Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICROBIOLOGY (2ND YEAR) > ENTEROBACTERIACEAE > Flashcards

ENTEROBACTERIACEAE Flashcards

1
Q

A K/A reaction on a TSI slant indicates that the organism is a:
E. coli
Shigella
Klebsiella
EIEC

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A K/A reaction on a TSI slant indicates that the organism is a:
Yellow/yellow
Red/red
Yellow/red
Red/yellow

A

Red/yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Organisms that typically produce clear colonies (green without black centers) on Hektoen agar are:
Shigella
Salmonella
E. coli
Klebsiella

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

he gram stain characteristic of Enterobacteriaceae should be:
Gram negative rod without spores
Gram negative rods with spores
Gram negative cocci with spores
Gram negative rods without spores

A

Gram negative rods without spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which organism species does not exhibit Phenylalanine deaminase (PD) production:
Morganella
Proteus
Providencia
Klebsiella

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which species of Enterobacteriaceae has this unique characteristic- VP negative:
Shigella
Proteus
Salmonella
E. coli

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Resistant to heat and alcohol and detected by bacterial antigen:
H Ag
O Ag
K Ag
Vi Ag

A

O Ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An organism gives the following reactions: TSI A/A, no H2S, gas produced. The most likely identification is:
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Salmonella typhi
Shigella dysenteria
Salmonella enteritidis

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following are characteristics of Citrobacter, EXCEPT:
Citrate (-)
Slow lactose fermenter
Do not decarboxylate lysine compared to salmonella
None of the above

A

Citrate (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment for cystitis caused by E. coli?
Ceftriaxone
Piperacillin
Amoxicillin
Nitrofurantoin

A

Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which species of Enterobacteriaceae has this unique characteristic mucoid colonies?
Shigella
Klebsiella
Proteus
E. coli

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LT of ETEC is antigenic and cross-reacts with the enterotoxin of:
Vibrio cholera
Shigella
Salmonella
Proteus

A

Vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The enteric media XLD uses which pH indicator?
Methyl red
Phenol red
Both
Neither

A

Phenol red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A TSI tube is inoculated and incubated for 18-24 hours. After incubation, the TSI is completely yellow. The technologist should report the TSI reaction as:
K/A H2S (+)
A/A (-) H2S
A/K (-) H2S
A/A (+) H2S

A

A/A (-) H2S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which species of Enterobacteriaceae has this unique characteristic- Green metallic sheen on EMB?
E. coli
Citrobacter
Morganella
Proteus

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The common mode of transmission for Enterobacteriaceae.
    a) blood-borne
    b) fecal-oral
    c) droplet
    d) all are correct
A

b) fecal-oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

These species are normal human microbiota of the GI tract.
a) E. coli
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Klebsiella
d) options 1 and 3

A

d) options 1 and 3
E.coli
Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This organism must be handled in BSL-3 because it produces a
highly fatal bacteremia.
a) Yersinia pestis
b) Yersinia enterolitica
c) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
d) none are correct

A

a) Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Transport media used in the specimen collection of
Enterobacteriaceae are the following, except:
a) Cary-Blair
b) Aimes
c) buffered glycerol saline
d) Stuart

A

c) buffered glycerol saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Components of the CIN agar.
a) Ceftazidime
b) Irgasan
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Cefsulodin
e) Indomethacin
f) Nalidixic acid
g) Cefoxitin
h) Iodine
i) Novobiocin

A

d) Cefsulodin
b) Irgasan
i) Novobiocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An indole-negative, slow lactose-fermenting bacteria that is
known to cause infections from infected medical devices.
a) Citrobacter
b) Serratia marcescens
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) E. coli

A

a) Citrobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

These are facultative anaerobic, motile,gram-negative rods commonly isolated from the intestines of humans and animals.
Identification is primarily based on the ability of the organism to use citrate as the sole carbon source and lysine as a nitrogen source in combination with hydrogen sulfide (H2S) production *
a) Salmonella
b) Proteus
c) Providencia
d) Serratia

