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J.Santana Capt Test Study > EOM 1-3 > Flashcards

EOM 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

The Decon process for PPE is to further remove heavier particles, as well as ?

A

Cool and slow, the offgassing process from the outer shell 

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2
Q

Flashlights designated for non-IDLH environments are which color?

A

Yellow

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3
Q

Flashlights for IDLH environments are which color

A

Orange

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4
Q

What are the two kinds of Decon?

A

Gross Decon and secondary Decon

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5
Q

Daily routine apparatus, check out inspections and maintenance should occur where and how?

A

Outside the apparatus bay with the apparatus bay door closed, while the apparatus is running

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6
Q

Apparatus cabs shall undergo a complete Decon after ______ or at ______ intervals

A

Any exposure or at one month intervals the first Saturday of the month

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7
Q

The completion of the Decon process is to be logged into?

A

apparatus log and station log

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8
Q

Clean structural fire gear after?

A

Each fire incident in Station and annually with the department bunker gear advanced cleaning vendor

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9
Q

It is highly recommended to shower within ______ of an exposure

A

An hour

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10
Q

When PPE must be transported or stored. It should be placed where?

A

In a protective case or bag to prevent cross contamination and offgassing 

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11
Q

Clean cab guidelines, apply to whom?

A

All emergency response and fire investigator personnel

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12
Q

How many firefighting protective hoods will be issued to personnel

A

One. And personnel may only wear firefighting protective hoods that are issued by the department

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13
Q

Are personnel permitted to Mark hoods?

A

No

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14
Q

Firefighting hoods will be marked by

A

Numerical number for accountability

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15
Q

Firefighting protective hoods will be stored in a

A

Dry, clean and ventilated area, when not in use and away from direct sunlight

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16
Q

When are firefighting hoods inspected

A

At the beginning of each shift, and after every use

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17
Q

Damaged or defective hoods should be reported to whom

A

The supervisor for an immediate swap, and then reported to logistics division via proper chain of command for replacement

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18
Q

Worn or damaged firefighter protective hoods shall be replaced when they are

A

No longer serviceable

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19
Q

Oversized hoods will be kept where

A

In a separate cache by the Station commander

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20
Q

Hoods that have become contaminated with body fluids, or hazardous substances/chemicals must be removed with

A

Extreme caution, while using BSI to avoid exposures

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21
Q

Who is responsible for the inventory and storage of all clean firefighting hoods at each station?

A

Station commander

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22
Q

Who will ensure personnel swap their hoods when necessary and document the exchange in the station journal

A

Company officers

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23
Q

All stations will be provided with ______ for the storage of clean hoods

A

A 5 gallon plastic container

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24
Q

On incident where a toxic exposure has occurred who will collect contaminated, hoods and distribute service ready hoods?

A

The shift commander

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25
Q

Once all contaminated hoods have been exchanged for service ready hoods who will ensure the contaminated hoods are placed and washed in the station, extractor with department approved detergent and dried with the use of firefighting gear air dryer

A

The shift commander

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26
Q

Once firefighting hoods are cleaned and dried, they will be returned to the station, cachet and documented in the

A

Station journal and station reference book

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27
Q

Inventory of firefighter hoods will be responsibility of ________ & completed at _________

A

Shift commander - beginning of each month

Station journal & station reference book

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28
Q

District chiefs, vehicles will carry ______ clean hoods as a contingency in the event stations have multiple contaminated hoods beyond replacement capability

A

25 clean hoods

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29
Q

MFR and MBFR have entered into an agency agreement for the use of ______, ballistic vest, and helmets

A

30

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30
Q

How many ballistic vest will be housed within a prime mover at ______ with in locked container?

A

30 vests - station 2

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31
Q

Inventory of the enclosed items (ballistic vests) within the container at station 2 prime mover will be unlocked when?

A

1st day of each month

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32
Q

Any missing items within ballistic vest, prime mover at station 2 will be reported utilizing?

A

Equipment /uniform survey

Opm article 1 section 16

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33
Q

When the request for ballistic vest and helmets is made by MBFR to MFR, who will the MFR Alarm Office notify?

A

MFR district chief
battalion chief
an officer at MFR station 2

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34
Q

When delivering a request for ballistic vest to MBFR, who will place a unit out of service and reassign personnel to the PRIME mover, in order to satisfy the request

A

MFR Station 2 shift commander, or his designee

Rescues first, then suppression

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35
Q

If all units at MFR station 2 are unavailable for a ballistic vest request to MBFR then who will be sent to deploy the prime mover?

A

The closest available rescue to MFR station 2

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36
Q

For a ballistic vest request to MBFR The MFR district Chief will verify with ______ that the PRIME mover and ballistic vest are being deployed?

A

MFR shift commander

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37
Q

Site where task force units will report to and respond from, also known as..

A

Task force location

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38
Q

(Task force response)

Location where activities will be coordinated from also known as..

A

Task force headquarters (HQ)

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39
Q

Who shall determine when the task force response model will be activated

A

The fire chief, or his designee

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40
Q

Apparatus not assigned to task forces will cover alarms outside the disturbance area and escorted by MPD, or other LE entity, as directed by whom?

A

AFC of ERD

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41
Q

A task force will be identified by

A

The station it is housed in

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42
Q

An example of a task force would be

A

Task force commander
Aid to drive and assist the TFC
Fire inspector
2 pumpers
1 aerial or quint
2 rescues

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43
Q

Natural, disasters or severe weather, may require the addition of other resources to a task force, such as

A

MPD, solid waste, public works

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44
Q

Who will establish a task force headquarters?

A

AFC of ERD

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45
Q

Who will determine the number of task forces needed?

A

AFC OF ERD

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46
Q

Who will determine the location for the task forces?

A

AFC OF ERD

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47
Q

Who is responsible to balance the manpower of all ERD companies at task force locations?

A

Battalion commander

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48
Q

During a task force response, who shall supervise the relief rotation for ERD personnel

A

BATTALION COMMANDER

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49
Q

During a task force response, who shall assume responsibility for records of fires, evaluations, and historical reports

A

BATTALION COMMANDER

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50
Q

During a task force response, the battalion commander shall initiate and maintain a complete record of incoming assistance to include..

A

-Roster of personnel (ICS 203 & 204 forms)
-Number of hours worked
-Number of units reporting
-Unit identification of mutual aid, companies reporting

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51
Q

During a task force response, who shall have the district chiefs, organize the task force, locations and task forces as outlined, unless directed otherwise

A

BATTALION COMMANDER

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52
Q

Who shall assume the title of TFC as directed?

A

DC (district chief)

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53
Q

Upon arriving at the task force location, company officers will notify…

A

The TFC
Alarm Office
FCIO

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54
Q

During a task force response, who shall complete an activity log for each operational period ..
(FEMA 214 form)

A

Company officers

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55
Q

If no higher, ranking/senior officer is present at a task force response, who shall act in the capacity of the TFC?

A

Company officers

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56
Q

Task force investigators shall be assigned from

A

Fire prevention, division

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57
Q

Who shall be responsible for completing the incident report at a task force response?

A

Task force investigators assigned from the fire prevention, division

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58
Q

Information to be collected by fire investigators at a task force response shall include…

A

Address of fire
Alarm number
Name of business and occupancy type
Construction type and other relative information
Loss of life or injuries
Owner of building
Remarks (unusual circumstances)
Brief narrative of fire department operations
Police case number

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59
Q

At a task force response, who shall collect the police case number

A

Fire investigators

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60
Q

(Task force response)
How many firefighters would remain in quarters as a watch person on all responses until a security watch is obtained

A

One

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61
Q

During a task force response, preparation of the apparatus should include attaching a stack tip nozzle to the barrel of the onboard master stream ending with a

A

1-3/8” solid tip

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62
Q

At a task force response, the 1-3/8” solid tip will be suitable for..

A

Stack tape nozzle on barrel of onboard master stream

Master stream nozzles requiring supply lines

Aerial pipe

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63
Q

During a civil disturbance, all fire personnel, including drivers will wear _______ on alarms as indicated

A

Appropriate (personal protective equipment)

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64
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, who shall conduct a size up, and determine the best strategy and tactics to be applied ?

A

The TFC

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65
Q

(Task force response)
In areas of civil disturbance are efforts will be directed to ______ of the fire

A

Control and confinement

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66
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, who shall order the hydrant to be opened when appropriate ?

A

The TFC

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67
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, who will make the connection to the hydrant

A

First pumping unit

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68
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, who shall await orders to open the hydrant

A

Second pumper (remaining at hydrant)

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69
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, in what order will units proceeded to the fire scene laying supply lines ?

A

TFC vehicle
Aerial or quaint company
First pumping unit

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70
Q

(Task force response)
During firefighting operations, pump operators at scene shall watch compound gauge to determine their maximum delivery of water and try to maintain a ______ residual on compound gauge

A

5lb

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71
Q

(Task force response)
During natural disasters, who will assure a radio contact, is achieved with the Alarm Office, _____ during the storm

A

TFC - hourly during the storm

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72
Q

(Task force response)
During natural disasters, who shall be conducting territory surveys for damage water sources/access also to include hospital, surveys status/access ..

A

TFC

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73
Q

(Task force response)
A slow blowing of the air horn will indicate

A

Prepared to move out

ordered by the TFC

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74
Q

(Task force response)
A raid blowing of the air horn will be the signal to

A

Take cover

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75
Q

(Task force response)
If person actively threatened with violence at the scene of an incident ..

