2 or more causes of tinnitus.
1. Ototoxic drugs 2. Any cause of sensorineural deafness 3. Impacted wax 4. Acoustic neuroma 5. Otosclerosis
67
25% of vocal cord palsies are iatrogenic, 15% are idiopathic and 30% are caused by _________.
Malignancy | Larynx, bronchus, thyroid, oesophagus
68
If a patient has breathing difficulty and aspirated, are they more likely to have a unilateral or bilateral vocal cord palsy?
Bilateral vocal cord palsy
69
Stirtor (snoring) is an abnormal breathing sound due to obstruction _______ the larynx.
Above
70
______________ can present as sudden onset stridor, with fever, drooling of saliva, a muffled voice and absence of cough.
Epiglottitis
71
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) usually self resolves although patients can be prescribed a one off dose of _______.
Steroid (decamethasone/ prednisolone)
72
In the grading of Thyroid cytology, a "Thy 5" specimen means the patient has ___________.
Thyroid malignancy
73
Which type of thyroid cancer may be related to the MEN syndromes (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasias)?
Medullary thyroid cancer
74
To diagnose rhinosinusitis, a patient must have inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses with 2 or more symptoms. Give examples of these symptoms.
1. Blocked nose 2. Nasal discharge 3. Anosmia/ reduction in smell 4. Facial pain/ pressure Findings on endoscopy/ CT
75
Name 2 or more potential complications of sinusitis.
1. Pre septal orbital cellulitis 2. Orbital cellulitis 3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 4. Meningitis, encephalitis 5. Otitis media 6. Mucocele/ pyocoele
76
Pott's puffy tumour is a sub-periosteal _______ which arises from osteomyelitis and is a potential comlication of sinusitis.
Abscess
77
If a patient presents with eye proptosis and diplopia, with painful eye movements, eyelid swelling and reduced vision, which potential complication of sinusitis may they have?
Orbital cellulitis
78
The monospot test and Paul Bunnell test can be used to diagnose ____________.
Glandular fever (Infectious mononucleosis)

Surg (6 decks)

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