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Micro Lecture Unit 2 > Epidemiology > Flashcards

Epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

What does symbiosis mean?

A

To live together.

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2
Q

What are the 3 types of symbiosis?

A

Mutualism, Commensalism, and Parasitism

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3
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Both organisms living together are benefited, neither are harmed.

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4
Q

What is an example of Mutualism?

A

Bacteria in human colon.

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5
Q

What is commensalism?

A

One organism benefits and the other does not benefit but is not harmed.

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6
Q

What is an example of commensalism?

A

Staphylococcus on the skin (we are not harmed, but we have no benefit).

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7
Q

What is parasitism?

A

One organism benefits, one is harmed.

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8
Q

What is an example of parasitism?

A

Tuberculosis (we are harmed)

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9
Q

What are Normal Flora?

A

Normal flora is when an organism is always in or on us, GI, GU, oral mucosa.

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10
Q

What is an Opportunistic Pathogen?

A

A normal flora organism that becomes a pathogen when the host’s immune defense decreases.

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11
Q

What happens in Tissue Tropism?

A

Influenza does not affect your hand; gonorrhea only effects mucosa. Tropism can also be species, organ, or non-specific.

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12
Q

What does HIV integrate?

A

Integrates a provirus into our chromosome.

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13
Q

Do obligate pathogens kill their host?

A

No.

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14
Q

What is virulence?

A

Ability to cause infection and disease.

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15
Q

What is multiplicity of infection?

A

The number of organisms needed to cause disease.

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16
Q

What is the relationship between virulence and Multiplicity of Infection?

A

Inverse relationship

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17
Q

How many organisms can form an innoculum in a virulent organism such as anthrax?

A

10

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18
Q

How many organisms do most innoculum need?

A

10 to the 3rd power.

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19
Q

How does anthrax avoid immune defense?

A

By exploiting the very mechanisms used to fight it. It becomes activated after phagocytosis.

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20
Q

What is the role of mycobacterium?

A

Coat the wall of vacuoles so lysozymes can’t fuse.

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21
Q

What is the role of rickettsia?

A

On a timer, rickettsia escapes the vacuole to invade the nucleus.

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22
Q

What are the portals of entry (POE)?

A

Cephalic (7 portals): mouth, nose, eyes, ears.
Corporeal: mammary, vaginal, urethral, rectal.
Trauma/Medical: burn, compound fracture, surgical/catheter, injury/IVDA, abnormal mucosa (CA chemo).

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23
Q

What are the modes of transmission (MOT)?

A 
AEROSOL
DROPLET NUCLEI
DIRECT CONTACT
CASUAL TRANSMISSION
ASPIRATION
FECAL-ORAL
SEXUAL TRANSMISSION (STD)
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24
Q

Airborne micro-particles (soil aerosol containing endospores).

A

AEROSOL

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25
Q

Mucoid micro-droplet via cough or sneeze, durable on surfaces, mainly transmitted by contact.

A

DROPLET NUCLEI

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26
Q

Direct object/tissue-to-tissue contact.

A

DIRECT CONTACT

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27
Q

Handshake, clothing

A

CASUAL TRANSMISSION

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28
Q

Inhalation or oral, GI, or food-borne organisms

A

ASPIRATION

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29
Q

Autoinoculation or contamination (poor hygiene)

A

FECAL-ORAL

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30
Q

sexual/bodily fluid contact

A

SEXUAL TRANSMISSION (STD)

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31
Q

A living organism that spreads disease from one host to another.

A

Vector

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32
Q

Inanimate object that spreads disease from one host to another.

A

Fomite (examples include toothbrush, water glass, toys, handles)

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33
Q

A presence of an organism is known as…

A

Infection

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34
Q

Adverse symptoms due to infection.

A

Disease

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35
Q

Organisms that are typically found on a healthy individual.

A

Normal Flora

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36
Q

Organism causing disease (etiologic agent).

A

Pathogen

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37
Q

Suppressed or deficient immunity.

A

Immunocompromised

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38
Q

Acquired in hospital setting.

A

Nosocomial

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39
Q

Acquired in routine, day-to-day activities.

A

Community acquired

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40
Q

normal flora + compromised pathogen

A

opportunistic pathogen

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41
Q

always causes Dz if present

A

Obligate pathogen

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42
Q

What does “normal microbiota” mean?

