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Genetics final exam > ENTM definitions > Flashcards

ENTM definitions Flashcards

1
Q

what percentage of insects are herbivorous?

A

30-35%

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2
Q

phytophagous insects

A

herbivorous insects

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3
Q

polyphagous insects

A

generalists that feed on many plant groups
-ex: aphids, grasshoppers

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4
Q

oligophagous insects

A

insects that feed on a few plant groups
-ex: monarch butterflies, caterpillars

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5
Q

monophagous insects

A

insects that feed on only one plant group
-ex: galls

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6
Q

constitutive defense

A

defenses which are always present
-ex: bark on trees (always devoting energy towards it)

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7
Q

induced defense

A

activated/synthesized only in the response to injury
-ex: toxins produced which harm feeding insects

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8
Q

non volatile vs volatile terpenes

A

non volatile: may be distasteful to herbivores (ex: minonene)

volatile: warns herbivores that the plant is toxic before feeding occurs (ex: menthol)

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9
Q

phytoecdysones

A

plant stepids that are chemically similar to insect molting hormones. Can interfere with/inhibit molting when ingested

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10
Q

sequestration

A

the storage of toxic/distasteful secondary plant metabolites in tissues

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10
Q

trenching

A

example of a behavioural adaptation in response to plant defenses
- insects will chew rings into leaves, which prevents the plant from releasing defensive chemicals into that area

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11
Q

gall insects

A

insects which form a specialized plant-insect interaction in which the morphology of the plant is altered by the insect
-create “galls” which modifies the plants to grow around their developing eggs, providing food and/or protection for the inhabitant

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12
Q

how many species of gall forming insects are known?

A

roughly 13,000

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13
Q

what percentage of insects are predators, parasitoids, or parasites?

A

roughly 25%

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14
Q

parasitoids

A

parasites which kill their host to complete lifecycle
-parasitic as larave, free living as adults

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15
Q

what percentage of hymenopterans are parasitoids?

A

3/4

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16
Q

what percentage of dipterans are parasitoids?

A

1/4

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17
Q

what percentage of all insects are parasitoids?

A

roughly 10%

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18
Q

ectoparasitoid

A

larval stage feed from OUTSIDE of the host. common in most concealed hosts

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19
Q

endoparasitoid

A

larval stage feed from INSIDE the host (adults lay eggs into the body of a host; larvae develops in the host then eats them from the inside out)

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20
Q

solitary parasitoid

A

one larvae develops on/in the host

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21
Q

gregarious parasitoid

A

multiple larvae develop in/on the host, results from multiple eggs

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22
Q

polyembryonic parasitoid

A

multiple larvae from ONE EGG develop in/on the host
(polyembryony)

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23
Q

idobiont

A

parasitoid which stops the development of host at the time of parasitism
-inject substances into host which paralyzes or impedes development

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24
Q

koinobiont

A

host continues development after parasitism
-may inject substances to alter immune system (ex polydnaviruses)

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25
Q

primary parasitoids

A

attack non parasitoid hosts

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26
Q

hyperparasitoids

A

attacks other parasitoids

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27
Q

crypsis (camouflage)

A

blending into the environment which you exist in (living or non living things)
-includes behavioral and morphological adaptations

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28
Q

polydna viruses

A

some parasitoids inject viruses into hosts (occurs naturally and replicates within the wasps ovaries)
-when injected, the virus incorporates itself into the host’s genome and begins replicating
-causes immune response to breakdown which disrupts encapsulation and prevents nutrient uptake

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29
Q

warning/startle displays

A

-used to scare away predators
-ex: eye spots; mainly seen in lepidoptera

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30
Q

Aposematism

A

warning colouration (warns predators of danger)

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31
Q

mimicry

A

attempting to appear a different species or object

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32
Q

Sclerotization

A

hardened exoskeleton
-most organisms cannot pierce/break through the exoskeleton

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33
Q

stream drift

A

-seen in mayflies
-when feeling threatened, they will let go of a rock/substance in order to flee the predator
-get carried away by the current

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34
Q

feigning death

A

playing dead (seen in weevils)

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35
Q

reflex bleeding

A

-squeeze hemolymph into certain parts of the body, allows predators to come in contact with the chemicals within the hemolymph without actually being eaten

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36
Q

model

A

organism/object which species attempts to mimic

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37
Q

mimic

A

species which mimics the model

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38
Q

observer (dupe)

