Epidemiology, Infections and Communicable Disease Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

What is the latency period?

A

replication before shedding

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2
Q

What is the interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of S/S of disease?

A

incubation period

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3
Q

What is the interval during which an infectious agent may be transferred?

A

communicable period, usually starts before start of S/S

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4
Q

What is the incubation and communicable period for chicken pox?

A
  • 2-3 wks

- 1-2 days before development of a rash, until lesions crust over (appx. 5 days)

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5
Q

Signs of a localized infection?

A

inflammation, redness, warmth, selling, pain/tenderness, loss of function, drainage, cellulitis

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6
Q

Signs of generalized infection?

A

weakness, HA, malaise, fever, increases pulse, hyhpotension

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7
Q

When are neutrophil counts increased?

A

in most bacterial infections

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8
Q

Increased eosinophils are indicative of what?

A

an allergic reaction

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9
Q

Lymphocytes are increased in which diseases?

A

chickenpox, mumps, measles, mono, viral hepatitis (viruses)

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10
Q

When will Monocytes be increased?

A

TB and in the convalescent phase of acute infections

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11
Q

What does the term “shift to the left” indicate?

A

active infection with an increased number of immature neutrophils

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12
Q

What is C-Reactive Protein an indicator of?

A

inflammation

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13
Q

Sedimentation rate is a marker of what?

A

inflammation and infection

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14
Q

What is it called when a disease or condition is regularly found in a particular area/population?

A

an endemic

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15
Q

What is a secular pattern of disease?

A

long-term patterns, greater than 10 yrs

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16
Q

What is a point epidemic?

A

time and space related event (ex. food poisoning at a picnic)

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17
Q

What is a cyclical pattern of disease?

A

seasonal fluctuations (flu/cold)

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18
Q

People having reactions to the same vaccine at different places and at different times is an example of what type of disease pattern?

A

Event-related cluster

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19
Q

What factors make up the epidemiologic triangle?

A

Host, Agent, environment

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20
Q

Definition of “agents” of disease?

A

causes of the disease (bacteria, poison, cholesterol)

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21
Q

What is a prevalence rate?

A

number of all cases of a specific disease at a given point in time

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22
Q

What is an incidence rate?

A

number of new cases in a population in a specified period of time

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23
Q

How to calculate the incidence rate?

A

(new cases at a specified period in time/total population at risk) x factor (1, 10, 100…)

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24
Q

How to calculate the prevalence rate?

A

(existing cases at a specified period in time/totoal population at risk) x a factor (10, 100….)