A

Organisms that colonize the body’s surfaces without causing disease.

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43
Q

What are 2 names that also mean “normal microbiota”?

A

1) Normal flora

2) Indigenous flora

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44
Q

What are 2 types of normal microbiota in hosts?

A

1) Resident microbiota

2) Transient microbiota

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45
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

Bacteria in the bloodstream.

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46
Q

What is bacteruria?

A

Bacteria in urine.

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47
Q

What is a pyrogenic?

A

Fever-producing infection.

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48
Q

What is pyogenic?

A

Pus-producing.

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49
Q

What is pyemia?

A

Gram + bacteremia

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50
Q

What is a differential diagnosis?

A

All possible causes of the disease.

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51
Q

What is urosepsis?

A

Septicemia from UTI.

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52
Q

Of the 2 types of normal microbiota, what type is part of the normal microbiota throughout life?

A

Resident microbiota

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53
Q

Of the 2 types of normal microbiota, what type remains in the body for a short period of time?

A

Transient microbiota

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54
Q

What are 3 reasons why transient microbiota cannot persist in the body?

A

1) Competition from other microorganisms
2) Elimination by the body’s self-defense cells
3) Chemical or physical changes in the body

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55
Q

When does microbiota start to develop in the body?

A

During the birthing process.

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56
Q

When do much of one’s resident microbiota establish?

A

During the first months of life.

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57
Q

What are opportunistic pathogens?

A

Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances.

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58
Q

What is axenic?

A

No microorganisms exist.

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59
Q

What is one condition that can induce normal microbiota to convert to opportunistic pathogens?

A

Introduction of normal microbiota into an unusual site in the body.

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60
Q

Immune suppression can provide the opportunity for normal microbiota to convert into what type of pathogen?

A

Opportunistic pathogen

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61
Q

Transient bacteria are found in the same regions as __________ microbiota.

A

Resident

62
Q

In regards to cell surface markers, what does “CD” mean?

A

Cluster of Differentiation

63
Q

What are cell surface markers used for?

A

To identify specific structures on a cell.

64
Q

Can pathogens survive a long time outside of their host?

A

NO

65
Q

What is a “reservoir of infection?”

A

Sites where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection.

66
Q

A(n) ______ reservoir is a type of reservoir for infection.

A

Animal

67
Q

What are 2 types of reservoirs?

A

1) Human carrier

2) Non-living reservoir

68
Q

What are zoonoses?

A

Diseases that naturally spread from an animal host to humans.

69
Q

What are 3 ways you can acquire zoonoses?

A

1) Direct contact with an animal or it’s waste
2) Eating animals
3) Bloodsucking arthropods

70
Q

Are humans usually dead-end hosts to zoonotic pathogens?

A

Yes.

71
Q

What is a human carrier?

A

An infected individual who is asymptomatic but infective to others.

72
Q

______ is one type of non-living reservoir.

A

Soil

73
Q

What are 2 types of non-living reservoirs?

A

1) Food

2) Water

74
Q

What 2 natural human secretions can cause contamination in a non-living reservoir?

A

1) Urine

2) Feces

75
Q

What is contamination?

A

The presence of microbes in or on the body.

76
Q

What is infection?

A

When a microorganism evades the body’s external defenses, multiplies, and becomes established in the body.

77
Q

What is portal of entry?

A

Sites through which pathogen’s enter the body.

78
Q

What is one major portal of entry that is found on the external part of the body?

A

Skin

79
Q

What is one major portal of entry that relates to the nose?

A

Mucous membranes

80
Q

What is one major portal of entry that relates to a fetus?

A

Placenta

81
Q

What is one major portal of entry?

A

Parenteral route

82
Q

Portals of Entry

A

Skin, mucous membranes, placenta, parenteral route

83
Q

Describe how skin is a portal of entry.

A
  • Outer layer of dead skin cells acts as a barrier to pathogens.
  • Some pathogens can enter through openings or cuts.
  • Others enter by burrowing into or digesting outer layers of skin.
84
Q

Describe how mucous membranes becomes a portal of entry.

A
  • Line the body cavities that are open to the environment.
  • Provide a moist, warm environment hospitable to pathogens.
  • Respiratory tract is the most common site of entry.
  • Entry is through the nose, mouth, or eyes.
  • GI tract may be route of entry, must survive the acidic pH of the stomach.
85
Q

Describe how the placenta is a portal of entry.