A

-Evacuate immediately
-Take cover
-Request police response
-Advise FCIO of the location
-Do not return until advised by FCIO that the area is safe

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76
Q

(Task force response)
Should personnel be physically, attacked personnel, or encouraged to …

A

Run, hide, and fight as a last resort

if there are no other alternative, but to fight, they will use whatever means necessary to protect themselves

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77
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Personnel responding to a EID should obtain travel history and additional screening information using the questionnaire recommended by ?

A

Center for disease control - CDC
World health organization - WHO

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78
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
All crewmembers are to maintain hand, hygiene by frequently, washing hands with soap and water for a minimum of ?

A

20 seconds or using an alcohol based gel before, and immediately after all patient contact

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79
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Consideration shall be given to bathing and donning a fresh uniform at minimum ?

A

Once a tour

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80
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Dispatch must inform responding crews on any calls that may be a possible EID and must request a?

A

Acknowledgment

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81
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Who shall advise responding personnel of information received so that proper PPE is selected prior to on scene arrival ?

A

The Alarm Office

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82
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
The Alarm Office cannot accept inter hospital transfers of patients without first contacting ________ for approval.

A

EMS rescue captain (RBC)

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83
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
EMS rescue captain is also known as?

A

RBC

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84
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
A significant event such as possible EID call generating from an assisted, living facility, nursing home, elder housing … the Alarm Office is to notify

A

EMS battalion captain (EMS BC)
District chief
Battalion commander
Staff duty officer
Infectious control group
MPD communications bridge personnel whenever EID alert is given over radio

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85
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Prior to physical patient contact at a minimum _________ feet of distance, the OIC will ask the specific EID screening questions

A

6-8 feet

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86
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
If a potential EID patient exist the OIC and crew will don their PPE and notify FCIO the ED patient was encountered FCIO will advise ________

A

Car 94/95/96
Batt Ch

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87
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Exercise, extreme caution when performing ________ procedures

A

Aerosol producing procedures

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88
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Aerosol producing procedures include ..

A

Endotracheal intubation
Airway suctioning
Administration of nebulized medication
CPAP
CPR

  • only perform these procedures, if medically necessary, and in case where care cannot be postponed
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89
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Prior to patient transport, the patient compartment exhaust vent must be on and set on ______

A

High

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90
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
The driver shall wear _______ while transporting the patient

A

N95 respirator

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91
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
After any EID response consideration will be given to utilize _________ or __________ to appropriate decontaminate, personal and equipment

A

Hazardous materials team
or
receiving facility

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92
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Once units are on the scene, the OIC with the assistance of the _______ will investigate and determine if patient is a potential EID ..

A

EMS captain (car 94/95)

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93
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Whenever a potential EID patient is identified, the following PPE shall be utilized …

A

-Face mask
-N 95 or approve respirator for responding personnel
-Face shield, or eye protection goggles to avoid contamination of mucous membranes
-fluid resistant, long sleeve gown or approved garment
-Gloves
-Disposable boot/shoe covers

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94
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Communications has implemented ________
Into MPDS system to add an extra layer of questioning to maximize EID identification

A

Protocol 36 (pandemic/epidemic/outbreak protocol)

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95
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Distance should be maintained at …

A

6-8’

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96
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
On all fire and EMS incidents, regardless of complaint, the OIC will ask which specific Covid19 screening questions prior to patient contact while maintaining 6 to 8 feet distance

A

Do you have a fever?
Do you have a cough?
Do you have shortness of breath?

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97
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Should the patient confirm any of the three COVID-19 screening questions or exhibit flu like symptoms? What is the next step?

A

-Proper PPE shall immediately be donned
-OIC must notify the Alarm Office and FCIO, who will notify the rescue battalion captain

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98
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
All unseen COVID-19 incidents are to be recorded in …

A

Electronic patient care report EPCR

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99
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Gross decontamination shall include …

A

-After transporting, leave the rear doors of the transport vehicle open
-Crew remains in current intact. PPE prior to decontaminating vehicle.
-Clean and disinfect all potentially contaminated surfaces and reusable patient care equipment
-Department approved medical group grade disinfected (cavicide) shall be used as per manufacturer with all vehicle doors open
Dispose of any run related waste
-avoid shaking linens during removal and disposal

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100
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
After gross Decon, the EID decontamination team may be dispatched as determined by ?

A

RBC

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101
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
Electrostatic decontamination shall include …

A

-Transport vehicle remaining out of service a minimum of 20 minutes to ensure adequate disinfecting solution contact time
-Decontamination emphasis will be given to all high patient contact areas such as handles, action, board surfaces, and seating surfaces

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102
Q

(Emergency infectious disease)
The transport vehicle shall remain out of service, a minimum of _______ to ensure adequate disinfecting solution contact time

A

20 minutes

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103
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Refers to the practice of using the same filter for multiple encounters with patients, but removing the mask (with attached filters) after each encounter

A

Reuse

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104
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Reusable rubber or silicone face piece with exchangeable cartridges or filters
Covers the lower half of the face, including the nose and mouth

A

Reusable Half mask respirator

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105
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Higher risk techniques that generate potentially infectious aerosols or that involve an anatomic regions, where viral loads might be higher, resulting in a extraordinary exposure to the wearers filters

A

Aerosol generating procedures, (AGP)

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106
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Anatomic regions, where viral loads might be higher …

A

Nose and throat
Oropharynx
Respiratory tract

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107
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Each ERD member will be provided a pair of filter cartridges which will be marked with ?

A

Members initials & badge number, using a permanent marker

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108
Q

(Half mask respirator)
During the pandemic, _________ will be the default filter for use with the half mask respirator

A

Encased 7093 filter

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109
Q

(Half mask respirator)
When an encounter with a suspected, ED, patient is anticipated, use of any respirator must be accompanied by the use of a …

A

Protective face shield that extends downward enough to minimize unnecessary droplet/fluid exposure to the respirator

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110
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Positive seal check
2 steps..

A
  1. Please hand over exhalation valve cover between filters.
  2. Exhale gently, air should not leak around face piece.
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111
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Negative seal check
2 steps..

A
  1. Squeeze to compress 7093 filter
  2. Inhale gently, face piece should collapse into face, and no air should be felt within mask.
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112
Q

(Half mask respirator)
What are the conditions disqualifying a 7093 filter for reuse

A
  1. Physical damage.
  2. Extra ordinary, dust/particulate accumulation, making the filter difficult to breathe through.

And aerosolized generating procedure (AGP) exposure does not disqualify a 7093 incase filter from reuse

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113
Q

(Half mask respirator)
Who will coordinate the replacement of filters when necessary?

A

EMS battalion captains
&
Shift commanders

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114
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
A filter that was either exposed to an aerosol, generating procedure, visibly soiled, or damaged ?

A

Disqualified filter

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115
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
All personnel are mandated to wear and maintain the appropriate level of PPE in accordance with guidelines established by ?

A

The health and emergency medical services division

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116
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
Members will be assigned their half mask size as per ?

A

Their fit test

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117
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
Masks shall be marked with ?

A

Name
Badge number
&
Re-labeled as necessary

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118
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
How many pairs of P100 model 2091 filters in paper bag will be provided to each user

A

2 pairs

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119
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
Each filter will be marked with members ?

A

Initials and badge number, using a permanent marker

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120
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
Each paper storage bag will be marked with

A

Their name and badge number

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121
Q

(3M reusable Half mask w/ P100 2091 filter)
For remainder of this pandemic and associated period of PPE shortage, members shall utilize the half mask respirator for ?

A

All medical alarms

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122
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask)
6 steps for donning

A
  1. Put on medical gloves prior to donning your own assigned mask.
  2. Pull head harness over the crown of your head, allowing respirator to han your mouth and nose.
  3. Pull neck straps down and back to properly position mask.
  4. Take bottom straps and hook them together behind your neck.
  5. Adjust strap tension if necessary but do not overtighten. If straps are t push on the back of the buckles to loosen them.
  6. Respirator should fit securely and comfortably.

*Always check the seal of the respirator prior to use in contaminated area

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123
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask)
5 steps for doffing

A
  1. Replace soiled gloves or sanitize your gloved hands.
  2. Whenever removing face shield and/or respirator, avoid contact with the front where contamination will be greatest. Grasp the straps at the rear of your head where contamination is less likely.
  3. Release the bottom strap of respirator.
  4. Grasp the head harness and carefully bring it over your head pulling the respirator away from your face without touching the front of the respirator.
  5. Inspect the respirator for contamination or damage.
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124
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask)
Masks and filters will be stored in a ..

A

Department provided container or paper bag when not in use

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125
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask & 2091 filters)
Filters used during an encounter with suspected COVID-19. Patient may be reused for remainder of the shift as long as ?

A

Not exposed to AGP
Or
Have reached the end of their life by being visibly soiled or damaged

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126
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask & 2091 filters)
Conditions disqualifying a filter for reuse ?

A
  1. AGP
  2. Visible, soiling or damage.
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127
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask & 2091 filters)
Commonly performed medical procedures that are often considered AGP or that create uncontrolled respiratory secretions include ?

A

Open suctioning of airways
Cardio pulmonary resuscitation
Endotracheal intubation, or another advanced airway
CPAP
Manual ventilation
Nebulizer administration

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128
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask & 2091 filters)
Disinfecting includes using a solution of diluted ______ in a spray bottle to spray all portions of the mask and head straps allow to soak for _____ time

A

Bleach (9 parts water / 1 part bleach)

1 minute

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129
Q

(3M 6000 series Half mask & 2091 filters)
During the cleaning process of a half mask respirator you should wear ?

A

Gloves
&
routine trifold mask

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130
Q

The bunker gear trailer will provide supplies to assist personnel with conducting?

A

Gross decontamination
Securing their contaminated gear
Receiving new clean gear

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131
Q

The bunker gear inventory shall be maintained by?

