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EOR first test > eor first test > Flashcards

eor first test Flashcards

1
Q

what Does CMD stand for?

A

Conventional munition Disposal

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2
Q

what Does ECM stand for?

A

Electronic counter measures

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3
Q

what Does EOR stand for?

A

Explosive Ordanance Reconnaissance

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4
Q

What does IED stand for?

A

Improvised Explosive device

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5
Q

What does SED stand for?

A

Specialist explosive device

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6
Q

What does UXO stand for?

A

Unexploded explosive ordanance

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7
Q

What does EODCC stand for?

A

Explosive ordanance disposal command center

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8
Q

what does EOC stand for?

A

explosive ordanace clearance

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9
Q

What additional assets (without disposal capability) may be used to assist EOD personal to perform there function more efficiently?

A
  1. EDD
  2. HRS teams
  3. ECM
  4. WIT
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10
Q

What are 4 options EOD commanders have available for dealing with UXO’S?

A
  1. note
  2. avoid the threat
  3. RSP EO
  4. destroy it
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11
Q

What are the four types of fills used in explosives?

A

cast, powdered, pressed, blocked

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12
Q

what are PRIMARY HIGH EXPLOSIVES?

A

Disruptive initiators are primary high explosives which can be brought almost instantaneously to a full rate of
detonation by a small impulse caused by impact, friction or heat, due to their low Figure of Insensitivity. They are
commonly referred to as detonators

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13
Q

what are the two types of shape charge effects called and what is the difference?

A

munroe effect = is a liquid formed jet formed from a soft metal placed in a cone shape in front of a main charge.
Misnay–Schardin Effect = is an explosive formed projectile formed from a concave disk backed by high explosives.

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14
Q

In any EOD incident, the EOD team must balance the hazards posed by the explosive threat with the
consequences of delaying any render safe actions. In a typical situation, the priority of considerations is as follows:

A

a. Safety of the EOD team and support personnel;
b. Safety of bystanders and local occupants;
c. Safety of vital facilities and materials;
d. Safety of other facilities and equipment;
e. Restoration of operations; and
f. Restoration of domestic or non-urgent support activities.

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15
Q

what are the Four EOD option categories and explain?

A

The EOD incident categories are:
a. Category A. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute a grave and immediate
threat. Category A incidents are given priority over all other incidents and disposal operations are to be
started immediately the EOD assets arrive, regardless of personal risk. This category is normally
assigned to incidents capable of causing mass destruction, widespread contamination, a major
reduction of combat personnel or loss of critical installations and facilities.
b. Category B. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute an indirect threat. Before
commencing EOD, a safe waiting period may be observed to reduce the hazard to EOD personnel.
This category includes items of technical intelligence value such as items of ordnance never before
encountered.
c. Category C. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute little threat. These incidents
will normally be dealt with by EOD personnel after Category A and B incidents and in such a manner
as to ensure a minimum risk to personnel. This category is used for the majority of EOD incidents.
d. Category D. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute no threat at the present

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16
Q

what are the Four EOD option incident categories and explain?

A

The EOD incident categories are:
a. Category A. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute a grave and immediate
threat. Category A incidents are given priority over all other incidents and disposal operations are to be
started immediately the EOD assets arrive, regardless of personal risk. This category is normally
assigned to incidents capable of causing mass destruction, widespread contamination, a major
reduction of combat personnel or loss of critical installations and facilities.
b. Category B. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute an indirect threat. Before
commencing EOD, a safe waiting period may be observed to reduce the hazard to EOD personnel.
This category includes items of technical intelligence value such as items of ordnance never before
encountered.
c. Category C. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute little threat. These incidents
will normally be dealt with by EOD personnel after Category A and B incidents and in such a manner
as to ensure a minimum risk to personnel. This category is used for the majority of EOD incidents.
d. Category D. This category is assigned to EOD incidents that constitute no threat at the present

17
Q

An EOD asset will undertake five types of EOD procedures:

A

Access Procedures. These are actions to confirm the reported location of the EO or IED and to
gain access to it, where required, with assistance from high risk search (HRS) teams.
Diagnostic Procedures. These are actions to confirm the identity and nature of the UXO or IED
and to evaluate related risks and effects.
Render Safe Procedures. These procedures involve application of specialist disposal methods
and tools to provide for the interruption of functions or separation of essential components of UXO and
IED to prevent an unacceptable functioning of the item as intended. Recovery Procedures. These procedures are actions to recover UXO or IED components for
disposal, further investigation, EOD intelligence or for use as a training aid. Final Disposal Procedures. These procedures cover final disposal of UXO or IED components, which may include demolition or burning in place, removal to a disposal area or other appropriate means of disposal.

18
Q

What is VOD

A

Velocity of Detonation
26. The passage of the initiating shock wave through explosive material causes a release of energy through the
breakdown of the molecules of the explosive. If the amount of energy released is sufficient to overcome any loss of
energy due to friction or resistance to motion, then the shock wave will continue through the material indefinitely at a
constant speed. This critical velocity is known as the Velocity of Detonation (VoD) of the explosive.

19
Q

What is VOD

A

Velocity of Detonation
The passage of the initiating shock wave through explosive material causes a release of energy through the breakdown of the molecules of the explosive. If the amount of energy released is sufficient to overcome any loss of energy due to friction or resistance to motion, then the shock wave will continue through the material indefinitely at a constant speed. This critical velocity is known as the Velocity of Detonation (VoD) of the explosive.