A
  • Typically forms effective barrier to pathogens.
  • Pathogens may cross the placenta and infect the fetus which can cause spontaneous abortion, birth defects, premature birth.
86
Q

Describe how the parental route is a portal of entry.

A
  • Not a true portal of entry.
  • Means by which the portal of entry can be circumvented.
  • Pathogens deposited directly into tissues beneath the skin or mucous membranes.
87
Q

Role of adhesion in infection.

A
  • Process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells.
  • Required to successfully establish colonies within the host.
  • Attachment proteins help in adhesion.
  • Found on viruses and many bacteria.
  • Viral or bacterial ligands bind host cell receptors.
  • Interaction can determine host cell specificity.
  • Changing/blocking a ligand or its receptor can prevent infection.
  • Inability to make attachment proteins or adhesins renders microorganisms avirulent.
  • Some bacterial pathogens attach to each other to form a biofilm.
88
Q

What is the invasion of the host by a pathogen?

A

Infection

89
Q

What is the result if invading pathogens alter normal body functions?

A

Disease

90
Q

The incidence or prevalence of disease is also known as what?

A

Morbidity

91
Q

The chance of death occurring from a disease.

A

Mortality rate

92
Q

What are the three manifestations of disease?

A

Symptoms, Signs, and Syndromes

93
Q

Which subjective characteristics are only felt by the patient?

A

Symptoms

94
Q

Which objective measures are observed by others?

A

Signs

95
Q

What are clinical manifestations which contain both signs and symptoms which characterize a disease or abnormal condition?

A

Syndromes

96
Q

What type of infections lack symptoms but still may have signs of infection?

A

Asymtomatic or subclinical

97
Q

Cause of disease is also known as what?

A

Etiology

98
Q

What is the Germ Theory of disease?

A

Disease caused by infections of pathogenic microorganisms.

99
Q

Who developed a set of postulates that one must satisfy in order to prove a particular pathogen caused by a particular disease?

A

Robert Koch

100
Q

Exceptions to Koch’s postulate.

A

Some pathogens can’t be cultured in the laboratory.
Diseases caused by a combination of pathogens and other cofactors.
Ethical considerations prevent applying Koch’s postulates to pathogens that require a human host.

101
Q

Difficulties in satisfying Koch’s postulate.

A

Diseases can be caused by more than one pathogen.

102
Q

What are the factors of infectious agents?

A

Pathogenicity and Virulence

103
Q

What term describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease?

A

Pathogenicity

104
Q

What is Virulence?

A

Degree of pathogenicity (How easy it is for a particular microorganism to cause disease)

105
Q

Virulence factors include:

A

Adhesion factors
Biofilms
Extracellular enzymes
Toxins, Antiphagocytic factors

106
Q

Extracellular enzymes are secreted by what?

A

Pathogens

107
Q

Extracellular enzymes do what to the structural chemicals in the body?

A

Dissolve

108
Q

Extracellular enzymes help pathogens to do what?

A

Maintain infection, invade, and avoid body defenses.

109
Q

Another Virulence factor of Infectious Agents

A

Toxin

110
Q

Toxins are:

A

Chemicals that harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage.

111
Q

What is toxemia?

A

Toxins in the bloodstream that are carried beyond the site of infection.

112
Q

There are two types of toxins.

A

Exotoxins

Endotoxins

113
Q

A virulence Factor of Infectious Agents

A

Antiphagocytic factors

114
Q

Factors prevent phagocytosis by the host’s phagocytic cells

A

Antiphagocytic factor

115
Q

Two types of Antiphagocytic factors

A

Bacterial capsule

Antiphagocytic chemicals

116
Q

Bacterial capsule

A

Composed of chemicals not recognized as foreign.

Slippery, difficult for phagocytes to engulf bacteria.

117
Q

Antiphagocytic chemicals

A

Prevent fusion of lysosome and phagocytic vesicles.

Leukocidins directly destry phagocytic white blood cells.

118
Q

What are the five stages of Infectious Disease?

A
  • Incubation period
  • Prodromal period
  • illness
  • decline
  • convalescence
119
Q

The disease process occurs

A

Following infection

120
Q

What are the stages of infectious disease?