A

The AFC of logistics division

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132
Q

The bunker gear trailer will be drawn by a ________
& housed at a Station assigned by the ?

A

Prime mover

AFC of ERD

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133
Q

The bunker gear trailer inventory will include a minimum of _____ sets of bunker gear

A

60 sets

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134
Q

(Bunker gear trailer)
Who will be responsible for accounting and documenting both collected and issued bunker gear

A

Members assigned to the BGT

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135
Q

(Bunker gear trailer)
At any point during a normal business day of ________ logistics is available to exchange contaminated gear for clean bunker gear at the _________

A

Mon-Fri 0730-1530

fire department logistics supply area

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136
Q

During an alarm request for the BGT will be made through?

A

Alarm Office/FCIO

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137
Q

All requests for the BGT will go through?

A

the IC

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138
Q

Consider immediately requesting the BGT when _______

A

Striking a 2nd alarm or greater

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139
Q

When units from the station housing the BGT are unavailable, the Alarm Office shall…

A

Dispatch a unit from another station with a prime mover/trailer, towing capability

If no, such unit is available ..

LD will be notified through FCIO to assist with a deployment of the BGT

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140
Q

Once the IC has determined that the BGT equipment and supplies are no longer needed the unit assigned to the BGT will…

A

Package and inventory the decontamination equipment to be returned to the trailer

Make an entry in the BGT apparatus book with any items used on the alarm and not returned to the trailer inventory

Provide the BGT station shift commander with a list of supplies needed, and or damage to the trailer or its inventory

Confirm list of bunker gear issued and received including members names and badge numbers

The Station commander notify LD through FCIO for collection of contaminated gear

After hours response by LD will be at the discretion of the AFC of LD

Refuel prime mover

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141
Q

(Bunker gear trailer)
After hours response, by LD will be at the discretion of

A

The AFC of LD or designee

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142
Q

When can the incident commander request the rehab trailer

A

Anytime they deem it necessary

Either due to size, scope, or duration of the event

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143
Q

The rehab trailer will assist the _____ with rest, hydration, and refreshment of personnel during emergency response

A

Rehab sector

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144
Q

The rehab inventory shall be approved by

A

The AFC of ERD

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145
Q

The rehab trailer inventory would be enough to service a minimum of?

A

30 firefighters for 4 hours

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146
Q

The rehab trailer will be drawn by a _____ and will be housed at a station assigned by?

Currently housed at ?

A

Prime mover

AFC of ERD (currently FS 2)

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147
Q

Person responsible for the daily check out of rehab trailer is to seek replacement of any items, expired, used or missing through their?

A

Shift commander

Shift commander will forward the request through channels to the logistics division

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148
Q

Consider immediately requesting the rehab trailer when?

A

Striking a 2nd alarm or greater

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149
Q

Request for the rehab trailer is made through the ?

A

Alarm office

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150
Q

Stations with prime movers include ?

A

Sta 1
Sta 5
Sta 10
Sta 12
Sta 15

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151
Q

When units housing the RHT are unavailbale, the alarm office shall d/p units from a stations with a prime mover, what stations may be dispatched ?

A

Sta 1
Sta 5
Sta 10
Sta 12
Sta 15

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152
Q

If the incident is going to run longer than ______, the IC may request personnel from _______ through the _________ to replenish dwindling supplies

A

4 hours
Logistics division
Alarm office

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153
Q

If the incident is going to run longer than ______, the IC may request _______ to be dispatched, to bring hot meals

A

8hrs
Salvation Army

Salvation Army should not be requested to an incident that is going to be finished within the next 3 hours or have only 1 or 2 unit’s present

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154
Q

Once the IC has determined that the RHT is no longer needed the _______ will

A

Unit/ driver assigned

-Package and inventory equipment
-Make entry in the RHT apparatus book as to any items on alarm and not return to trailer inventory
-Provide the shift commander list of supplies needed damaged to trailer inventory
-Refuel the prime mover, and return the RHT to its station

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155
Q

(Grove isle response)
A single rescue will proceed on EMS alarms at a speed of

A

No more than 5mph
utilizing the middle of the bridge

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156
Q

(Grove isle response)
If multiple rescues are needed for a EMS alarm ..

A

Only one will proceed at a time at no more than 5mph

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157
Q

(Grove isle response)
Fire alarm activation, requiring single or multi company assignments should consider ..

A

Requesting high water vehicle (HWV) from FS8 early to assist with shuttling personnel and equipment, if the bridge is deemed unsafe for apparatus

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158
Q

(Grove isle response)
For fire alarm activation/single/multi company assignments, a ________ will be dispatched along with each single fire company or dual fire company fire alarm activation assignment & will conduct initial investigation

A

A Rescue

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159
Q

(Grove isle response)
Fire alarm / multi company assignments; who will proceed over the bridge ?

A

First arriving rescue

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160
Q

(Grove isle response)
________ will be staged at grove isle for us as a pumping apparatus

A

Standby pumper

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161
Q

(Grove isle response)
All other units responding to grove isle other than 1st arriving rescue will stage _________

A

On S. Bayshore Dr & await orders

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162
Q

(Grove isle response)
To ensure crossing is limited to one unit at a time the IC should consider ?

A

Placing accountability officers on either side of the bridge

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163
Q

(Grove isle response)
If the bridge is deemed unsafe …

A

One company of personnel will walk across the bridge w/ necessary equipment &utilize standby pumper as their apparatus

Remaining units will walk across the bridge with necessary equipment as needed

Fireboat may assist with shuttling of personnel and equipment

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164
Q

(Grove isle response)
Units crossing will be limited to _______.

________ will remain on South Bayshore, and will provide personnel and equipment as determined by the IC

A

Rescue

Pumpers & aerial devices

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165
Q

(Grove isle response)
_________ will be dispatched on all multi company alarms at grove isle

A

Fire boat

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166
Q

(Grove isle response)
The fire boat may be used on multi company, alarms at Grove Isle, at the discretion of the IC to include …

A

Shuttling of personnel/equipment to/from the mainland

Firefighting

Transport of sick injured to Mercy Hospital

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167
Q

(Grove isle response)
Standby. Pumper at Grove Isle will have a daily apparatus check out, conducted bye

A

Single company from FS8

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168
Q

(Grove isle response)
Logistics division will be required to send a mechanic ________ to inspect the apparatus for mechanical service (standby pumper)

A

Weekly

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169
Q

Heavy rescue 6 shall be staffed with a ______ person crew consisting of a ___________

A

4 person crew

An officer & 3 driver engineer-firefighters/technical rescue specialist

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170
Q

HR6 will be dispatched on …

A

Reports of persons trapped
&
High hazard incident, such as ..

Transportation emergencies
Fire related emergencies

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171
Q

For fire related emergencies, the HR6 is capable of assisting with ?

A

Forcible entry
Ventilation
Search & rescue

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172
Q

HR6 will be dispatched to the following emergencies…

A

-Technical rescue incident
-Transportation emergencies
-Emergency incident with reports of missing, trapped firefighters/Mayday
-Fire related emergencies
-Upon request of the incident commander

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173
Q

HR6 will be dispatched to all fire related emergencies which are to include..

A

Working fires/code 1’s
Class 2 & 3 initial dispatch or greater

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174
Q

Upon arrival, at the scene of an emergency, the HR6 officer & crew shall report to _______ and be utilized as an equipment/personnel resource

A

The incident commander

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175
Q

CERT Training, builds life, saving competencies with emphasis on…

A

Decision-making skills
Rescuer safety
Doing the greatest good for the greatest number

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176
Q

The CERT program manager is appointed by?

A

The fire chief or designee

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177
Q

The CERT coordinator is appointed by?

A

The CERT program manager

178
Q

(CERT)
Who shall be responsible to provide support for the oversight of the CERT program, personnel, funding, equipment, purchases, and training?

A

CERT program manager

Responsible for email communication with Miami, CERT members and the public

179
Q

A community member who completes the CERT training program for self enrichment purposes. Cert members assist, their family, friends, neighbors, and or the public as a _______.

A

Good Samaritan

180
Q

What is the CERT chain of command?

A

-CERT member reports to division supervisor
-Division supervisor report reports to CERT coordinator
-CERT coordinator reports to program manager
-Program manager reports to emergency manager

181
Q

(CERT)
Who shall be responsible for official request for volunteers?

A

Miami CERT program manager

Will contact the volunteer team for the purpose of emergency disaster, response, or community relations support

182
Q

(CERT)
Self activation, shall be described as..

A

A Miami CERT member who responds to assist their family or neighbors immediately following an emergency or disaster event and prior to an official activation by the Miami CERT program manager or designee

183
Q

Official request for volunteers will consist of Providing additional manpower at scenes for support functions, such as…

A

Firefighter rehabilitation
Soiled/contaminated gear exchanges
Meal distributions
Traffic
Parking control in coordination with MPD

184
Q

Who will be responsible for sending an official request for volunteers announcement to Miami CERT members when additional manpower is needed for support at emergency scenes or disaster operations?

A

Miami CERT program manager or designee

185
Q

When the on scene incident commander request for CERT activation it must go through?

A

The Fire Central information office via the Alarm Office

FCIO will then notify
-Staff duty officer
-The Miami police bridge personnel

186
Q

Once a CERT request has been made the staff duty officer will contact?