A

a) Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Groups of organisms that are seen in mononuclear endothelial
cells of infected penile lesions are caused by which organism?
a) Klebsiella granulomatis
b) Neisseria gonorrhea
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Treponema pallidum

A

a) Klebsiella granulomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This medium contains glucose, sucrose, and lactose and differentiates glucose fermenters from non–glucose fermenters.

a) MacConkey
b) Triple sugar iron
c) Selenite broth
d) Salmonella-Shigella agar

A

b) Triple sugar iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This bacterium is a lactose fermenter, forms blue black with a
metallic green sheen colonies and is the most common cause of
gram-negative health care–associated infections.
a) E. coli
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Citrobacter
d) Yersinia enterolitica

A

a) E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Enterobacteriaceae is the most common group of [?] cultured in clinical laboratories both as normal flora and as agents of disease.

A

gram-negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The taxonomy of the Enterobacteriaceae is complex and rapidly changing since the introduction of techniques that measure evolutionary distance, such as [?] and [?]

A

nucleic acid hybridization and nucleic acid sequencing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS OF ENTEROBACTERIACEAE

Gram reaction and shape
spore
motility
capsule
oxygen requirement
oxidase
carbohydrate fermentation
nitrate reduction enzyme, which to what

A

Gram-negative bacilli
Non-spore forming
Motile (peritrichous)
capsule
oxygen requirement
oxidase
carbohydrate fermentation
nitrate reduction enzyme, which to what

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Non-motile Enterobacters

A

[SKY]

Shigella
Klebsiella
Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Yersinia are nonmotile at [?]

A

35-37 degree Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Yersinia are motile at [?]

A

room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(somatic antigen or cell wall antigen)

A

O antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(capsular antigen or fimbrial antigen)

A

K antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(flagellar antigen)

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

most external part of the cell wall lipopolysaccharide

A

O antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

consisting of repeating units of polysaccharide

A

O antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

usually are detected by bacterial agglutination

A

O antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HA-S

A

O antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

H-L

A

K antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HA-L

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

external to the O antigens on some but not all Enterobacteriaceae

A

K antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

found on the surface of flagella.

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

within a single serotype, flagellar antigens may be present in either or both of two forms, called phase 1 (designated by lower-case letters) and phase 2 (designated by Arabic numerals).

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

organism tends to change from one phase to the

other; this is called phase variation

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

 aerobic and facultative anaerobic
 non-sporeforming
 gram-negative rods
 cytochrome-oxidase negative
 capable of growth in the presence of bile salts

A

COLIFORMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

 ferment lactose at either 35 or 37 oC

 include the normal enteric flora

A

COLIFORMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

COLIFORMS spp

A

[EKEC]

o Escherichia
o Klebsiella
o Enterobacter
o Citrobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

differ from coliforms by their inability to ferment lactose; NLF

A

NONCOLIFORMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fecal coliforms

o most common facultative bacterium in feces of man and warm-blooded animals
o indicator organism of choice for fecal contamination

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ferments lactose at 44.5 oC

A

FECAL COLIFORMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Non fecal coliforms

A

[KEC]

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Citrobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Opportunistic, normal gut flora spp

A

[SHE PPM]

 Serratia
 Hafnia
 Edwardsiella

 Proteus
 Providencia
 Morganella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pathogenic enterics (true enteropathogens) spp

A

 Salmonella
 Shigella
 Yersinia enterocolitica
 Y. pseudotuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pathogenic, non-enteric spp

A

 Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Escherichia coli was first described by [?] in 1885

A

Theodor Escherich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Escherichia coli common name

A

“colon bacillus”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

accounts for approximately 90% of first urinary tract infections in young women

A

Uropathogenic E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Strains of E. coli that cause UTIs usually originate in the large intestine as resident biota.

Infection is more common in women because of their relatively short urethras that promote ascending infection to the bladder (cystitis) and occasionally, the kidneys.