20
Q

How is VOD measured.

A

measured from the speed in which the explosive changes from solid or liquid to gas. or from the speed the shockwave travels threw the EO material

21
Q

what are the Categories of Detonation

A

high order, low order partial detonation

22
Q

what are the classifications of explosives

A

low explosive - items required to burn or deflegrate

high explosives - items required to detonate

23
Q

what Other Factors Affecting Sensitivity and VOD

A

a. Size of the explosive crystals4;
b. Explosive density (pressed, powdered, blocked or cast filling);
c. Presence or extent of coating (wax or plasticiser);
d. Confinement of the explosive container;
e. Environmental temperature; and
f. Moisture absorbed by the explosive.

24
Q

what are the two types of eo trains

A

Igniferous train. Mortar propelling charge:

(1) Initiator: Percussion cap in base of spigot struck by firing pin in base of tube;
(2) Intermediary or ignition charge; and
(3) Main charge: Propellant bags.
b. Disruptive train. Mortar with PD fuze:
(1) Initiator: firing pin in fuze;
(2) Detonator;
(3) Booster: 20g of CE in fuze well; and
(4) Main charge: 500 g of RDX/TNT mix.

25
Q

what are the Critical Factors in Shaped Charge Effectiveness?

A

a. Stand-off. The explosive jet requires a ‘stand-off’ distance of approximately 3 times the diameter of
cone in order to build up to maximum strength to achieve maximum penetration;
b. Initiator Placement. The detonator must be placed accurately above the apex of the cone or the jet
will not develop correctly in cylindrical shaped charges;
c. Uniform Explosive Fill. The filling of the shaped charge with plastic explosive must be done
carefully. If air pockets are left, the jet formation is distorted and much of its effectiveness is lost;
d. Cone Material. A soft, dense metal, such as copper or aluminium/zinc alloy gives the best and most
effective jet;
e. Cone Angle. A cone angle of between 400 and 800 depending on the cone diameter and liner material
gives the best overall penetration; and
f. Angle of Attack. The shaped charge must be positioned directly over the target to prevent the jet
from ricocheting.

26
Q

what are the CLASSIFICATION OF EXPLOSIVE FILLINGS

A

Low Explosives further sub-divided into:

(1) Propellants, and
(2) Pyrotechnic compositions.
b. High Explosives, further sub-divided into:
(1) Primary high explosives used in initiators;
(2) Secondary high explosives (boosters/primers) which are used in intermediaries; and
(3) Secondary high explosives for main charges.

27
Q

what are the types of LIQUID PROPELLANTS

A

mono propellent - monegrols, catergrols

bipropellents - hypergolic and non - hypergolic

28
Q

what are disruptive initiators

A

Disruptive initiators are primary high explosives which can be brought almost instantaneously to a full rate of
detonation by a small impulse caused by impact, friction or heat, due to their low Figure of Insensitivity. They are
commonly referred to as detonators.

29
Q

what are 4 chemicals used in disruptive initiators?

A

Lead Styphnate, Diazodinitrophenal (DDNP), Lead Azide. Mercury Fulminate

30
Q

Stencilling on the EO may give the following information:

A

a. On one side:
(1) Calibre;
(2) Role identification;
(3) Type of projectile (HE, APDS, WP etc);
(4) Mark or model number; and
b. The following Lot Details may also be included:
(1) Filled Lot No;
(2) Filler monogram; and
(3) Date of filling.

31
Q
  1. Stamping is fairly common especially on older munitions and will show details such as:
A

a. Empty Lot No;
b. Manufacturers details;
c. When it was made; and
d. Empty part number (design number).

32
Q

what is burning to detonation

A

As the name implies, burning to detonation consists of a transition from the burning process; the ignition of an
explosive is followed by an abrupt acceleration of the flame front until it becomes transformed into a shock wave.

33
Q

what is shock to detonation

A

Shock to detonation occurs when an explosive charge is exposed to the influence of a shock wave from the
detonation of another charge, which may be in contact or a short distance away.

34
Q

EOR Technician is responsibilities

A

a. EO reconnaissance, to include detailed categorisation and Measure and Draw (M&D) on all types of
foreign and domestic EO;
b. The detection, identification, field evaluation and destruction in place of foreign and domestic
Explosive Ordnance (EO) to include:
(1) Conventional Land Service Ordnance (LSO) up to 160mm;
(2) Sub munitions;
(3) Free flight (unguided) rockets up to 160 mm; and
(4) Open booby-traps.
c. Surface Search procedures;
d. Access procedures;
e. Protective works;
f. Shoring;
g. Explosive Ordnance Clearance (EOC) Section Commander (under the guidance of an EOD
Technician); and
h. An EOR Technician may participate in other EOD operations under the direct supervision of a EOD
Technician.

35
Q

what is exudation

A

Exudation is caused by certain organic impurities contained mainly in the lower grades of TNT, and in
cordites, which have nitro-glycerine content. can be white or brown yellow or colourd crystals

36
Q

what is extrusion

A

Extrusion is the result of thermal expansion of the HE filling which forces the sealing composition out
through the threads of filling plugs. no physical behmicle change to filling

37
Q

Pyrotechnic compositions are used for a wide variety of applications

A

a. Delays
b. Incendiaries
c. Smoke
d. Illumination
e. Signalling
f. Tracking

EOR first test (1 decks)

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