A

AFC of DEM & fwd the request

The AFC of DEM wil, then contact the CERT program manager, or designee who will ultimately create an official request for volunteers through proper channels to Miami CERT members

187
Q

CERT members are NOT allowed to self activate at any time to engage in MFR emergency scenes without an official request for volunteers notice from the __________ through the ______ on scene

A

Miami CERT program manager

IC on scene

188
Q

Once activated CERT members will report (following official request for Volunteers) to a predetermined ______ designated by the ______

A

Staging area - designated by the IC

  • The predetermined staging area will be made available to FCIO by the requesting officer, FCIO will then advise the AFC of DEM or the CERT program manager of the staging areas location for information dissemination to CERT members.
189
Q

Once CERT members report to the predetermined staging area, they are required to show ______ to _____ for proper verification

A

Miami, CERT ID card

To the IC or designee

190
Q

If a problem arises on scene with a CERT member MFR members are to?

A

Follow chain of command and make OIC aware of the situation

OIC will follow chain of command & report it to the division of emergency management

191
Q

When operating at emergency scenes or disaster, operations ______ have a duty to act as a safety officer

A

All MFR members

192
Q

Only properly trained and certified bike, medic team members ride, a department issued bicycle unless?

A

Permission is granted by the fire chief or designee

193
Q

BMT bicycles were first deployed in 2019 to address the _________ at large events or in congested areas

A

Critical need to reach patients and deliver rapid EMS

194
Q

Who is responsible for overseen the bike medic program for all non-emergency response matters, including selection, training certification, and compliance

A

AFC of Special operations

195
Q

Bike medic team members must be certified by?

A

Miami police department in the emergency medical services bicycle course

196
Q

A BMT unit shall consist of..

A

2 certified BMT members one member being the OIC

197
Q

(BMT)
How long is the initial complete cycling course held by MPD?

A

40 hours

198
Q

Certified BMT members must complete a _____ hour, in-service recertification training course every ______ years

A

10 hour

2 years

Failure to attend successfully complete will be grounds for dismissal from the bike medic program

199
Q

Members whose certification is expired, will have to complete the _________ in order to be reinstated back into the bike medic program

A

40 hour MPD cycling course

200
Q

The BMT uniforms shall consist of..

A

Approved, MFR,BMT uniform shirt
Approved, MFR, BMT, uniform pants
Approved MFRBMT footwear all black low top, athletic type shoe

Approved MFR Helmet eye protection, and gloves, Shelby, whenever the BMT is in motion

201
Q

(BMT)
During hours of darkness, the ______ and ______ on each bicycle must remain on when the bicycle is in motion

A

Front headlight & rear taillight

202
Q

(BMT)
The use of emergency warning, lights, and an audible siren are required to warn pedestrians of approach when the bicycle is _______

A

In motion

203
Q

At times of bad weather, BMT crews shall seek ______ and advise the _______ of their location

A

safe place for refuge / shelter

Incident commander

204
Q

(BMT)
Any damage or inoperable conditions shall be immediately reported to the ?

A

Special events IC or designee

205
Q

No modifications will be made to MFR bicycles unless approved by?

A

The fire chief

206
Q

When MFR bicycles are deployed at an event BMT members will always employ ______

A

The team concept

207
Q

(BMT)
All BMT members shall conduct a safety inspection of the bicycle and medical equipment inventory with particular attention given to …

A

Proper adjustments, worn pedals defects, and other conditions affecting the safe operation of the bicycle

208
Q

(BMT)
Each bicycle has assigned equipment as follows ..

A

Lighting system, front and rear
Horn/siren
Bicycle bags/equipment

209
Q

BMT units will only respond to calls for services within their assigned ________ or as indicated by_______

A

Geographical zone

Incident commander of an event

210
Q

Members of a BMT unit shall remain within _______

A

Line of sight of each other

211
Q

Proper reporting of injuries, accidents and near accidents as well as damage to a city, bicycle or property damage involving city bicycle is the responsibility of…

A

All personnel assigned to a BMT unit

212
Q

Upon determination by the incident commander that a residence is unsafe for occupation. The following notification / actions will occur…

A

-Determine if occupants have acquired shelter from friends or relatives

-Acquire the names of all occupants, needing shelter with their contact numbers

-if occupant is renting, ascertain if the building manager/owner will be relocating occupant to alternative residence

The incident commander will contact FCIO for Red Cross assistance if temporary lodging is needed

In The event Red Cross is unable to assist FCIO will contact the Director of the department of human services and or the homeless program administrator from the department of human services

If The Red Cross and department of human services are unable to assist with temporary lodging, FCIO will contact the SDO explore alternative solutions to include contacting the emergency manager and will contact the Fire Chief if unable to acquire arrangements for temporary shelter.

The fire chief will contact the city manager to advise of circumstances and request assistance

The incident commander will maintain personnel on scene until safe. Living arrangements have been identified for all occupants, or the above actions/notifications have occurred, and directions has been received received from the SDO.

213
Q

The Red Cross usually arrives at an incident within_____

A

2 hours of being dispatched

214
Q

In all instances of forcible entry, the officer in charge will ensure________ as their top priority

A

Crew safety

215
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
Personnel are to Don appropriate PPE as determined by ________

A

The OIC

216
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
While operating at complex scenes, the OIC may request additional resources to respond to their location to include…

A

DC/BC, MPD, Spec ops ect

217
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
While responding confirm the following from the alarm office…

A

Is the scene secure?
Is there a staging area?

218
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
For barricaded subject request, the following compliment will be dispatched ..

A

1 aerial or quint
1 pumper
1 rescue
1 district chief

219
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
For barricaded, subject, request, fire rescue apparatus, except ________ responding to the area, will stage _______ away on their approach

A

District chief

One block away on their approach

220
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
The fire department incident commander upon his arrival will report to ….

A

Command post established by the police department.

Fire rescue department incident commander will direct companies from this location via assigned tactical channel to proper standby locations

221
Q

(Forcible entry guideline)
EMS call - if no one answers the door..

A

Have the A/O try the callback number.

Make every effort to listen for the call back as one way of confirming the correct QTH.

Try opening all the doors and windows to see if any are unlocked.

Attempt with caution look through windows and doors for signs of a victim

If no unlocked access exist, make forcible entry with minimal possible damage

_____________________________________
After forcible entry is made
_____________________________________

If a genuine emergency is found to exist..
The ALS unit will request a suppression company to secure the building, unless one is already present (aerial quint pumper)

MFR personnel will not leave the scene until the building is secured unless….

*the victim status is critical
*another fire department unit is on the way
*there is no other means available (police department building management)

MPD will be called to the scene to make a report of forcible entry if not already on the scene

222
Q

(Forcible entry guidelines)
MFR personnel will not leave the scene until the building is secured unless….

A

*the victim status is critical
*another fire department unit is on the way
*there is no other means available (police department building management)

223
Q

(Forcible entry guidelines)
Fire calls -

A

Forcible Entry will be performed in all instances where a building is secured, and access is required for extinguishment, providing the building has been evaluated for hazard potential associated with an enclosed occupancy (i.e., backdraft)

224
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the command sequence?

A

A standardized sequential thought process

225
Q

(Command sequence)
In order of priority, what is the command sequence?

A

Incident priorities
Size up
Strategic goals
Tactical objectives

226
Q

(Command sequence)
What are the three categories of incident properties?

A

Life safety
Incident stabilize
Property conservation

227
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the first thing that an incident commander should consider and continually evaluated throughout the incident?

A

Incident priorities (LIP)

228
Q

(Command sequence)
The group of activities which reduce the threat to life or threat of injury

A

Life safety priority #1

229
Q

(Command sequence)
Group of activities designed to stop the Forward progress of the incident.

This may include aggressive interior attacks, ventilation efforts, or exposure protection.

A

Incident stabilization priority #2

230
Q

(Command sequence)
The efforts that reduce the long-term economic and social impact of the incident, basically known as the salvage and cleanup of the incident are known as ..

A

Property conservation priority#3

231
Q

(Command sequence)
Although incident priorities never change, the ______ may change from incident to incident and also several times during the same incident

A

Order of accomplishment

232
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the second level of the command sequence?

A

Size up

233
Q

(Command sequence)
The first step in solving any problem is ..

The second step is?

A

Information gathering (size up)

Evaluating the information to determine how this information influences the situation

234
Q

(Command sequence)
What is size up?

A

The rapid mental evaluation of the factors that influence an incident

The factors that must be considered our numerous and dynamic as such they must be continually reviewed and evaluated throughout the entire incident

235
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the first step in determining a course of action?

A

Size up

236
Q

(Command sequence)
When does size up begin and when does size up end?

A

Size up is a continual process which begins long before incident occurs and continues long after property Conservation efforts are complete.

237
Q

(Command sequence)
_________ are not affected by a specific situation, but all other portions of the command sequence are

A

Incident priorities

238
Q

(Command sequence)
_________ is the second level in the command sequence because it is the first step and determine how specific incident should be handled

A

Size up

239
Q

(Command sequence)
The purpose toward which the activities are to be directed, is by definition …

A

Strategic goals

240
Q

(Command sequence)
Applying information to determine the desired result of the operation is known as

A

Strategic goals

241
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the third level of the command sequence?

A

Strategic goals

242
Q

(Command sequence)
What strategic goals are considered in relation to incident priorities they can also be prioritized as ..

A

Rescue
Exposure
Protection
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul

Salvage and ventilation are also considered, but have no priority position in determining strategic goals

243
Q

(Command sequence)
Incident priorities represent the most important influence on the development on ..

A

Strategic goals

244
Q

(Command sequence)
Strategic goals must be a function of the _______ in effect

A

Incident priority

245
Q

(Command sequence)
Incident priorities determine _______

A

Strategic goals

246
Q

(Command sequence)
Strategic goals satisfy _______

A

Incident priorities

247
Q

(Command sequence)
Strategic goals must be constantly evaluated to ensure that they are being accomplished. This is done by …

A

The continual process of size up

248
Q

(Command sequence)
As goals are met, _____ will reveal changes in the situation

A

Size up

249
Q

(Command sequence)
The mark of a good commander is ..