A

Uropathogenic E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Uropathogenic strains possess ____ that have specifically elaborated virulence factors that facilitate colonization and subsequent clinical infections

A

O antigen types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

most common cause of UTIs;

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

primary virulence factor associated with the ability of E. coli to cause UTIs

A

Pili (P fimbrae)

62
Q

allow the bacteria to attach to the urinary epithelial mucosa and not be washed out with urine flow

A

Pili (P fimbrae)

63
Q

cytolysins which can kill immune effector cells and inhibit

chemotaxis and phagocytosis of certain white blood cells

A

Hemolysins

64
Q

allows the bacterial cell to chelate iron; free iron is generally unavailable within the host for use by bacteria

A

Aerobactin

65
Q

Enterovirulent E. coli

A

Diarrheagenic E. coli

66
Q

E. coli may cause several different GI syndromes

A

Diarrheagenic E. coli

67
Q

based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli:

A

Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

68
Q

associated with diarrheal outbreaks occurring in hospital nurseries and daycare centers, but cases in adults are rarely seen

A

Enteropathogenic E. Coli
EPEC

69
Q

Infection is characterized by low-grade fever, malaise, vomiting, and profuse, watery diarrhea. Stool typically contains large amounts of mucus, but apparent blood is not present. Fecal leukocytes are seen only
occasionally.

A

EPEC

70
Q

Diarrhea is usually self-limited but can be prolonged or chronic.

A

EPEC

71
Q

EPEC adhere to intestinal epithelial cells in localized microcolonies producing characteristic histopathologic lesions known as

A

“attaching and effacing lesions”

72
Q

Facilitated by bundle-forming pilus encoded by a plasmid EPEC adherence factor (EAF) and the chromosomal locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE) pathogenicity island that promote the tight adherence, characteristic of EPEC

A

ATTACHMENT

73
Q

occurs after attachment where there is loss of microvilli

A

EFFACEMENT

74
Q

formation of filamentous actin pedestals or cup-like structures

A

EFFACEMENT

75
Q

occasionally, entry of the EPEC into the mucosal cells.

A

EFFACEMENT

76
Q

Associated with two clinical syndromes: “weanling diarrhea” among children in tropical and subtropical climates, especially in developing countries and “Traveler’s diarrhea” (also referred to as “Montezuma’s revenge”; “Delhi belly”).

A

ETEC

77
Q

Infection is spread commonly via consumption of
contaminated food or water; poor hygiene, reduced
availability of sources of potable water, and inadequate
sanitation.

A

ETEC

78
Q

Produces a typically mild, self-limiting disease which has an abrupt onset with short incubation period.

A

ETEC

79
Q

Symptoms include profuse watery diarrhea (similar with V. cholerae), usually without blood, mucus, or pus; accompanied by mild abdominal cramps; usually without vomiting or fever.

A

ETEC

80
Q

facilitates colonization of ETEC on the proximal small intestine by binding to specific receptors on the intestinal microvilli

A

Fimbrae

81
Q

is similar in action and amino acid sequence to cholera toxin from Vibrio cholerae.

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT)

82
Q

Consists of two fragments (A and B), which follow the A/B model of bacterial toxins

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT)

83
Q

enzymatically active portion

A

A MOEITY

84
Q

activates cellular adenylate cyclase, causing an increase in the conversion of adenosine triphosphatetocyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

A

A MOEITY

85
Q

accumulation of cAMP results to hypersecretion of both electrolytes and fluids into the intestinal lumen, resulting in watery diarrhea similar to cholera

A

A MOEITY

86
Q

also known as binding portion

A

B MOEITY

87
Q

confers specificity to the LT

A

B MOEITY

88
Q

associated with hemorrhagic diarrhea, colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

A

EHEC

89
Q

characterized by low platelet count, hemolytic anemia, and kidney failure

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

90
Q

produces a watery diarrhea that progresses to bloody
diarrhea with abdominal cramps and low-grade fever or an absence of fever but the stool does not contain
leukocytes which distinguishes it from dysentery caused by Shigella spp. or EIEC infections