A

potential predators to models/mimics

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39
Q

Batesian mimicry

A

-dangerous model, displaying warning colouration
-edible mimic, displaying warning coloration
-negative frequency-dependent selection: the more common the mimic, the less effective the mimicry

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40
Q

Mullerian mimicry:

A

-model and mimic are both distasteful or defenses + display warning coloration
-no clear identity of the model or mimic (either may be the model)
-rarity of each species has no impact on success (since they are both defended anyway)

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41
Q

mimicry ring

A

a group of organisms within a close geographical area which have adapted to have similar appearances

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42
Q

Myrnecomorphy

A

the mimicry of ants by other organisms

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43
Q

Wasmannian mimicry

A

resembles a model along with which it lives. Mainly chemical
-ex: within an ants nest, you will find silverfish, spiders, etc. Which mimic ants.

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44
Q

aggressive mimicry

A

share the same characteristics as a harmless species, allowing them to avoid detection by their prey
-ex: trash carrying insects
-mainly chemical

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45
Q

reproductive mimicry

A

actions of the observer (dupe) directly aids the mimics reproduction
-mainly chemical

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46
Q

automimicry

A

one part of an organism’s body resembles another body part
-ex: end of wing resembles their head. Can lose part of a wing, but not their head.

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47
Q

parasites

A

an organism that lives in or on another organism (its host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the host’s expense

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48
Q

pathogens

A

a biological agent that causes disease or illness to its host. May also be referred to as an infectious agent
-includes: bacteria, viruses, fungi, protists, nematodes

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49
Q

american foulbrood

A

bacteria which causes infection of larvae (only susceptible within the first three days of life)
-occurs if they eat a host with this bacteria. Will grow in the larvae and eventually kill it

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50
Q

deformed wing virus

A

RNA virus in which affected cannot fly and have a shortened lifespan

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51
Q

NPVs (nucleopolyhedro viruses)

A

RNA virus which primarily impact butterflies and moths
-when the caterpillars are about to die, they climb to the top of a plant, and their virus-infected body droops down and infects other insects
-populations in caterpillars tend to build greatly, then crash and remain low for a long time until spiking again

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52
Q

Nosema ceranae

A

Microsporidians found in honey bees

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53
Q
A
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54
Q

varroa mite

A

parasitic mite heavily involved in pathogen transmission across honey bees

55
Q

horsehair worms

A

parasites of insects which live in water and enter host when they drink water

56
Q

endosymbionts

A

organisms that live within the body or cells of an organism

57
Q

wolbachia

A

genus of bacteria that insects 15-60% of all insect species
-gets passed down through the eggs of insects (only females can pass it on)

58
Q

male killing wolbachia

A

male offspring is killed during larval development
-since only females can pass on the bacteria, reducing the number of males in the population will increase the rates of transmission

59
Q

cytoplasmic incompatibility wolbachia

A

an infected male cannot successfully fertilize an uninfected female
-males are able to develop into adults, but can only reproduce with affected females

60
Q

feminization wolbachia

A

infected males develop as females (destroys male-horming producing organs)
-some may develop into fertile females, or infertile “pseudo females”

61
Q

parthenogensis wolbachia

A

in haplodiploid insects (where a female can choose whether to develop a fertilized egg or unfertilized egg), all offspring (fertilized or not) become females

62
Q

sociality

A

cooperative behaviours between individuals of the same species

63
Q

Quasisociality

A

communal nesting within the same generation, but there is cooperation between all insects (all females are capable of producing eggs, and all contribute to reproduction)
-can take care of offspring that are not their own

64
Q

semisociality

A

communal nesting within the same generation, all individuals care for their own offspring as well as other offspring
-division of reproductive labeling (not all females contribute equally to the offspring)
-queens present (but have NO morphological differences from workers)

65
Q

eusociality: four elements

A
  1. Live communally
  2. Overlap of generations (longer term association). All contribute to the colony
  3. Cooperative parental care (with division of reproductive labor)
  4. Caste system: different individuals based on their rolls
    -queens: only individuals who reproduce
    -workers: assist queens
    -soldiers: defense
66
Q

primitive eusocial insects

A

all individuals are morphologically similar
-colonies are not as long term (usually last under one year)
-colony is founded by the queen. Maintains hierarchy by inhibiting workers from laying their own eggs
-mostly seen in wasps, and some bees

67
Q

advanced eusocial insects

A

seen in termites, ants, some bees, and some wasps
-age polyphenism
-trophogenic caste differentiation
-morphological differences between workers + queens

68
Q

age polyphenism

A

roles of workers change as they age (younger honey bees perform duties within the colony, older workers leave and collect resources for the colony)