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25
What is an attack rate?
proportion of persons exposed to an agent and who develop the disease
26
How to calculate the attack rate?
- (number of cases/ total population exposed) x 100 | - is listed as a percentage
27
What is the term for the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group versus the control (non-exposed) group?
relative risk (RR)
28
How to calculate the relative risk?
RR = incidence of disease in exposed population/incidence of disease in non-exposed or control population
29
What are the stages of the natural history of disease?
1) pre-exposure (risk factors present for disease) 2) pre-pathogenesis or preclinical stage (exposure to causative agent) 3) pathogenesis (disease is present) 4) resolution (problem resolved)
30
Stages of HIV?
1) primary infection (< 1 month) 2) clinical latency (no symptoms) 3) symptomatic disease (AIDs)
31
What is the definition of sensitivity in a screening test?
quentifies ho accurately the test identifies those WITH the condition or trait (true positives)
32
What is the definition of specificity in a screening test?
indicates how accurately the test identifies those WITHOUT the condition or trait (true negatives)
33
How is the validity of a screening test measured?
by specificity and sensitivity
34
What is Latency in disease development?
replication before shedding
35
What is the interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms?
incubation period
36
What is the interval during which an infectious agent may be transferred?
communicable period - usually starts before s/s present
37
Which WBC is increased in most bacterial infections?
neutrophils
38
Which WBC is increased during an allergic reaction?
eosinophils
39
A patient presents with a viral infection, which WBC would you expect to increase in number?
lymphocytes
40
The term for an infectious agents ability to produce an immune response?
antigenicity
41
What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?
Pathogenicity Is the microbes ability to cause disease and virulence refers to the severity of the disease
42
TB stats: 1) infectivity 2) pathogenicity 3) virulence
1) low 2) low 3) high
43
Routes of horizontal transmission of disease?
1) direct/indirect 2) common vehicle (water, food) 3) airborne 4) vectorborne
44
What is a fomite?
an inanimate object that is able to carry infectious agents (clothes, toys)
45
Transmission-based Precautions - Airborne?
used with pathogens smaller than 5 microns & droplets or dust particles suspended in air; private room with monitored negative air pressure; door closed; mask for transport; wear N-95 HEPA filter or fit-test respirator mask
46
Transmission-based Precautions - dropplet?
used with pathogens transmitted by infectious droplets; droplets larger than 5 microns; private room, can leave door open; mask for transport
47
Airborn precautions used for which diseases?
measles (rubeola), TB, Varicella, shingles
48
Dropplet precautions used for which disease?
diphtheria, pneumonia, meningitis, rubella, mumps, pertussis
49
Transmission-based Precautions - Contact?
needed with physical skin-to-skin contact; private room; clean, non-sterile gloves and gown (remove before leaving pt. room), dedicated equipment
50
Transmission-based Precautions - Neutropenic?
to prevent infection among clients with immunosuppression
51
Contact precautions used for which diseases?
MRSA, herpes, clostridium difficile, RSV, pediculosis, scabies, excess wound drainage, fecal incontinence, rotavirus, Hep A
52
Passive vs Active immunity?
passive is given to the patient (mom to baby), active is produce by the patients own body
53
The bacterium Yersinia pestis is resonsible for causing what disease?
plague
54
Recommended routine childhood immunization schedule in U.S.
Hepatitis B, diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis, Streptococcus pneumoniae-related illnesses, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, rotavirus, Hepatitis A, influenza, HPV and meningococcal disease
55
Overall contraindications to immunizations:
- Severe febrile illness - Live viruses should not be given to anyone with altered immune system - Previous allergic response to vaccine - Recently acquired passive immunity i.e. blood transfusion, immunoglobulin
56
an acute, highly contagious disease with symptoms of high fever, sneezing and coughing, conjunctivitis, small white spots on the inside of the cheek (Koplik’s spots), red, blotchy rash
measles
57
- a virus that causes a mild febrile disease with enlarged lymph nodes and a fine, pink rash that is often difficult to distinguish from measles or scarlet fever
Rubella (german measles)
58
How is pertussis transmitted?
airborne droplets
59
a bacterial disease characterized by sudden onset (within 48 hours) of headache, abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, sometimes vomiting, and almost always fever; dehydration may be severe
salmonellosis
60
What is the most common waterborne viral agent?
Hep A
61
Waterborne bacterial diseases?
are cholera, typhoid fever, and bacillary dysentery
62
Clinical signs of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever?
sudden onset of moderate to high fever, severe headaches, chills, deep muscle pain, and malaise
63
What is the most common vectorborne disease in the U.S.
lyme disease
64
What is the characteristic sign of lyme disease?
bull’s eye skin lesion
65
Stages of Lyme disease?
1) responds to tetracycline or PCN 2) skin lesions,HA, neuro changes 3) arthritis or arthralgia
66
What is Zoonosis?
an infection transmitted under natural conditions from a vertebrate animal to a human
67
Examples of zoonotic diseases?
West Nile virus, monkey pox, hantavirus, mad cow, rabies
68
1st AIDs case was identified in what year?
1981
69
Common symptoms of TB?
Cough, fever, chills, fatigue, hemoptysis, chest pain, weight loss, night sweats, loss of appetite
70
TB is more common in which ethnic groups?
Asian and Hispanic/Latino groups
71
How many casualties are needed for a mass casualty and multiple casualty classifications?
- 100 or greater | - 2-99
72
Characteristics of Disasters?
- frequency, or how often - predictability - preventability - Imminence or speed of onset - Scope or geographic area affected and number of casualties - Intensity or level of destruction
73
Components of the Disaster Management Cycle?
prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response and recovery
74
How often is the National Health Security Strategy (NHSS) revised?
q 4 yrs
75
What is the National Incident Management System (NIMS)?
the nations' common platform form disaster response
76
What does the acronym "START" stand for in a triage situation?
Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment
77
What do the following colors mean in a disaster triage situation: 1) green 2) yellow 3) red 4) black
1) minor (ambulatory) 2) delayed 3) immediate 4) expectant
78
What are the criteria for an immediate (red) classification during triage?
- RPM-30-2-Can Do | Resp (30 > RR), Perfusion (cap refill > 2 secs), Mental Status (can't follow commands)
79
Stages of Community Reactions?
1) heroic 2) honeymoon phase 3) disillusionment 4) reconstruction
80
When people notice help may not be coming and begin to despair characteristic of which community reaction stage?
disillusionment
81
What is the honeymoon phase following a disater?
people rejoice becasue they have survived
82
During a flood, Chuck sees a child struggling to hold on to a fallen tree and may drown. He jumps in and saves the child. Which community reaction is chuck displaying?
heroic
83
What ist hardest part of a disaster?
recovery
84
What is therole of public health nursing in disaster recover?
- ongoing community assessments - comunity resilience - pyschosocial support