A

EHEC

91
Q

food and food products such as processed meats, unpasteurized dairy products and apple cider, bean sprouts, and spinach have been implicated in the spread of infection

A

EHEC

92
Q

EHEC produces 2 cytotoxins

A

verotoxin I and verotoxin II

93
Q

verotoxin I and verotoxin II are identical to the

A

Shiga toxin (Stx) produced by Shigella dysenteriae type I

94
Q

African green monkey kidney cells; “verotoxin”; damaged by verotoxin I and verotoxin

A

Vero cells

95
Q

phage-encoded cytotoxin

A

Verotoxin I

96
Q

is biologically similar to, but immunologically different from, both Stx and verotoxin I.

A

Verotoxin II

97
Q

Of the E. coli serotypes that produce Shiga toxin, [?] is the most common and is the one that can be identified most readily in clinical specimens

A

O157:H7

98
Q

produce a diarrheal illness which is very similar to that produced by Shigella spp — dysentery with direct penetration, invasion, and destruction of the epithelial cells that make up the large intestinal mucosa

A

EIEC

99
Q

Infections seem to occur in children in developing

countries and in travelers to these countries.

A

EIEC

100
Q

Direct transmission of EIEC from person to person via the [?] has been reported.

A

fecal-oral route

101
Q

Clinical infection is characterized by fever, colitis, severe abdominal cramps (tenesmus), malaise, and watery diarrhea with blood, mucus and leukocytes in stool.

A

EIEC

102
Q

Causes acute and chronic diarrhea (>14 days in duration) in persons in developing countries; it also is the cause of food-borne illnesses in industrialized countries and have been associated with traveler’s diarrhea and persistent diarrhea in patients with HIV.

A

EIEC

103
Q

Adhere to epithelial cells in a pattern resembling a pile of stacked bricks.

A

EIEC

104
Q

Illness is characterized by watery, mucoid diarrhea with low grade fever and little or no vomiting, white blood cells and red blood cells are typically absent from the stool.

A

EAEC

105
Q

Pathology has been associated with production of ST-like toxin, an LT toxin, and fibril colonization factors called “AAFs” (aggregative adherence fimbriae).

A

EAEC

106
Q

fibril colonization factors

A

“AAFs” (aggregative adherence fimbriae)

107
Q

E. coli remains one of the most common causes of septicemia and meningitis among neonates.

A

Extraintestinal Infections

108
Q

A newborn usually acquires the infection in the birth canal just before or during delivery, when the mother’s vagina is heavily colonized or may also result if the amniotic fluid occurs becomes contaminated

A

Extraintestinal Infections

109
Q

Sepsis may occur when normal host defenses are inadequate (e.g., newborns may be highly susceptible to E. coli sepsis because they lack IgM antibodies); or secondary to urinary tract infection.

A

Extraintestinal Infections

110
Q

Approximately 75% of E. coli from meningitis cases have the K1 antigen which is said to cross-react with the group B capsular polysaccharide of N. meningitidis.

A

Extraintestinal Infections

111
Q

Klebsiella species common name

A

“Friedlander’s bacillus”

112
Q

have been associated with various opportunistic and hospitalacquired infections, particularly pneumonia, wound infections, and UTIs.

A

Klebsiella

113
Q

the most commonly isolated Klebsiella species

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

114
Q

In addition to inhabiting the intestines of humans and animals

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

115
Q

It causes a small proportion (~1%) of bacterial pneumonias characterized as extensive hemorrhagic necrotizing consolidation of the lung resulting in the production of sputum that may be thick, mucoid, and brick red, or thin and “currant jelly-like” in appearance.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

116
Q

found in the respiratory tract and feces of about 5% of normal individuals

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

117
Q

Also produces urinary tract infection, wound infections, meningitis, bacteremia with focal lesions (e.g., abscesses) in debilitated patients.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

118
Q

Pathology has been associated with a large polysaccharide capsule that confers protection against phagocytosis and antimicrobial absorption.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

119
Q

Produces infections similar to those caused by K. pneumoniae.