A

The ability to be flexible enough to cope successfully with a rapidly changing situation

250
Q

(Command sequence)
What is the 4th level of the command sequence?

A

Tactical objectives

251
Q

(Command sequence)
Those specific actions carried out to accomplish strategic goals are ..

A

Tactical objectives

252
Q

(Command sequence)
Strategic goals can be considered as the _____, while tactical objectives can be considered as _______

A

Strategic goals - incident problems
Tactical objectives -solutions to those problems

253
Q

(Command sequence)
Sound tactical objectives cannot be established and carried out until ..

A

strategic goals are established

To do otherwise is to create freelancing the scourage of the fire service

254
Q

(Command sequence)
Tactical objectives must be ..

A

Specific as well as measurable

255
Q

(Command sequence)
A tool that the incident commander can use to help maintain a clear line of thought, as he proceeds through the general chaos of an emergency operation ..

A

The command sequence

256
Q

(Command sequence)
Which levels of command sequence remain relatively fixed

And which level of the command sequence require the bulk of the management effort

A

First two levels remain relatively fixed, regardless of the situation (incident priorities & size up)

Last two levels require the bulk of the management effort (strategic goals & tactical objectives)

257
Q

(ICS)
What are the 3 system operating requirements for the incident command system?

A

Must be able to adapt to any incident

Must be able to expand in a logical manner

Implementation should have least possible disruption to emergency operations

258
Q

(ICS)
What are the 5 levels of the command structure of a complex incident?

A

Incident Commander

Section chief

Branch Director

Group/division supervisor

Single resource/strike team/task force

259
Q

(ICS)
The use of distinct titles for ICS positions allows for filling ICS positions with ..

A

the most qualified individuals rather than by seniority

260
Q

(ICS)
Standardized position titles are useful when …

A

Requesting qualified personnel

261
Q

(ICS)
MFR will typically fill ICS position/titles as follows ..
ICS command with ..
ICS section chief with ..
ICS division / group supervisor with ..
ICS single resource / strike team / task force leader with…

A

ICS command - fire chief, chief of operations, chief of ERD, battalion chief / district chief

ICS section chief - MFR Assistant Fire Chief or district chief

ICS division / group supervisor - MFR district chief or captain

ICS single resource / strike team / task force leader - Captain or lieutenant (company officer)

262
Q

(ICS)
The _________ position refers to those organizational elements in situations that are complex enough to require an intermediate or control level in the organizational structure

A

Section chief

263
Q

(ICS)
The operations section chief would normally be staffed by a ..

A

MFR chief fire officer

264
Q

(ICS)
The __________ is a position/title that can be utilized between the operation section, chief and division group supervisors, when needed for span of control, which should not exceed _________ supervisors, reporting to the operation section Chief

A

Branch position

5

265
Q

(ICS)
In a unified command, generally the incident commander will be selected from ..

A

The authority having jurisdiction

266
Q

(ICS)
Command procedures are designed to accomplish the following ..

A

Fix the responsibility for command through a standard identification system

Ensure that strong, direct visible command will be established as early as possible on all incidents

Outlines activities and responsibilities of command

Provide system for the orderly transfer of command

267
Q

(ICS)
The time involved to implement the incident command system should produce time savings through …

A

Effective incident control

268
Q

(ICS)
In order to ensure accomplishments of incident objectives, the incident commander may ..

A

Establish planning meetings with appropriate personnel

269
Q

(ICS)
The incident commander will be responsible for the following tasks ..

Initial tasks

&

Continuing tasks

A

-Initial tasks-
1. Assume command
2. Transmit a brief initial radio status report
3. Make an initial size up of the situation
4. Set prioritize objectives
5. Establish a command post

-Continuing tasks-
1. Delegate responsibilities through the ICS system
2. Continue to evaluate attack efforts and take appropriate actions, including sounding of multiple alarms and call for special service companies
3. If relieved by superior officer, give a concise briefing of the situation and actions taken & Remain with until reassignment.
5. For MCI referred to MCI command FOG

270
Q

(ICS)
Command options will usually fall into one of three general modes, which are ..

A

Nothing showing mode

Fast attack mode

Command mode

271
Q

(ICS)
The fast attack mode should not last more than a few _________ and will end with one of the following

A

Moments

-Situation is stabilized
-Higher ranking officer arrives and command is transferred
-Situation is not stabilized and officer must relocate to a traditional command post

272
Q

(ICS)
The purpose of command is to..

A

Coordinate operations
Coordinate logistical support
Simplify communications
Assist the incident commander

273
Q

(ICS)
Usually the command shall be set up in front of the incident in a ________ location. A _________ will signify this location

A

Highly visible location

Rotating green light

274
Q

(ICS)
As soon as the site for the command post is determined, this information will be given …

A

FCIO - who will broadcast on the tactical channel that command post has been set up and identified location

275
Q

(ICS)
A minimum of traffic control will be established in all directions from the disaster limits for approximately…

A

Two blocks

276
Q

(ICS)
In order to allow access to and from the disaster area, ___________ should be established

A

Traffic corridors

277
Q

(ICS)
The front of the fire building or fireside is called side A and this is designated by ..

A

Location of the command post

Proceeding in clockwise manner, the left side of the incident or fire area is called side B, the rear or backside of the incident or fire area is called side C the right side of the incident or fire area as you face. The front is called side D.

278
Q

(ICS)

A
279
Q

(ICS)
Transfer of command three steps ..

A

The first MFR officer to arrival will assume command until relieved by higher ranking MFR officer

The first arriving MFR district Chief will assume command after transfer of command procedure has been completed

Assumption of command by higher ranking MFR chief fire officer is discretionary. Notification of change of command shall be given over appropriate radio frequencies.

280
Q

(ICS)
Transfer of command - the officer being relieved will brief the officer assuming command, indicating the following..

A

General situation status, and prioritized objectives

Incident location, conditions, and extension

Effectiveness of control and stabilization efforts

Deployment and assignment of operating companies

Appraisal of needs for additional resources

281
Q

(ICS)
MFR teams are from personnel from various

A

Companies

282
Q

(ICS)
The __________ is responsible for providing press identification for incident scene, prepares initial news, release contacts PIO offices of assisting agencies provides liaison between media and incident, personnel, and arranges for press briefing

A

The public information officer

283
Q

(ICS)
The _________ is responsible for interacting with incident personnel from outside agencies that are accomplishing various functions at the incident scene, provides identification of liaison to personnel for the incident and monitors the incident for current or potential inter-agency problems

A

The liaison officer

284
Q

(ICS)
The __________ monitors the incident scene to identify actual or potential, unsafe operations ; investigates related injuries, and actions that involve personnel operating at the incident; Advises personnel in regard to unsafe conditions or operations, and makes recommendation for further procedural changes to correct unsafe procedures, or operations subsequent to the incident. Has authority to stop any unsafe act immediately

A

Safety officer

285
Q

(ICS)
Branches are identified by ..

A

The use of Roman numerals or functional name

286
Q

(ICS)
The technical specialist reports initially to the _______, but maybe reassigned to _______

A

Initially to the Planning section Chief

But may be reassigned to any part of the incident based on need

287
Q

(ICS)
ICS 201

A

Incident briefing form
________________________________________________

4 page document

Designed to be transferred easily to members of the command and general staff as they arrive to begin work

Not included as part of the formal written incident action plan

288
Q

(ICS)
ICS 202

A

Incident objectives
________________________________________________
1st page of a written IAP

Includes: incident, information, listing of incident, commanders objectives for the operational period, Pertinent weather information, general safety message, table of contents for the plan.

289
Q

(ICS)
202

A

Organizational assignment list

________________________________________________

2nd page of the IAP
Provides full accounting of incident management and supervisory staff for operational.

290
Q

(ICS)
ICS 204

A

Division/group assignment list

________________________________________________

Included in multiples based on organizational structure of operation section for the operational period.

Each division /group will have its own page.

Describes in detail the specific action that the division/group will be taking in support of incident objectives

291
Q

(ICS)
205

A

Incident communications plan

________________________________________________

Entire communications plan for the incident

292
Q

(ICS)
206

A

Incident medical plan

________________________________________________

Plan to care for responder medical emergencies

293
Q

(ICS)
ICS 211

A

Check in list

________________________________________________

Used to document the check-in process
check in recorders report check-in information to the resource unit

294
Q

(ICS)
215

A

Operational planning worksheet

________________________________________________

Communicates to the resources unit the resources needed as a result of decisions made during the tactics and planning meetings

The worksheet is used by …
Resource unit to complete the assignment list (ICS 204)
and
Logistics section chief for ordering resources

295
Q

(ICS)
215a

A

Internet action safety plan

________________________________________________

Communicates to the operations and planning section chiefs safety and health issues identified by the safety officer

The worksheet is used by the resource unit to complete ICS 204 forms and operations briefings

296
Q

When officers on the incident from village of key Biscayne and Miami Fire Rescue department are of equal ranks. The officer from ________ is in charge of the incident.

A

Village of key Biscayne

297
Q

When officers on an incident from the village of key Biscayne and Miami Fire Rescue department are of unequal ranks _______ will be in charge of the incident

A

The highest ranking officer will be in charge of the incident

298
Q

________ will be in command of all incidents at the village of key biscayne requiring their dispatch.

Unless..

A

District chiefs

The Miami district chief is relieved of command by a Miami officer of higher rank

The Miami district Chief is relieved by the fire chief or deputy chief of the village of key Biscayne fire department, the district chief will then be in charge of operations.

