Epilepsy Symposium Flashcards

1
Q

What is epilepsy?

A
  • a recurring unprovoked (spontaneous) seizures
  • acute symptomatic seizures are provoked by acute insults such as
    • stroke, infection, alcohol withdrawal, or a metabolic disturbance
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2
Q

What types of seizures are there?

A
  • Primary generalized onset: electrical discharges appear to start over the whole brain at the same time on EEG
  • Partial/focal onset: electrical discharge appears to start in one cortical region and then may remain localized or may spread over the whole brain - secondary generalized
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3
Q

What are the classifications of Idiopathic (Primary) Generalized seizures?

A
  • Limited repertoire of seizures
  • Tonic-clonic seizures (“grand mal”)
  • Absences (“petit mal”)
  • Tonic seizures
  • Atonic seizures
  • Myoclonic seizures
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4
Q

Give an overview of what Idiopathic Generalized Seizures are?

A
  • Onset in childhood or adolescence
  • Usually no focal symptoms/signs
  • Often a number of seizure types cluster
  • A polygenic cause is presumed with no identifiable structural lesion on imaging
  • Generalized (all leads) spike and wave discharges on EEG may be induced by hyperventilation, and on photosensitivity testing
  • Provoked by sleep deprivation
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5
Q

What is Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME? - give an overview

A
  • Commonest form of primary generalized epilepsy 3-12% all epilepsy
  • Juvenile onset, probably lifelong
  • Early morning myoclonic jerks (ask)
  • Photosensitive, sleep deprivation triggers
  • +/- absences
  • generalized tonic-clonic seizures – occur without warning
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6
Q

Give an overview of the presentation of Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizures “grand mal”

A
  • sudden onset without warning in primary generalised epilepsy
  • Tonic phase
    • continuous muscle spasm, fall, cyanosis, tongue biting, incontinence
  • Clonic phase
    • rhythmic jerking slows and gets larger in amplitude as the attack progresses
    • Ends; the duration is typically 1-3 minutes
  • Post-ictal (post-seizure) phase
    • coma, drowsiness, confusion, headache
    • muscle aching
    • red/blue, wakes in ambulance/A&E
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7
Q

Give an overview of Absences “petit mal”

A
  • Abrupt, short, 5-20 seconds
  • Multiple times/day, can lead to learning difficulties
  • Unresponsive, amnesia for the gap, rapid recovery
  • Tone preserved (or mildly reduced)
  • If absences only, tend to remit in adulthood (childhood absence epilepsy)
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8
Q

What ways are there Focal Onset Seizure?

A
  • a simple partial seizure where the patient is aware (used to be an aura)
    • focal seizure with awareness
  • a complex partial seizure- aura/warning with a level of reduced awareness
    • focal seizure with reduced awareness
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9
Q

Where d partial seizures frequently present themselves in the lobe?

A
  • Temporal lobe - 70%
  • Frontal lobe - 25%
  • Occipital lobe - 4%
  • Parietal lobe - 1%
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10
Q

Give temporal lobe seizures by aetiology

A
  • Hippocampal sclerosis: 50%
    • have a history of febrile convulsion
  • Tumour: 18%
  • Birth Hypoxia: 10%
  • Vascular: 10%
  • Post Traumatic: 8%
  • Other: 4%
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11
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of temporal lobe epilepsy?

A
  • hallucinations of taste, speech and /or smell, visual distortion; memory déjà vu and jamais vu
  • epigastric rising sensation (over humpback bridge)
  • fear, elation, low mood
  • pallor/ flushing/ heart rate changes (can mimic panic/hyperventilation attacks)
  • automatisms- semi-purposeful limb movements
  • Oral automatisms- lip-smacking, chewing movements
  • dystonic posturing (limb rises)
  • speech disturbance (dominant hemisphere onset) last 1-3 minutes typically
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12
Q

What are the symptoms of a frontal lobe seizure?