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

120
Q

Isolates have also been linked to antibiotic/antimicrobial-associated hemorrhagic colitis (AAHC)

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

121
Q

a distinct form of antibiotic-associated diarrhea, in which C. difficile is absent and where patients experience a sudden onset of bloody diarrhea often in combination with severe abdominal cramps.

A

antibiotic/antimicrobial-associated hemorrhagic colitis (AAHC)

122
Q

Has been isolated from cerebral abscesses and nasal mucosa in ozena
cerebral abscesses and nasal mucosa in ozena,

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae subspecies ozaenae

123
Q

a fetid, progressive atrophy of mucous membranes (atrophic rhinitis and tissuedestructive disease restricted to the nose).

A

OZENA

124
Q

rhinoscleroma

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae subspecies rhinoscleromatis

125
Q

a destructive granuloma of the nose and pharynx that manifests as an intense swelling and malformation of the entire face and neck.

A

rhinoscleroma

126
Q

Klebsiella granulomatis formerly called

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

127
Q

causes, granuloma inguinale, a chronic genital ulcerative disease and an uncommon sexually transmitted disease.

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

128
Q

Resembles Klebsiella in terms of growth and most biochemical characteristics except that they motile.
Pathology is associated with capsule production for some strains.

A

Enterobacter species

129
Q

are the two most common isolates of Enterobacter species

A

Enterobacter cloacae and Enterobacter (now Klebsiella) aerogenes

130
Q

cause a broad range of hospital-acquired infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infections, and wound and device infections, on occasion, septicemia, and meningitis

A

Enterobacter cloacae and Enterobacter (now Klebsiella) aerogenes

131
Q
  1. A 17 year old boy experiences a bloody diarrhea.
    CBC showed thrombocytopenia. What would you
    ask his past food or fluid intake?
    A. Poultry
    B. Bread contaminated with cow’s manure
    C. Fruit juice not properly prepared
    D. Beef bought in a nearby market
A

Answer: [D.] BEEF BOUGHT IN A NEARBY MARKET.
Shiga Toxin-producing E. Coli has been associated with
hemorrhagic colitis, a severe form of diarrhea, with
hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS), a disease resulting in
Acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and
thrombocytopenia. This E. coli strain is commonly found in
meat (burgers).

132
Q

Ingested E.coli O157:H7 produces high levels of
toxins in the large intestine. These toxins are
closely related to those produced by which of the
following organisms?
A. Enteroinvasive E.coli
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Serratia marcescens

A

Answer: [B.] SHIGELLA DYSENTERIAE. O157-H7 is
one of the e.coli serotypes that produce shiga toxin.
Shiga-like toxin 1 is identical to the Shiga toxin of Shigella
dysenteriae type 1, and Shiga-like toxin 2 also has many
properties that are similar to the Shiga toxin.

133
Q
  1. Ms. Lila, 56 year old, had history of travel to
    Palawan for a business meeting. After 2 days, she
    developed watery diarrhea? What organism will
    you entertain?
    A. ETEC
    B. EPEC
    C. EIEC
    D. EAEC
A

Answer: [A.] ETEC. Enterotoxigenic E. coli is the
common cause of “traveler’s diarrhea”, a diarrhea that
develops during, or shortly after, travel abroad.

134
Q
  1. Gram-negative rods that do not ferment lactose
    A. Bacillus
    B. Bacillus subtilis
    C. Salmonella
    D. Klebsiella
A

[C.] SALMONELLA. The inability to ferment lactose
distinguishes shigellae on differential media. Klebsiella is
a lactose fermenter. Bacillus is gram positive and Bacillus
subtilis is a gram positive non lactose fermenter.

135
Q

Mrs. Simon, a retired teacher, developed diarrhea
4 days after eating chicken. On physical
examination, temperature is 38.5°C, heart rate is
45/min. Physical examination of the chest showed
a rose spot. This is suggestive of what organism?
A. Shigella boydii
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella
E. Serratia marcescens

A

Answer: [A.] SALMONELLA TYPHI. Typhoid fever
presents rose spots, usually on the skin of the abdomen
or chest. The most important causative agent for this is
Salmonella serotype Typhi.