299
Q

(RIT)
The rapid intervention team shall be positioned ______

A

Outside the IDLH area

300
Q

(RIT)
A RIT entry shall be a minimum of

A

2 members

301
Q

(RIT)
The RIT group supervisor shall be..

A

Highest ranking officer of the rapid intervention team
or
as determined by the incident commander

302
Q

(RIT)
The RIT entry leader shall be assigned by ..

A

The RIT group supervisor
or
The IC

303
Q

(RIT)
A RIT will automatically be dispatched on ..

A

All code 1 fires
or
whenever requested by the IC

304
Q

(RIT)
RIT stations shall be designated as determined by …

A

The AFC of ERD

305
Q

(RIT)
What are the current RIT stations?

A

Sta 2
Sta 7
Sta 9
Sta 10

306
Q

(RIT)
At all working fires or incidents that require entry into IDLH environments a _________ will be set up as soon as possible ..

A

IRIT with at least 3 members

307
Q

(RIT)
The units dispatch to form a RIT will be _________

In the event two units from the same station are not available __________ Will be dispatched

A

-The closest unit from a RIT station

-The closest unit from another designated RIT station

308
Q

(RIT)
The _________ will not notify responding units of their intended purpose when dispatched

A

Alarm office

309
Q

(RIT)
The responding designated RIT units will give arrival on _________ using their designated unit number
&
Then advise the IC using the __________ of their arrival and assignment

A

Dispatch & tactical channel

Tactical channel

310
Q

(RIT)
The IRIT will remain in place until additional units are available, and they are properly relieved by..

A

Fully staffed RIT
consisting of no less than 7 members

311
Q

(RIT)
RIT kits are to be located on all four member apparatus as determined by ..

A

The AFC of ERD

312
Q

(RIT)
At a minimum the IRIT/RIT shall carry ..

A

• One (1) Radio per member (Tactical Channel assigned by the IC).
• One (1) Thermal Imaging Camera per RIT Entry Team.
• Appropriate forcible entry tools (Halligan tool, sledgehammer, axe, etc.).
__________________________________________________

One (1) RIT Kit per Entry Team consisting of a True North LR3 bag containing:

One (1) Removable Rope Bag with 200’ of 5.8 mm CMC Reflective Search Rope

One (1) Daeger 60-Minute SCBA Bottle (4500 PSI)

1st Stage Reducer with a Low-Pressure Warning Whistle

High-Pressure Transfill Hose

One (1) Draeger SCBA Mask with Lung Demand Valve attached (6’ of Hose)

One (1) CMC Pick-Off Strap with two (2) Non-Locking Carabiners

One (1) Mini Bolt Cutter

313
Q

(RIT)
How many thermal imaging cameras per written entry team shall be assigned

A

1 per RIT entry team

314
Q

(RIT)
The IRIT/RIT shall report to ________ unless otherwise directed

A

The IC

315
Q

(RIT)
Who shall perform an early assessment for additional resources that may be needed to assist with the rescue and communicate these needs with the IC (TRT,Hazmat, Manpower)

A

The IRIT/RIT

316
Q

(RIT)
While performing a continuous & ongoing size up, the RIT/RIT should note..

A

-Note size of building
-Note location of hazards
-Note location of companies operating in hazardous areas
-Note location of entry and egress points

317
Q

(RIT)
Where shall equipment be staged ?

A

In a location that will facilitate rapid access & response

318
Q

(RIT)
A main search rope shall be attached to _________
to ensure that the IRIT/RIT can enter / exit the hazard area quickly

A

A secure point outside the hazard area

319
Q

(RIT)
___________ shall secure the main tagline to their SCBA waist belt and take the lead

A

The Entry team leader

320
Q

(RIT)
__________ will notify the IC when he search for missing or injured firefighter begins

A

The RIT Group supervisor

321
Q

(RIT)
What are the order of search area considerations..

A

Go to last location advised by injured, trapped, missing firefighter

Move towards the direction of audible pass alarm unit/visual signal (flashlight)

Follow hose line inside the structure and begin the search from there

_______________________________________

If no communication with injured, trapped, missing firefighter, no audible, pass alarm, and no visual signal…

Begin oriented search from most endangered area first then work your way towards the outside

_________________________________________

When entering a new area, hold your breath for approximately 10 seconds, and then listen carefully for any sounds that could lead the crew to the injured, trapped missing firefighter

322
Q

(RIT)
If no communication with injured, trapped, missing firefighter, no audible, pass alarm, and no visual signal…

A

Begin oriented search from the most endangered area first then work your way toward the outside

323
Q

(RIT)
Once the injured trapped, missing firefighter /crew is located ..

A

Shut off their PASS device

Notify the RIT group supervisor assessment underway & req additional resources)

Assess and mitigate the injured, trapped, missing, firefighters ..

-Breath
-Level of consciousness
-Air check & mask intact - high versus low pressure emergency
-Level of entrapment or entanglement
-Packaging and/or harness conversion

Assess surrounding areas to determine quick and efficient means of egress and notify our RIT group supervisor of exit strategy

324
Q

(RIT)
IRIT/RIT Group supervisor (responsibilities)

A

Ensure a 360 structure/scene conducted

Monitor location of crews working in the hot zone via tactical worksheet or command status board

Monitor tactical channel assigned by IC

Relay IRIT/RIT information needs to IC

Identify equipment needs

Designate entry point

Designate & communicate RIT equipment staging location

coordinate IRIT/RIT efforts

Ensure adequate personnel available once our IT deployment occurs

Ensure face-to-face information exchange occurs when RIT is relieving an IRIT

325
Q

(RIT)
Entry RIT team 1 (responsibilities)

A

Appropriate equipment is carried

Initial search effort to locate and package the injured/missing FF

-Face-to-face exchange briefing during every RIT crew rotation
-Responsible for extraction of the injured or missing FF

326
Q

(RIT)
Entry RIT team 2 (responsibilities)

A

Initial back up for entry team 1

Continue search efforts if needed

Extraction of the injured or missing FF if not, removed by entry team 1

Provide resources / equipment to entry team 1

327
Q

(RIT)
Entry RIT team 3 (responsibilities)

A

Initial back up for entry team 2

Responsible to carry out operations not completed by entry team 1 and entry team 2

Provide resources/equipment to entry team 2

328
Q

(RIT)
The IRIT/RIT shall remain focused on the placement of cruise through the monitoring of _________ & information found on________

A

Radio traffic
&
Incident command status board or tactical worksheet

329
Q

(RIT)
Positioning, Shelby determined by _____ based on _______

A

The IC

Type of incident

330
Q

(RIT)
Who shall consider the length of time the IRT/RIT has been on alert and rotate cruise accordingly

A

The IC

331
Q

(RIT)
The structure of the IRIT/RIT shall be flexible based on the type/ size of incident and complexity of operations.

The _______ shall provide one or more RIT in accordance with the needs of the incident.

A

IC

332
Q

(RIT)
All IRIT/RIT communications shall be directed through ..

A

The RIT group supervisor

333
Q

(RIT)
Who shall request or assign additional channels as needed for RIT operations for the purpose of ..

-Communication with down firefighter
-Communications between RIT entry
-Additional operations req separate communications

A

The IC

334
Q

(RIT)
Should it become necessary for the IC to assign multiple? RIT’s identification should be based on …

A

Geographical designation such as..
RIT - alpha, bravo, Charlie,
or
5th floor RIT

335
Q

(RIT)
If the IC utilizes the RIT for purposes, other than search and rescue the RIT must ..

A

Revert to its original unit designation and be reassigned to the incident tactical channel

336
Q

The policy of City Of Miami Department fire rescue is to provide for a designated incident scene safety officer to assist with…

A

Risk management at all code 1 or greater fire alarms
high risk emergency operations
as requested by the incident commander

337
Q

The incident scene safety officer can be..

A

-District chief
-Fire department safety officer
-Any member used by the incident commander on high risk incident to assist with identification and mitigation of safety hazard

338
Q

During non-emergency activities the FDSO will be identified as

A

Car 77

339
Q

At the emergency scene the FDSO will be identified as

A

Safety

340
Q

Upon the designation of a code 1 or higher alarm, a _________ will be automatically dispatched by the Alarm Office and assume the role of incident scene safety officer

A

A second district chief

Until the incident is determined safe by the incident commander or until properly relieved by the fire department safety officer

341
Q

The incident commander may request __________ if needed for division group assignments

A

Additional district chiefs

342
Q

The incident scene safety officer will notify __________ of arrival and reports a command post unless the attention is required elsewhere on the emergency scene

A

The Alarm office & incident commander

  • unless immediate attention is required elsewhere on the emergency scene. In such cases, the incident commander shall be notified.
343
Q

_________ shall carry a reflective / highly visible vest with the word safety. Vest is to be worn for scene identification, unless incident scene safety officer enters the hazardous area where full PPE is required.

A

All district chiefs care

344
Q

The incident scene safety officer shall use the term __________ for all radio communications at the emergency scene

A

Safety

345
Q

The incident scene safety officer will notify ________ of any injuries to the department personnel or equipment damage or failure, so that proper investigative procedures may be initiated

A

The incident commander
&
The FDSO

346
Q

The PIA summary sheet is required on ?

A

-All code 1 or greater incidents (except single family dwellings)
-Hazard material response
-Technical rescue response
-Dive rescue response
-When more units are utilized on the scene, and originally dispatched
-When directed by the AFC of ERD

347
Q

________ shall complete the post incident analysis, summary sheet and forward to the ______

A

The incident commander

AFC of ERD

348
Q

(PIA)
_______ shall distribute information to all members as needed for review

A

AFC of ERD

349
Q

The PAR shall be initiated on a ___________ or after _________ to determine the location and status of all members

A

Regular basis at predetermined time intervals

Sudden hazardous events

350
Q

The procedure used to obtain the PAR from each unit..