A
  1. Incubation period
  2. Prodromal period
  3. Illness
  4. Decline
  5. Convalescence
121
Q

Are there any signs and symptoms during the Incubation period?

A

No.

122
Q

How do Pathogens leave hosts?

A

Pathogens often leave hosts in materials the body secretes or excretes.

123
Q

Where is transmission from Infectious Disease?

A

Transmission is from a reservoir or a portal of exit to another host’s portal of entry.

124
Q

What are the three groups of transmission?

A
  1. Contact transmission
  2. Vehicle transmission
  3. Vector transmission
125
Q

What are FIVE ways to classify Infectious Diseases?

A
  1. The Body System they affect
  2. Taxonomic Categories
  3. Their longevity and severity
  4. How they are spread to their host
  5. The effects they have on populations and not individuals
126
Q

What are SIX terms used to classify Infectious Disease?

A 
Acute Disease
Chronic Disease
Subacute Disease
Latent Disease
Communicable
Contagious
127
Q

What are SIX terms used to classify Infectious Disease?

A 
Acute Disease
Chronic Disease
Subacute Disease
Latent Disease
Communicable
Contagious
128
Q

Definition of Epidemiology

A

The study of where and when diseases occur, and how they are transmitted.

129
Q

Definition of Infection

A

Presence of microbe

130
Q

Definition of Disease

A

Symptomatic consequence of infection

131
Q

What is FREQUENCY OF DISEASE?

A

Track occurrence of diseases using two measures. Occurrence also evaluated in terms of frequency and geographic distribution.

132
Q

Number of new cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

A

Incidence

133
Q

Number of total cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time.

A

Prevalence

134
Q

What is Descriptive epidemiology?

A
  • Careful tabulation of data concerning a disease.
  • Record location and time of the cases of disease.
  • Collect patient information.
  • Try to identify the index case (or first case) of the disease.
135
Q

What is Analytical epidemiology?

A
  1. Seeks to determine the probable cause (etiology), mode of transmission, and methods of prevention.
  2. Useful in situations when Koch’s postulates can’t be applied.
  3. Often retrospective
  4. Investigation occurs after an outbreak has occurred.
136
Q

Experimental epidemiology

A
  • Involves testing a hypothesis concerning the cause of a disease.
  • Application of Koch’s postulates is experimental epidemiology.
137
Q

What are Nosocomial infections?

A

Infections which are acquired in a hospital (or doctor’s office).

138
Q

What are types of Nosocomial infections?

A
  • Exogenous
  • Endogenous
  • Iatrogenic (caused by a doctor or nurse)
139
Q

The interplay of factors that result in nosocomial infections.

A

Presence of microorganisms in hospital environment, immunocompromised patients, transmission of pathogens between and among patients = causes NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION

140
Q

How do we control Nosocomial infections?

A
  • Precautions designed to reduce factors that result in disease.
  • Hand washing is the most effective way to reduce nosocomial infections.
141
Q

What does The United States Public Health Service and World Health Organization (WHO) do?

A

Agencies at the local, state, national, and global level share information concerning disease.

142
Q

How do public health agencies work to limit disease transmission?

A
  • Monitor water and food safety.

- Public health agencies campaign to educate the public on healthful choices to limit disease.

143
Q

What is antisepsis?

A

Reduction in the number of microorganisms and viruses, particularly on living tissue.

144
Q

What is one example of an antiseptic?

A

Alcohol

145
Q

What is aseptic?

A

Refers to an environment or procedure free of pathogenic contaminants.

146
Q

What do the suffixes –cide and –cidal mean?

A

Destruction of a type of microbe.

147
Q

What is degerming?

A

Removal of microbes by mechanical means.

148
Q

What is disinfection?

A

Destruction of most microorganisms and viruses on nonliving tissue.

149
Q

What is pasteurization?

A

Use of heat to destroy pathogens and reduce the number of spoilage microorganisms in foods and beverages.

150
Q

What is sanitation?

A

Removal of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards.

151
Q

What do the suffixes –stasis and –static mean?

A

Inhibition, but not complete destruction, of a type of microbe.

152
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Destruction of all microorganisms or viruses in or on an object.

Micro Lecture Unit 2 (4 decks)

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