A
  • brief 10-30 seconds, rapid recovery, frequent
  • predominantly nocturnal
  • forced head /eye deviation to the contralateral side
  • motor activity often bizarre, thrashing
  • often misdiagnosed as non-epileptic
  • ictal EEG (during the seizure) is often normal
  • Jacksonian spread with Todd’s paresis
  • automatisms, dystonic posturing for example
  • a fencing posture (overlap TLE)
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13
Q

What are Parietal lobe epilepsy symptoms?

A
  • positive sensory symptoms (unlike TIA/stroke)
  • tingling, pain
  • distortion of body shape/image
  • Jacksonian march of positive sensory symptoms
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14
Q

What are Occipital lobe epilepsy symptoms?

A
  • typically simple visual hallucinations -balls of coloured or flashing lights
  • amaurosis (blackout or whiteout) at onset -25%
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15
Q

What anti-epileptic drugs make myoclonic jerks and absences worse?

A
  • Phenytoin
    • treats tonic-clonic seizures
    • safe to use in status epilepticus (when a seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or are close together)
  • Carbamazepine,
  • Gabapentin,
  • Pregabalin
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16
Q

Which type of seizure patient would you give a scan to?

A
  • Jacksonian motor or sensory seizures
  • Patients with focal neurological deficit (including a temporary unilateral Todds paresis)
  • Alcohol withdrawal seizure; only scan if subdural haematoma suspected fall, hit head, found on the floor, bruising on head
17
Q

What is the physiological representation of Epilepsy?

A
  • Epilepsy represents a hyperexcitation or a failure of inhibitory regulation, either focally (e.g. motor cortex, temporal cortex) or generally (whole cortex at once)
18
Q

How are epileptic episodes physiological caused?

A
  • Na+ channel inactivation too slow in excitatory neurons
  • Reduced number of functional Na+ channels in inhibitory neurons
  • Reduced number of functional K+ channels in excitatory neurons
  • Mutated ion channels: voltage-gated and ligand-gated ion channels
19
Q

How do Na+ channel dysfunctions lead to epilepsy?

A

Na+ channel inactivation too slow in excitatory neurons

  • e.g., generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+)
  • a point mutation in part of Na+ channel (β subunit) –> abnormally slow inactivation
    • action potential repolarization impaired

Reduced number of functional Na+ channels in inhibitory neurons

  • e.g., generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+)
  • missense mutations or truncated protein results in reduction or loss of Na+ channel function
    • action potential generation impaired
20
Q

How do K+ channelopathies lead to epilepsy?

A

Reduced number of functional K+ channels in excitatory neurons

  • e.g., benign familial neonatal convulsions
  • defect in KCNQ2 or KCNQ3 K+ channel subunit –> impaired activation
    • action potential repolarization impaired
21
Q

Explain the development of Focal (partial) seizures

A
  • synchronized ‘paroxysmal depolarizing shift’ (PDS, 20 to 40 mV, lasting 50 to 200 ms) overcomes inhibition
  • increased extracellular K+ due to neuronal damage or reduced uptake by the astrocytes as well as glutamate release from neurons or astrocytes contribute to PDS
  • during the PDS trains of action, potentials occur
  • hippocampal neurons have similar responses under normal conditions, making the hippocampus more prone to seizures than the neocortex
  • Focal seizures may spread to other brain regions along the normal neuronal pathways and may also show secondary generalization if the activity spreads to the thalamus (tonic clonic seizure)
22
Q

Explain the development of Primary Generalized seizures.

A
  • Primary generalized seizures reach the cerebral cortex via normal neuronal pathways from the thalamus
    • e.g. tonic clonic seizure; absence; juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  • pathways originate in the brainstem and are normally involved in regulating the sleep/wake cycle and arousal of the cerebral cortex
  • Ca2+ channels and inhibitory GABA receptors in thalamic neurons have been implicated in ‘spike and wave’ seizures, showing that inhibition (the wave) is preserved
23
Q

What is the general action of Anti-epileptic drugs?