A

Rollcall

351
Q

________ is a predetermined time or event, which automatically requires a PAR by the incident commander

A

Benchmark

352
Q

__________ shall identify the hazard zone for all emergency incidents

A

The incident commander

353
Q

Tactical benchmarks, requiring a par include..

A

-30 minute intervals (FCIO shall IC of time on scene)
-Down, lost, trapped, missing FF
-Sudden hazardous event
-change in strategy (offensive to defensive - vice versa)

354
Q

When the incident commander initiates a PAR by rollcall a PAR shall identify…

A

Your location
&
That all assigned members are accounted for

355
Q

A PAR within a division , group, branch should be conducted..

A

Face to face within their division, group, branch, whenever possible

356
Q

In order of priority, PAR’s shall always be conducted first for..

A

Companies or teams working within the hazard (hot) zone

357
Q

The incident commander show, maintain recording of operations and accountability by the..

A

Basic tactical worksheet
Or
In- command status board

  • the incident commander shall initiate and accountability and inventory system worksheet at the very beginning of operations, and shall maintain that system throughout operations
358
Q

________ is responsible for maintaining the training manuals and verifying completion of required documentation for thermal imaging units

A

The station commander

359
Q

_____ shall verify the use of the thermal imaging units during emergency operations or training exercises by property trained members

A

The incident commander

360
Q

________ is responsible to review and update the lost missing, or trapped firefighter policy

A

FDSO

361
Q

When a firefighter is declared lost, trapped, or missing, the Alarm Office will..

A

Sound a tone on all channels and advise all personnel We have a MAYDAY for a lost, trapped or missing firefighter.

362
Q

After a meeting, the Alarm Office will automatically dispatch..

A

Another building assignment
&
EMS Battalion Captain (car74)

363
Q

After a meeting, the fire central information office will notify..

A

Fire chief
Deputy chief of operations
AFC of ERD
PIO
FDSO

364
Q

Immediately, after a report of a Mayday, the IC will send the RIT to the most appropriate location typically..

A

The last reported work area to initiate search and rescue efforts

365
Q

After a Mayday, the IC at a minimum must expand the incident command system to include..

A

A search and rescue branch

S&R branch shall include ..

-Units required for the search and rescue of lost trapped missing FF
-RIT or IRIT
-Standby rescue ready to treat and transport

366
Q

A 9”X12” hard white plastic board with an attached grease pencil that control officers use to hold passports of a assigned teams and take notes

A

Control board

367
Q

Control boards will be kept in..

A

Cabs of suppression units
Every district chief car
MCI kit of rescues

368
Q

A control officer may be assigned to report to..

A

Incident commander
Section chief
Branch /division officer

369
Q

A 2”X4” Plastic card that identifies an accounts for members and or teams

A

Passport

370
Q

Primary passport will be kept..

A

On Officer side door of suppression units and rescue units

371
Q

Back up passport are stored in..

A

Fire stations
And
Every District Chief car

372
Q

________ are responsible to utilize the passport accountability system, and shall maintain awareness of each other’s physical condition

A

Officers

373
Q

______ shall use the command structure to help request relief and reassignment of fatigue or injured members

A

Officers

374
Q

Officers shall use the _________ to request help relief and reassignment of fatigue or injured members

A

Command structure

375
Q

Team members must always be in contact with each other through one of the following methods..

A

Voice
Visual
Physical

376
Q

Radio or phone contact is permissible for ..

A

-Apparatus operators
-Chief officers
-Other officers were the location of such personnel is constant

377
Q

If a team member is in trouble, the other member of the team shell take appropriate steps to…

A
  1. Provide direct help
  2. Call for help
  3. Go get help
378
Q

Members shall stay together as a _______, when in the hazard or hot zone, or as otherwise, directed by the incident commander until incident termination

A

Team

379
Q

Materials and supplies for the ongoing support of the passport accountability system shall be requested through

A

Logistics, division

380
Q

How many sections do passports have?

A

3 section

381
Q

The top portion of the passport contains..

A

Company designation
Company number
Team A or Team B (if applicable)

382
Q

The middle portion of the passport contains..

A

Team members names

Company officers and team leaders should be the first name on the passport

Drivers shall be identified by using the initials DE

383
Q

White control boards are to be carried on..

A

All front line and District Chief vehicles

384
Q

When a company arrives at an emergency and reports to the incident commander/staging/division/branch officer, they shall transfer their primary passport to that officer, except when..

A

They are the only unit at the incident

They are operating or assigned to a remote side of the emergency incident before establishment of a branch / division

The 1st arriving companies are committed to an initial operations 

385
Q

(Passport accountability system)
Chiefs are to contain materials as follow..

A

2 control board make up kits
12 white passport make up kits

386
Q

________ will determine the placement of materials by the ________ for the passport accountability system on apparatus, assigned to a station or company

A

AFC of ERD

Logistics division

387
Q

In the event problems, arise related to scene management with different jurisdictional agencies and the incident is within the City Of Miami. The City Of Miami OIC is to…

A

Inform the other agency officer that the incident is within City Of Miami and will be handled by City Of Miami units

If problem not resolved ..

Fire central is to be notified in a district chief, is to be dispatched to the scene

Central is immediately contact the other jurisdictions agency, and request assistance with on scene activity

As a last resort, MPD will be dispatched

The name of the other agency, OIC, and unit number will be obtained, and a memo outlining circumstances FWD to the fire chief for review

388
Q

__________ has the advantage of low risk to the perpetrator and requires only a low level of technical knowledge. The potential for use of fire in high-rise during acts of vertical terrorism or an incendiary device released by drone should also be considered.

A

Arson

389
Q

________ can include a wide variety of direct-action activities. Worldwide examples include throwing hand grenades into crowds, rocket attacks on airliners or buildings and the more familiar gun battle or knife attack.

A

Armed assault

390
Q

____________ is A term applied to the killing of prominent persons and symbolic enemies as well as traitors who defect from a group. One method of creating fear and eliminating rivals is simply by killing them. _____________ targets are selected with a strategic purpose and the actual attack has been planned, coordinated and practiced.

A

Assassination

391
Q

An incident where one or more individuals are or have been actively engaged ni harming, killing, or attempting to kill people in a populated area by means such as firearms, explosives, toxic substances, vehicles, edged weapons, fire or a combination thereof.

A

Active Shooter/ Hostile Event

392
Q

__________ consist of organisms or chemicals of biological origin that cause death and disease among humans, animals and plants.
__________ include Anthrax, Cholera, Plague, Botulism and Ricin among others. Unlike other terrorist weapons, except for some toxins, any physical manifestation of an
attack is likely to be delayed.

A

Biological Agent Release - Biological agents

393
Q

The improvised explosive device (IED) is the contemporary terrorist weapon of choice. IEDs can be inexpensive to produce and, because of the various detonation techniques available, may be a low risk to the perpetrator. Other advantages include their attention getting capacity and the ability to control casualties through time of detonation and placement of the device. It is also easily deniable should the action produce undesirable results. Other explosive techniques also have become more prevalent, such as vehicle-borne improvised explosive devices (VBIED) and suicide vests.

A

Bombing

394
Q

Any terrorist group that has established credibility can employ a hoax with considerable success. Athreat against a person’s life causes that person and those associated with that individual to devote time and effort to security measures. (A _________ / ________ can close a commercial building, empty a theater, or delay an aircraft flight at no cost to the terrorist. False alarms dull the analytical and operational efficiency of key security personnel, thus degrading readiness.)

A

Bomb Threat / Hoaxes

395
Q

Of the five categories of chemical agents, (nerve, blister, choking, blood and vomiting), nerve gas is undoubtedly the most notorious and dangerous. The nerve gas Sarin was used by the Aum Shinrikyo group in the Tokyo subway system. The terrorist use of a chemical agent in an enclosed environment such as a subway station, auditorium, sports arena or shopping mall has the potential for creating massive numbers of casualties that will quickly overwhelm response capabilities.

A

Chemical release

396
Q

Of the five categories of chemical agents, (nerve, blister, choking, blood and vomiting), ________ is undoubtedly the most notorious and dangerous.

A

Nerve gas

397
Q

Creating mass, violent disturbances of the public peace in attempts to show the world that the public does support their cause(s).

A

Civil disturbance

398
Q

______________ are acts of terrorism that involve synchronized and independent teams) at multiple locations, sequentially or in close succession, initiated with little or no warning, and employing one or more weapon

systems: firearms, explosives, fire as a weapon, and other nontraditional attack methodologies that are intended to result ni large numbers of casualties.

A

Complex Coordinated Terrorist Attack (CCTA)

399
Q

A less violent but increasingly costly tactic is emerging and may be used by terrorists in the future with increasing frequency. As government, business and society in general become increasingly dependent on computers and information technology through the internet, a whole new vulnerability presents itself. Terrorists can use sophisticated hacker skills to enter computer systems remotely to steal, alter or change information contained in databases and operating systems. ________ may also attempt to gain control of, or disable, infrastructure components such as dams, utilities or airport radar systems.

A

Cyber terrorism

400
Q

Although this tactic has not been widely asserted, the increasing accessibility of sophisticated weapons and explosives ot terrorists has the potential to threaten damage to the environment.

Examples are: intentional dumping of hazardous chemicals into a city’s water supply or the destruction of an oil tanker. Fear of alienation may be a factor that has limited the use of this tactic to date.

