ENT disorders Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

What percentage of URIs are viral in nature?

A

98%

*<2% of URIs are complicated by ABRS

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2
Q

Acute rhinosinusitis definition?

A

Inflammation of the mucosal lining of nasal passages & paranasal sinuses lasting up to 4 weeks caused by allergens, environmental irritants, and/or infection

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3
Q

Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) definition?

A

Secondary bacterial infection of paranasal sinuses, usually following viral URIs

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4
Q

Causative pathogens in ABRS (by order rank)?

A
  1. S. pneumoniae (gram +)
  2. H. influenzae (gram - )
  3. M. catarrhalis (gram - )
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5
Q

S. pneumonia & H. influenzae common causes (Hint: COMPS pneumonic)

A

Conjunctivitis
Otitis media
Meningititis
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

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6
Q

Majority of antibiotic treatment regimen for ABRS lasts for __ to __ days?

A

5-7 days

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7
Q

“Double sickening” can be indicative of ABRS (true/false)?

A

True
*“Double sickening” –> initial symptom improvement and then worsening of symptoms

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8
Q

Fever & symptom duration of more than __ days may be indicative of ABRS?

A

10 days

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9
Q

True/False: Give the highest dose for shortest amount of time when considering antimicrobial therapy?

A

True
*Need drug to be able to concentrate med enough to optimize treatment success & minimize development of resistant pathogens

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10
Q

Most common risk factors for antibiotic resistance?

A

Age <2 or >65 yrs, daycare attendance
Prior systemic antibiotics within PAST MONTH
Hospitalization within past 5 days
Comorbidities
Immunocompromised

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11
Q

Biggest risk with fluroquinolones (ex: -floxacin)?

A

Tendon rupture

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12
Q

First line treatment for ABRS?

A

Amoxicillin
or
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
*may be more effective against ABRS due to H. influenzae & M. catarrhalis coverage

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13
Q

Second line treatment if beta-lactam allergy for ABRS?

A

If no anaphylaxis hx: Cefdinir, Cefpodoxime, or Cefuroxime

If anaphylaxis history: Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or doxycycline (category D pregnancy risk)

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14
Q

Substrate, Inhibitor, or Inducer: A medication that is metabolized/biotransformed by the isoenzyme, utilizing this enzyme in order to be modified so it can reach the drug site of action and/or be eliminated?

A

Substrate (CYP450)
Ex: Statins, OCP, benzos, sildenafil

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15
Q

Substrate, Inhibitor, or Inducer: A drug or other substance that blocks that activity of the isoenzyme, limiting substrate excretion (increased risk of toxicity)
(hint: doesn’t allow medication to leave the body)

A

Inhibitor
Ex: grapefruit juice, clarithromycin
clarithromycin + simvastatin = statin-induced rhabdo risk

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16
Q

Substrate, Inhibitor, or Inducer: accelerates the activity of the isoenzyme (pushes med out of body, resulting in decreased effectiveness of med)
(Hint: “jet pack”)

A

Inducer
Ex: St. John’s wort
St. John’s wort + COC = potential contraceptive failure

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17
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Age-related visual change (hardening of lens); near vision is affected (decreased ability to read small print at close range)

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18
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

Inflammation of the edges of the eyelids where eyelashes grow

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19
Q

Kiesselbach’s plexus location?

A

Anterior inferior aspect of nose (lower one-third)

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20
Q

Color and appearance of nasal turbinates seen in allergic rhinitis?

A

Bluish, pale, and/or boggy

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21
Q

White-to-light gray patch that appears on tongue, floor of mouth, inside cheek.