A
  • work to inhibit Glutamate
    • this is an excitatory molecule in the brain
  • work to increase GABA activity
    • this is an inhibitory molecule in the brain
24
Q

What AEDs work by inhibiting the excitatory process in neurons?

A
  • Phenytoin, Carbama/ Oxcarba-zepine, Eslicarbazepine acetate, Lamotrigine, Lacos/ Zonis-amide
    • inhibits voltage-gated Na+ ion channel
  • Ethosuximide
    • inhibits Ca2++ entry into postsynaptic neuron
  • Retigabine
    • increases excite of K+ from the postsynaptic neuron
  • Perampanel
    • inhibits the AMPA receptor which glutamate binds to and allows NA+ into the postsynaptic neuron
25
Q

What AEDs work by increasing the activity of the inhibitory process in neurons?

A
  • Levetiracetam
    • increases activity of SV2A- regulates action potential-dependent neurotransmitter release
  • Retigabine
    • increases the activity of KCNQ K+ channels in the pre and postsynaptic neuron
  • Gabapentin, Pregabalin
    • inhibit alpha-2-beta-subunit of Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic neuron
  • Tiagabine
    • Inhibits GAT-1 in presynaptic neurons and on glial cells
  • Benzodiazepines, Barbiturates
    • increases activity of GABAA more Cl- moved into the postsynaptic neuron
26
Q

Perampanel as an AED

A
  • non-competitive blockade of AMPA glutamate receptor
  • release of glutamate cannot overcome the block
  • reduce spread/generalisation of seizure
  • can also affect behaviour and mood
27
Q

What role or lack thereof does GABA play in the occurrence of a full-blown seizure?

A
  • Focal epilepsy characterised by intermittent high amplitude discharges at site of epileptic focus during inter-ictal (seizure) periods.
  • Two phases:
    • synchronous depolarisation (caused by strong excitatory inputs to the region of the focus),
    • followed by a period of hyperpolarisation, (activation of GABA inhibition)
  • Transition from inter-ictal discharges to full-blown seizure is a decrease in the hyper-polarisation phase
    • failure of inhibition to kick in, therefore treating with GABA stimulants helps control the seizure
28
Q

What drugs enhance GABA-ergic synaptic transmission?

A
  • sodium valproate (sodium channels)
  • benzodiazepines (clobazam, lorazepam)
  • barbiturates/ primidone pro drug
  • tiagabine (inhibits GABA re-uptake)
  • vigabatrin (inhibits GABA –T breakdown)
29
Q

What is Levetiractem?

A
  • high-affinity synaptic vesicle protein-2A ligand that modulates glutamate neurotransmitter release
  • rapidly up titrated and is effective
  • IV formulation; no drug-drug interactions
  • keeps patients alert but causes mood lowering/agitation side-effects
  • brivaracetam second-generation version
30
Q

What drugs would be suitable for Primary Generalized Epilepsy?

A

First line

  • Sodium valproate
  • Lamotrigine

Second line

  • levetiracetam, topiramate, zonisamide, benzodiazepines
31
Q

What drugs would be suitable for Partial (focal onset) epilepsy?

A

First line

  • Carbamazepine
  • Lamotrigine
  • all other AEDs have efficacy
32
Q

Go over the toxicity effects of Benzodiazepines

A

Dose related (acute)

  • Drowsiness
  • Ataxia
  • Hyperactivity
  • cognitive impairment

Long term

  • Tolerance/ Dependence
33
Q

Go over the toxicity effects of Phenytoin

A

Dose-related (acute)

  • Ataxia
  • Diplopia
  • Nystagmus

Long-term

  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Osteomalacia
  • Cerebellar atrophy
34
Q

Go over the toxicity effects of Sodium Valproate

A

Dose-related (acute)

  • Sedation
  • Tremor

Long-term

  • Hair thinning
  • Weight gain
  • Menstrual irregularities
  • Encephalopathy
  • Parkinsonism

(is an enzyme inhibitor)