A

Environmental Destruction:

401
Q

____________ - Sometimes employed as a means for escape, hijacking is normally carried out to produce a spectacular hostage situation and ot gain media attention ot the hijackers’ cause. Although trains, buses and ships have been hijacked, aircraft are the preferred target because of their greater mobility and vulnerability.

A

Hijacking / Skyjacking

402
Q

A ________ usually involves a building or object that has value in the eyes of the audience. There is some risk to the terrorist because security forces have time to react and may opt to use force to resolve the incident, especially if few or no innocent lives are involved

A

Seizure

403
Q

Armed attacks on facilities are usually undertaken for one of three purposes: to gain access to radio or television broadcast capabilities to make a statement; to demonstrate the government’s inability to secure critical facilities or national symbols; or for logistical purposes; e.g., robbery of a bank or armory

A

Raids or Attacks on Facilities

404
Q

This usually is an overt seizure of one or more individuals with the intent of gaining publicity or other concessions ni return for release of the hostage. While dramatic, hostage and hostage barricade situations are risky for the perpetrator when executed in an unfriendly environment. Generally, hostage taking is a well-planned operation that involves considerable surveillance, reconnaissance and planning prior to
the attack, but it can also be an impromptu situation when some other activity goes bad.

A

Hostage Taking

405
Q

__________ involves the seizure of prominent people. While like hostage taking, kidnapping has significant differences. Kidnapping is usually a covert seizure of one or more specific persons until specific demands are met. The perpetrators of the action may not be known for a long time. News media is initially intense but decreases over time. Because of the time involved, successful kidnapping involves elaborate planning and logistics. The risk ot the terrorist si less than a hostage situation.
Kidnapping for ransom is becoming a favored method for financing terrorist operations in parts of the world.

A

Kidnapping

406
Q

The nuclear terrorist threat consists of Improvised Nuclear Devices (IND) capable of creating a nuclear yield and Radiological Dispersion Devices
(RDD). INDs include either nuclear weapons stolen or obtained from a nuclear powers inventory or an improvised device designed and constructed by the terrorists. RDDs involve the inclusion of radioactive material with a conventional explosive device; when the conventional explosive is detonated it contaminates a wide area with the radioactive material.

A

Nuclear Release Weapons

407
Q

The objective in most sabotage incidents is to demonstrate how vulnerable society is to terrorist actions. Industrialized societies are
more vulnerable to sabotage than less highly developed societies. Utilities, communications, and transportation systems are so interdependent that a serious disruption of any one affects al of them and gains immediate public attention. Sabotage of industrial or commercial facilities is one means of identifying the target while making a statement of future intent. Sabotage involves an assortment of methods that can include such diverse techniques ranging from product tampering to spiking trees to discourage their being harvested. The rationale for this tactic can range from extortion to destroying public faith in a product or service.

A

Product Tampering / Sabotage

408
Q

________ is used to obtain funds to support the terrorist’s cause and logistical needs

A

Robbery / Attempted Robber

409
Q

A form of mass murder in which a perpetrator deliberately rams a motor vehicle into a building, crowd of people, or another vehicle.

A

Vehicle Ramming Attack

410
Q

________ is critical to terrorist incident response, because it is the only mechanism that provides a single coordinated incident action plan for incident functions, a single focal point for implementing the IAP, and a single incident command post or facility

A

Unified command

411
Q

The IC shall established a unified command with ________ when incident involving a man-made disaster have been identified.

The IC shall consider ..

A

Miami Police Department

Consider..

-Develop suppression strategies and provide EMS
-Consider add additional resources
Request assistance from special ops, hazmat TRT, swat medics, usar
-coordinate the RTF with MPD when appropriate
-Consider developing a JHAT
- initiated system for patient Tracking in hospital surge capacity
-Assure MFR are conducting operations while remaining cognizant of crime scene preservation

412
Q

The COOP shall be applied ot instances where the department’s normal daily staffing levels are being affected by _________ and shal continuously be evaluated and adjusted based on staffing trends and needs (i.e., ____ consecutive shifts).

A

a state of emergency

3 consecutive shifts

413
Q

The department will make the necessary notifications to inform its personnel about the implementation of the COOP. Periodic updates on the department’s staffing impacts will be provided to ________ .

The frequency of the updates wil be determined by __________.

A

Local 587 (labor)

The fire chief

414
Q

(COOP)
A ___________ may be assigned to assist the Emergency Response Division (ERD) with holdovers, drafting, hiring, and tracking needs.

A

Staffing officer

415
Q

(COOP)
For Tier 3 hiring purposes, personnel may be hired ____ civil service rank up or down, on an as needed basis

A

One

416
Q

(COOP)
When staffing shortages equals or exceeds:
10% of the workforce, for three (3) consecutive shifts: _____________ may be denied until the operational needs of the day are being satisfied through Tier 1, 2, &3.

A

Unscheduled Vacation requests

417
Q

(COOP)
When staffing shortages equals or exceeds:
20% of the workforce, for three (3) consecutive shifts: _____________ may be denied until the operational needs of the day are being satisfied through Tier 1, 2, &3.

A

R days may be cancelled

Fire chief may consider placing 1 unit out of service according to unit response reduction plan

418
Q

(COOP)
When staffing shortages equals or exceeds:
25% of the workforce, for three (3) consecutive shifts: _____________ may be denied until the operational needs of the day are being satisfied through Tier 1, 2, &3.

A

Scheduled Vacation days may be canceled

Consideration given to cancelling extra duty details or requesting mutual aid assist

Consideration given to using sworn personnel from other divisions

The fire chief may consider placing 2 units out of service according to unit response reduction plan

419
Q

(COOP)
When staffing shortages equals or exceeds:
30% of the workforce, for three (3) consecutive shifts: _____________ may be denied until the operational needs of the day are being satisfied through Tier 1, 2, &3.

A

Workforce may be placed on alpha / bravo shifts

Fire chief may consider placing other units out of service according to unit response reduction plan

420
Q

When spoting an apparatus, the Company Oficer and Driver shall consider best the _________as wel as considering _______ (i.e., power lines, building collapse, etc.), and _________.

A

Best placement for use

Hazards

Street blockage

421
Q

The Company Officer shall convey ____________ to incoming units or to an Incident Commander once command has been transferred.

A

The Conditions actions needs

422
Q

Communication on the appropriate Tactical Channel should be..

A

Short And To The Point

423
Q
  • First Arriving Unit -
    The first arriving unit will size-up and investigate the incident as required. The O.I.C. wil communicate the following to the responding units on the appropriate Tactical or EMS unit to unit Channel:
A

• Exact location of incident.
• Type of incident.
• Hazards and/or exposures.
• First arriving units functions
• Specific assignments of responding units

424
Q

Once a fire incident has been determined to be a code 1 or code 2 for units on scene. The IC shall make this announcement over the…

A

Fire dispatch channel

425
Q

Miami Fire Rescue has adopted the situational report of ________ for fire related alarms where the incident commander has determined that units will be engaged in firefighting

A

Working Fire

426
Q

The situation report working incident shall be applied for the following types of incidents when units are engaged in actual operations..

A

Dive team
Fireboat
Technical rescue team
Hazardous materials response team
Vehicle and machinery rescue

427
Q

Beginning with a hurricane watch, all company, officers district chiefs and battalion commanders are two complete a ________ per duty day

A

ICS 214 activity log

428
Q

Post hurricane
Any damage that hinders a units emergency response capability is to be reported immediately to ..

A

The battalion commander through the chain of command

429
Q

Post hurricane
MFR units should expect to respond on alarms that remain queued from the Alarm Office. In addition to emergency response priorities will focus on ..

A

Emergency response
Life safety
Property damage assessments

430
Q

Post hurricane
Priorities will be focused on ..

A

Emergency response
Life safety
Property damage assessments

431
Q

Hurricane
Who shall have the ultimate responsibility to determine when it is no longer safe to for Miami Fire Rescue units to continue responding

A

The fire chief, or his Design

432
Q

Hurricane
The determination to continue responding on alarms or to shelter in place is likely to be determined within …

A

The emergency operation center

433
Q

Hurricane
Beginning with a hurricane watch, all company, officers, district chiefs, and battalion commanders are to complete a

A

ICS 214 activity log per duty day

434
Q

The preferences for rescue shall be..

A

Provide medical attention to injured
Set up medical rehab
Firefighting
IRIT

435
Q

ICS 214 activity log shall be initiated and maintained by _________

A

Company officers prior to the end of each tour of duty

436
Q

ICS 214 logs
At the end of each shift, battalion commanders are to submit completed ICS 214 for the entire tour to _________

Consideration shall be given to assigning ________________ who will be responsible for all hurricane response documentation

A

ERD operations officer

A documentation unit

437
Q

When a peaceful, public demonstration or any type of mass, gathering has been deemed to require MFR services FCIO shall be contacted and ______ notified.

_______,May consider the need to move up and on duty unit to standby if a move up is performed FCIO shall notify the ________

A

The BC

The BC

THE SDO

438
Q

When mutual aid assistance is requested, FCIO shall call in for mutual aid and Direct responding units as designated by..

A

The AFC of ERD
OR
The on duty BC

439
Q

Mass gathering civil disturbance notification

_____________ May activate the emergency operation center as directed by the City manager or fire chief

A

AFC of emergency management

440
Q

If it becomes necessary for the ETS assigned firefighter to leave this position and relinquishing the ETS responsibility he shall notify _________ and tell them the name of the individual who will be responsible for manning the ETS on the platform

A

Central control

441
Q

The metro mover has ______ stations
The metro rail has ________ stations
The metro has ______ stations located entirely within corporate limits of City Of Miami

A

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J.Santana Capt Test Study (4 decks)

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