A

Leukoplakia

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22
Q

Aphthous stomatitis

A

Canker sore

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23
Q

Geographic tongue

A

Tongue surface has maplike appearance; benign

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24
Q

Torus palatinus

A

Painless bony protuberance midline on hard palate; benign

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25
Optic nerve cupping is associated with ____?
Glaucoma
26
HTN or DM: Copper & silver wire arterioles?
Hypertensive retinopathy
27
HTN or DM: Arteriovenous nicking
Hypertensive retinopathy
28
HTN or DM: Cotton-wool spots
Diabetic retinopathy
29
Clusters of small red papules with white centers inside cheeks by lower molars (Hint: pathognomonic for measles (rubeola)
Koplik's spots
30
First line treatment for nasal polyps?
Intranasal glucocorticoids (ex: fluticasone or budesonide BID)
31
Condition of tongue caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Hairy leukoplakia
32
Excessive constriction of the pupil
Miosis
33
Drooping of upper eyelid
Ptosis
34
Legal blindness vision (Snellen test result)
20/200 (ex: patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 200 feet)
35
Vision chart used to measure distance (eye sight)
Snellen chart *Numerator never changes (20/X)
36
Tuning fork midline on forehead
Weber test *Normal = no lateralization. *Abnormal = lateralization/louder in one ear
37
Tuning fork on mastoid process
Rinne test *Normal = air conduction lasts longer than bone conduction (ex: can hear longer in front of ear than on mastoid bone)
38
Types of sensorineural hearing loss (Inner ear)
Aging, damage Ex: Presbycusis, Meniere's disease
39
Types of conductive hearing loss (Outer/middle ear)
Obstruction Ex: Otitis media, ceruminosis, perforation of tympanic membrane
40
Sensorineural or conductive hearing loss: Rinne AC>BC
Sensorineural
41
Sensorineural or conductive hearing loss: Rinne BC>AC
Conductive
42
True/False: Use topical opthalmic abx with pseudomonal coverage if patient is contact lens user
True Ex: ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, trimethoprim-polymyxin B
43
Abscess of a hair follicle and sebaceous gland in upper or lower eyelid
Hordeolum (stye)
44
Gradual onset of increased IOP >22 mmHg due to blockage of the drainage of aqueous humor inside eye
Primary open-angle glaucoma
45
Sudden blockage of aqueous humor with elevated IOP, resulting in ischemia & permanent damage to optic nerve
Primary angle-closure glaucoma
46
Gradual damage to pigment of macula (area of central vision) that results in severe visual loss or blindness (hint: leading cause of blindness in elderly)
Age-related macular degeneration
47
Amsler grid is used to test vision for central vision loss commonly seen in _______ _________?
Macular degeneration
48
First-line treatment for allergic rhinitis?
Topical nasal sprays (ex: Fluticasone, Nasacort)
49
Tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical adenopathy, hx of fever, absence of cough
Strep throat symptoms
50
First-line treatment for strep throat?
Oral penicillin V (500 mg 2-3x/day x10 days) or Amoxicillin BID x 10 days
51
Strep treatment if penicillin or beta-lactam allergy?
Azithromycin (Z-Pak) x5 days
52
First-line treatment for acute otitis media (AOM) for any age group?
Amoxicillin
53
Second-line treatment for AOM (if no response to initial treatment in 48-72 hrs)?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin), cefdinir or cefprozil, or levofloxacin or moxifloxacin
54
First-line treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
55
Acute onset of severe headache that interferes with sleep, abnormal neuro exam, confusion, febrile. Life threatening emergency with high mortality (Hint: serious complication of AOM and rhinosinusitis).
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
56
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by what virus?
EBV
57
Classic triad of mono symptoms?
Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (<50% of cases)
58
Diagnostic test to confirm mono?
Monospot
59
Type of vertigo caused by disorders of the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear or by inflammation of CN VIII?
Peripheral vertigo
60
Type of vertigo associated with stroke (cerebellar or brainstem bleeding), MS, infections, or tumor (Hint: can be life-threatening)
Central vertigo
61
Gold-stand clinical test for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo disease (BPPV)
Dix-Hallpike maneuver
62
Type of vertigo: abrupt onset w/ brief episodes (<1 min) induced by sudden head movements. Due to calcium carbonate crystals trapped in semicircular canals
BPPV
63
Diagnostic tool to check for corneal abrasion and keratitis?
Fluorescein strip
64
Reliever therapy for allergic rhinitis?
2nd generation oral antihistamines (ex: loratidine/Claritin, cetirizine/Zyrtec)
65
"Rope-like" eye discharge most consistent with?
Allergic conjunctivitis
66
Most common type of oral cancer? (Hint: can be related to HPV 16)
Squamous cell carcinoma
67
Potent risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
Longstanding HPV infection (HPV 16), tobacco use, alcohol misuse Other risk factors: male gender, advancing age (>55 yrs)
68
True/False: Retinal veins are always wider than arteries
True
69
Myopia
Nearsightedness
70
Tonometry reading tests for which vision disorder?
Glaucoma
71
Gradual onset blurring of near vision?
Presbyopia (normative age-related finding in eye, lens becomes less flexible)
72
Gradual peripheral vision loss?
Glaucoma Risk factors: older, African ancestry, DM2
73
Central vision loss?
Macular degeneration *most problematic, no cure *Risk factors: >50, smoking, HTN *Dry (develops slowly); Wet (develops quickly)
74
Presbycusis?
Age-related hearing loss; loss of CN VIII sensitivity
75
Eye condition with following risk factors: tobacco use, poor nutrition, sun exposure, systemic corticosteroid therapy
Senile cataracts (lens clouding) *progressive vision dimming, distance vision problems
76
Common pathogens for suppurative conjunctivitis (non-gonococcal, non-chlamydial)
S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
77
First-line treatment for suppurative conjunctivitis?
Opthalmic cipro ocular solution or polymyxin B with trimethoprim opthalmic solution
78
Viral conjunctivitis ("pink-eye") typically caused by _____ ?
Adenovirus
79
1:2 mixture of white vinegar/rubbing alcohol eardrops can help decrease reinfection of _____?
Otitis externa (Swimmer's ear)
80
Common pathogen for otitis externa?
Pseudomonas, S. aureus
81
True/False: Otitis media with effusion (serous otitis) typically needs antimicrobial therapy
False; usually resolves in 1-3 weeks without intervention