136
Q
  1. Mrs. Simon, a retired teacher, developed diarrhea
    4 days after eating chicken. On physical
    examination, temperature is 38.5°C, heart rate is
    45/min. Physical examination of the chest showed
    a rose spot. You did a biochemical test on Mrs.
    Simon’s specimen. What would you expect?
    A. Alkaline/Acid with gas formation
    B. Acid/Acid with gas formation
    C. Alkaline/Acid without H2S formation
    D. Acid/Alkaline with H2S formation
    E. Serratia marcescens
A

Answer: [A.] ALKALINE/ACID WITH GAS FORMATION.
Salmonella and Shigella presents alkaline slant and acid
butt. Salmonella ferments glucose, producing acid and gas.

137
Q
  1. Mrs. Simon, a retired teacher, developed diarrhea 4
    days after eating chicken. On physical examination,
    temperature is 38.5°C, heart rate is 45/min. Physical
    examination of the chest showed a rose spot. What
    differential media would you use on Mrs. Simon’s
    specimen?
    A. MacConkey agar
    B. Eosin Methylene Blue
    C. Chocolate agar
    D. Hektons Enteric Agar
A

Answer: [D.] HEKTOENS ENTERIC AGAR. Hektoen
enteric agar, a selective medium, is able and favors growth
of salmonellae and shigellae over other Enterobacteriaceae.

138
Q
  1. Mrs. Simon, a retired teacher, developed diarrhea 4
    days after eating chicken. On physical examination,
    temperature is 38.5°C, heart rate is 45/min. Physical
    examination of the chest showed a rose spot. What
    antibiotic will you give to Mrs. Simon?
    A. Vancomycin
    B. Ceftriaxone
    C. Amoxicillin
    D. Meropenem
A

Answer: [C.] AMOXICILLIN. Antimicrobial therapy of
invasive Salmonella infections is with ampicillin,
trimethoprim–sulfa

139
Q
  1. Mrs. Miranda, 33 years old, experienced urinary
    frequency. She also complained of hypogastric
    pain. Urinalysis showed pyuria and hematuria. Her
    vital signs are stable. Your diagnosis is?
    A. Cystitis
    B. Acute pyelonephritis
    C. Acute Glomerulonephritis
    D. Acute nephritis
A

Answer: [A.] CYSTITIS. Cystitis presents increased urinary
frequency, pain above the pubic region, bacteria and WBCs
in the urine (pyuria), possible hematuria, and usually the
absence of fever in adults.

140
Q
  1. Mrs. Miranda, 33 years old, experienced urinary
    frequency. She also complained of hypogastric
    pain. Urinalysis showed pyuria and hematuria. Her
    vital signs are stable. You did a biochemical test
    suggestive of Escherichia coli? What would you
    expect on TSI?
    A. Non-lactose fermenter with gas formation
    B. Lactose fermenter without gas formation
    C. Lactose fermenter with gas formation
    D. Non-lactose fermenter without gas formation
A

Answer: [C.] LACTOSE FERMENTER WITH GAS
FORMATION. E. coli produces gas from glucose. It is a
Lactose, Sucrose, and Glucose fermenter.

141
Q
  1. Mrs. Miranda, 33 years old, experienced urinary
    frequency. She also complained of hypogastric
    pain. Urinalysis showed pyuria and hematuria.
    What antibiotic will you give to her?
    A. Ceftriaxone
    B. Amoxicillin
    C. Piperacillin tazobactam
    D. Nitrofurantoin
A

Answer: [D.] Mrs. Miranda is experiencing Cystitis which
is a bladder infection usually accompanied with increase
urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria (painful urination),
pain above the pubic region (hypogastric), WBCs &
bacteria in urine and possible hematuria which is also
more common in women. The drug of choice would be
Nitrofurantoin that has uncommon resistance and little
systemic effect. It is widely used either short term to treat
acute urinary tract infections or long term as chronic
prophylaxis against recurrent infections.