69
Q

trophogenic caste differentiation

A

difference between a worker and a queen depends on the food which they eat during development, as well as the type of egg they develop in

70
Q

cantharophily

A

beetle pollination

70
Q

myophily

A

fly pollination

71
Q

psychophily

A

butterfly pollination

72
Q

phalaenophily

A

moth pollination

73
Q

sphecophily

A

wasp pollination

74
Q

melittophily

A

bee pollination

75
Q

blue vane trap

A

yellow tub with a funnel at the top, preservative at the bottom which drowns the bees which we can then sample

75
Q

aerial netting

A

used to catch bees (specifically for those who are not well caught by other traps)

76
Q

pan traps

A

blue, yellow, white (represent most attractive colour to bees)

77
Q

Malaise traps

A

insects will fly upwards when hitting a surface as instinct. When they hit the net, they will fly towards the top and get funneled into a collecting cup

78
Q

what percentage of crops rely on pollinators?

A

34%
-75% show yield increases with pollinators

79
Q

honey bee stressors(9)

A
  1. varroa mite
  2. tracheal mites
  3. nosema
  4. RNA viruses
  5. bacteria
  6. fungi
  7. small hive beetle
  8. insecticides
  9. malnutrition
80
Q

bee tracheal mites

A

parasitic mites which live in the tracheal system of bees. Weaken individuals, which increases individual mortality

81
Q

small hive beetle

A

does not directly hurt bees, however their larvae feed on the hive material, forcing the bees to abandon the area

82
Q

wild bee stressors

A
  1. pesticides
  2. habitat loss, fragmentation, agricultural intensification
  3. competition, pathogen spillover between species
83
Q

alien species

A

species which was introduced by human action outside of their natural past or present distribution
-introductions can be deliberate, accidental, harmful, and/or beneficial

84
Q

invasive alien species

A

those whose introduction or spread threatens the environment, the economy, or society, including human health

85
Q

enemy release hypothesis

A

states that alien species have the potential to become invasive when they are free from their natural controls in the new area they are established in

86
Q

invasional release hypothesis

A

states that a group of alien species can facilitate the invasion of others, therefore creating a new alien species
-(ex: soybean aphids would not be invasive if buckthorn was not present for them to overwinter on)

87
Q

niche utilization

A

many alien species become invasive simply because they are better at doing a certain thing in their respective environment (ex: better predators than any native species in the area, therefore more likely to become successful)

88
Q

Economic-injury level concept

A

used to determine the density of insects required to justify control

EIL=C/XID*K

89
Q

economic threshold

A

-the number of insects which should trigger management action to prevent populations from reaching the economic injury level. If anything exceeds the economic threshold, the control action should be taken

90
Q

ecological control

A

modifying the environment within the crop and disrupting pest requisites
-reduce favorable ecosystems

91
Q

biological control

A

the purposeful use or manipulation of natural enemies to reduce pest populations or pest status

92
Q

sterile insect technology

A

releasing sterile male insects to reduce chances of females finding a male to mate with

93
Q

surveillance

A

insect population sampling for collecting information

94
Q

sampling

A

used to determine information including: presence/absence, population size/density, geographical distribution, status of migration/local movement, etc

95
Q

quantitative sampling

A

directly enumerating things like density

96
Q

qualitative sampling

A

general things like presence vs absence, current distribution

97
Q

biocontrol: conservation /habitat modification

A

working with the natural enemies already in the area to help improve the situation

98
Q

Importation (classical biocontrol)

A

used for the control of alien pests who are free of natural enemies
-import natural enemies and allow them to become established

99
Q

Augmentation

A

directly releasing natural enemies in an ecosystem where you need them to reduce pest populations in a short or medium term.
-two types: Inundative releases, inoculative releases

100
Q

augmentation: Inundative releases

A

mass, continual, or periodic releases (used especially when the establishment of the NE is unlikely for one of more reasons, for example if they cannot overwinter in the area)

101
Q

augmentation: Inoculative releases

A

release fewer insects, because you expect reproduction and continued control from the following natural enemies generations (can become established)

102
Q

no choice tests

A

present the biocontrol candidate with the related (non target) species you are concerned about to determine efficiency
-does the insect cause similar damage to non-target species?

103
Q

control tests

A

present insect with choices between target host and other related species to assess non-target risks (does the enemy prefer one species over another?)

104
Q

adaptations of parasitic insects

A
  1. flattened body shape
  2. loss of wings
  3. movement and dispersal (claws, jumping legs, flight at specific times of life cycle, etc)
104
Q

telmophage (pool feeders)

A

create a big hole, breaking blood cells, in order to create a pool of blood (ex: horse flies)

105
Q

Solenophage (tube feeders)

A

pierce through skin and feed directly from a blood vessel through a tube (ex mosquitos)

106
Q

Free-living blood suckers

A

do not live on host. Visit host periodically when needed
-ex mosquito

107
Q

Nest or borrow blood suckers

A

bound to host by habitat
-live with host (provides food and home)
-ex bedbugs

108
Q

Rapid feeding temporary parasites

A

stay in fairly close association with the host (ex on back of a cow)
-feed often, and leave when it is time to lay eggs
-ex horn flies

109
Q

Slow feeding temporary parasites

A

spend most of life not on host
-feed for 5-7 days, then drop of host to produce offspring
-takes ONE big batch of blood instead of multiple small batches
-ex ticks

110
Q

Permanent ectoparasites

A

adapted to host
-take small blood meals often, lay eggs often
-entire life cycle is spent on host; die if they are removed
-ex sucking lice

111
Q

myiasis

A

invasion of tissues from fly larvae

112
Q

bot flies (oestridae)

A

obligate myiasis. Adults do not feed, but larvae feed on host
-create a hole in host’s flesh, stick their spiracles out to breathe, and feed until ready to pupate

113
Q

what is needed for transmission to occur?

A

the HOST, VECTOR, and PATHOGEN (or parasite) must all be present in the same area

113
Q

dog heartworm

A

caused by a nematode which aggregate within the heart of dogs
-transmitted by mosquitoes (mostly) and sometimes fleas
-infest the right ventricular and pulmonary arteries
-reduces amount of blood flowing to the body, leads to weakness, lethargy, and heart failure
-develops partly within the mosquito (aka the vector (mosquito) is necessary for transmission

114
Q

bluetongue virus

A

transmitted by biting midges to sheep and cattle
-most animals are asymptomatic, others develop acute, fatal disease (Reoviridae)
-swelling of tongue, problems with circulation, ulcers, hoof issues, curved back (because of sore hooves) are symptoms

115
Q

problems caused by arthropods for humans(7)

A
  1. annoyance
  2. fear
  3. toxins and venoms
  4. allergic reactions
  5. food contamination
  6. invasion of host tissues (myiasis)
  7. pathogen transmission
116
Q

delusional parasitosis

A

psychological disorder where you feel that insects are always crawling on/in you

117
Q

envenomation

A

the act of injecting venom into animal tissues

118
Q

toxins

A

poisons of plants or animal origin

119
Q

venoms

A

a poisonous mixture of compounds containing one or more toxins

120
Q

vector

A

the arthropod responsible for transmission of parasites or pathogen (ex mosquito)

121
Q

pathogen

A

called a pathogen when a parasite causes a disease

122
Q

biological transmission

A

part of the development of the pathogen occurs within the host (ex dog heartworm)

123
Q

mechanical transmission

A

pathogen is transmitted mechanically (ex through a bite) but does not develop within the host

124
Q

the plague

A

transmitted by fleas which lived on small rodents
-vector: flea
-hosts: small mammals (rats) and humans
-pathogen: bacteria called Yersinia pestis
-still present in North America in wild rodent populations (1,000-3,000 cases annually worldwide)

125
Q

how many people were killed from the plague?

A

-has claimed more lives than all wars ever fought (75-200 million people)

126
Q

typhus

A

infection caused by scratching, crushed lice, inhalation of feces (viable in dried feces for 60 days)
-symptoms: delirium, high fever, photophobia, severe headaches and muscle pain, death

127
Q

lyme disease

A

caused by bacteria Borrelia burgdorfi, transmitted from ticks
-most commonly reported vector-borne disease in the US and Europe

128
Q

what is the most important arthropod vector?

A

mosquitos

129
Q

malaria

A

caused by sporozoan protists
-1.6 billion people are at risk of malaria via mosquitos

130
Q

how many cases and deaths from malaria annually?

A

estimated 300-500 million causes occur annually, with 500,000-1 million deaths annually

131
Q

dengue fever

A

fastest growing mosquito-borne disease.
-spread by Aedes aegypti and Ades albopticus
-Nicknamed “breakbone fever” because of the bone pain associated with it

132
Q

how many cases and deaths from dengue fever annually?

A

affected 50-100 million people each year, causes 25,000 deaths

Genetics final exam (4 decks)

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