142
Q

You are on duty at the ER. An infant was brought
presenting with seizure and nuchal rigidity. Your
diagnosis is?
A. Febrile seizure
B. Encephalitis
C. Meningitis
D. Typhoid fever

A

Answer: [C.] Seizures and nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) is
the usual symptoms of meningitis that are accompanied
by headache, nausea, vomiting and sensitivity to light.

143
Q
  1. You are on duty at the ER. An infant was brought
    presenting with seizure and nuchal rigidity. The
    organism causing this is:
    A. Klebsiella pneumonia
    B. Enterobacter aerogenes
    C. Shigella dysenteriae
    D. Escherichia coli
A

Answer: [D.] The leading cause of Meningitis in infants is
caused by a disease-causing strain known as E. coli
K1(Ag). Most cases of E. coli meningitis occur in newborn
babies or babies under 3 months of age. Other leading
cause is Group B streptococci which is not included in the
choices.

144
Q
  1. Mr. Romantico was diagnosed with UTI. Urinalysis
    showed a pH of 8 (alkaline urine). What typical
    organism is causing Mr. Romantico’s UTI?
    A. Salmonella typhi
    B. Proteus vulgaris
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Providencia sp.
A

Answer: [B.] Proteus species produce urease, resulting in
rapid hydrolysis of urea with liberation of ammonia. Thus, in
urinary tract infections with Proteus species, the urine
becomes alkaline, promoting stone formation and making
acidification virtually impossible. The rapid motility of
contribute to its invasion of the urinary tract.

145
Q
  1. Mr. Romantico was diagnosed with UTI. Urinalysis
    showed a pH of 8 (alkaline urine). You did a urease
    test. The positive result showed:
    A. Orange to pink
    B. Magenta pink to orange
    C. Red ring on top
    D. Green turned into blue
A

Answer: [A.] Positive urease test would demonstrate a
change in color in from Orange to Pink. The test organism
is placed in a urea agar which contains urea and phenol red.
If the strain produces urease, this enzyme will convert urea
to CO2 and ammonia. NH3 then combines w/ H2O to form
ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH), a strong base which
increases pH of the medium. Accordingly, this pH shifts
causes phenol red to change color from light orange at pH
6.8 to a deep pink color at pH 8.1.

146
Q
  1. Mr. Suave developed hospital acquired infection.
    MacConkey agar showed (refer to image below).
    cont. The microorganism involved is:
    A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    B. Escherichia coli
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Serratia marcescens
A

Answer: [A.] Klebsiella pneumonia demonstrates moist
pink colonies in EMB due to the presence of capsule and
it is a common nosocomial (hospital acquired)
infection, specifically pneumonia in the general
community

147
Q
  1. Mr. Suave developed hospital acquired infection.
    MacConkey agar showed (refer to image below)
    You did a biochemical test to Mr. Suave’s specimen.
    You will expect:
    A. Lactose fermenter, motile
    B. Lactose non-fermenter, motile
    C. Lactose fermenter, nonmotile
    D. Lactose non-fermenter, nonmotile
A

Answer: [C.] The image shows Klebsiella pneumonia on
EMB media which is a gram-negative, lactosefermenting, non-motile, aerobic rod-shaped bacterium.

148
Q
  1. Which of the following exhibit the “swarming
    effect”?
    A. Proteus
    B. Providencia
    C. Morganella
    D. E. coli
A

Answer: [A.] Proteus species move actively by its
peritrichous flagella (typical), resulting in “swarming
effect” on solid media.

149
Q
  1. Prodigiosin is seen in
    A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    B. Escherichia coli
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Serratia marcescens
A

Answer: [D.] A class of tripyrrole antibiotic pigments with
red color produced by strains of Serratia marcescens is
known as the prodigiosin. Only about 10% of isolates form
the red pigment(prodigiosin) that has long characterized
S. marcescens.

150
Q
A

MICROBIOLOGY (2ND YEAR) (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions