EPME Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ESO
2
Q
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
A
Registrar Services for degree entry and JST updates, course support testing, for qualification
testing,and ESO designation/Relief and TA and TA matters and grant applications.
3
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
A
COMDTINST 1540.10 /COAST GUARD VOLUNTARY CREDENTIALING PROGRAM (VCP)
4
Q
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
A
5
Q
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
A
ETQC - VolED Service Page (uscg.mil)
6
Q
The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the
A
Forever GI Bill
7
Q
Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly
housing allowance based on DoD's Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with
dependents.
A
E-5 with dependents
8
Q
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.
A
36 months
9
Q
The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
A
Post 9/11 GI Bill (Ch 33); Montgomery GI Bill (Ch 30); Selective Reserve GI Bill (Ch 1606); Veterans
Readiness and Employment; Dependents Educational Assistance (DEA).
10
Q
Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill
benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.
A
80%
11
Q
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
A
TA is authorized for Active Duty military and if funded in the FY21 Coast Guard appropriation, Reserve
members affiliated with the Selected Reserve(SELRES). In accordance with REF (B), members of SELRES
must be drilling reservists with satisfactory progress in the current anniversary year and have met the
participation standards for the previous anniversary year. TA the first certificate, Associate, Bachelor,
and Master’s degree.
12
Q
One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability,
dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
A
Advanced Education
13
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced
Education program?
A
Apply to Advanced Education Program Manager approved educational institution(s) (Note: Only
schools with a DoD MOU will be acceptable). b. Gain acceptance to the educational institution and the specific degree program. c. Complete necessary prerequisites and route forms. d. Act as Coast Guard
liaison to the institution with regard to their attendance. e. Liaise with the educational institution’s
Military Advocate. f. Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements. g. Carry a full credit hour load, year
round, at the respective educational institution. h. Maintain academic proficiency throughout the program.
i. Complete program of study’s requirements in the allotted time. j. Maintain Military/Coast Guard
requirements and standards.
14
Q
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
ESO or RKM? IDK couldn’t find it.
15
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
Treat all firearms as if they are loaded; Always maintain proper muzzle control; Keep finger off the
trigger until on target and ready to shoot. Know your target and what is beyond it.
16
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
A
Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class “A” course
17
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
A
Six months in pay grade E-3
18
Q
The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.
A
Armed Forces Classification Test (AFCT)
19
Q
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving
an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of
good conduct prior to being advanced?
A
6 Months
20
Q
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
A
A: Diver (DV); Investigator (IV)
21
Q
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
A
A: announced by ALCOAST message as ratings are opened or closed for striking.
22
Q
Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
A
A: Enclosure (3) to COMDTINST M1500.10C
23
Q
Which stress management term is defined as Bad stress?
A
A: Distress
24
Q
"Good" stress is related to which stress management term?
A
A: Eustress
25
Which term is defined as "the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what
you feel after you encounter a stressor.
A: Stress
26
What are stressors?
A: The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)
A: The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)
27
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
A: Stressmap
28
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
A: Stress: The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
29
The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
A: Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
30
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
A: Operational Stress Control
31
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
A: If you are unable to contact the Health Promotion Manager on your Regional Work-Life Staff, or need additional assistance beyond the information provided here, please contact the Headquarters Health Promotions Program Manager, Tim Merrell at (202) 475-5146, fax (202) 475-5907, or email at Timothy.M.Merrell@uscg.mil.
32
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
A: Active Duty members and their dependents Reservists, Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard
33
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
A: Emotional Responses; Cognitive Responses; Behavioral Responses; Physiological Responses; Spiritual Distress Responses
34
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
A: Keep a journal; Download an app that provides relaxation exercises (such as deep breathing or visualization) or tips for practicing mindfulness, which is a psychological process of actively paying attention to the present moment; Exercise, and make sure you are eating healthy, regular meals; Stick to a sleep routine, and make sure you are getting enough sleep; Avoid drinking excess caffeine such as soft drinks or coffee; Identify and challenge your negative and unhelpful thought; Reach out to your friends or family members who help you cope in a positive way.
35
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
A: Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues; Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use; Provide Periodic Prevention Training; Support Commands; Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse; Support Mission Readiness; Align with Other Policy.
36
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low risk option when _____.
A: one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications OR a member has a severe SUD diagnosis
37
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
A: 0,1,2,3
A: 0,1,2,3
38
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov/
39
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
40
What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue; b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options; c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307; d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS; e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials; f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action; g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS; h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.); i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans; j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officer; COMDTINST M6320.5 2-7 k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are: (1) Assigned an aftercare plan; and (2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare. l. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring; m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records; n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during “Alcohol Awareness Month;” and o. Enact and annually review with the unit “Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program”
41
What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?
A: An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.
42
One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.
1.Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues. Help each member and command understand how to approach and handle substance misuse, abuse, and chemical dependence, which are referred to as SUDs; Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use. The SAP Program adopted a risk management model for alcohol consumption. NIAAA established low-risk drinking guidelines. Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use as defined by Commandant (CG-1111) include the 0,1,2,3 model. 3. Provide Periodic Prevention Training. Provide members, cadets, recruits, and commands with prevention training, early problem identification skills, and resources for screening and treatment. 4. Support Commands. Assist commands by providing the tools and procedures to address irresponsible alcohol use. 5. Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse. Support zero tolerance for the intentional and wrongful use of illegal drugs and the wrongful misuse of prescription medication. This also pertains to the wrongful use of any non-controlled substance used with the intent to induce intoxication, excitement, or impairment of the central nervous system. This will also pertain to “substances” used for the purposes of obtaining a “high,” which includes but is not limited to, herbals, gases, aerosols, and manufactured or yet-to-be manufactured designer drugs, such as, spice, bath salts, etc. 6. Support Mission Readiness. Ensure that members are aware of how SUDs interfere with CG mission readiness and a safe work environment. 7. Align with Other Policy.
43
What is the definition of substance abuse?
A: The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
44
What is considered substance abuse?
A: the use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over the counter compounds or any substance that is used to change mood or induce a “high” that causes cognitive, behavioral or physiological impairment problems.
45
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.
A: Harm
46
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
A: Pancreatitis; Heat issues
47
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
A: 19,500
48
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
A: a reason for caution.
49
What is considered binge drinking for men?
A: For a typical adult, this pattern corresponds to consuming 5 or more drinks (male) in about 2 hours
A: For a typical adult, this pattern corresponds to consuming 5 or more drinks (male) in about 2 hours
50
What is considered binge drinking for women?
A: For a typical adult, this pattern corresponds to consuming 4 or more drinks (female) in about 2 hours
51
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08%
52
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
A: binge drinking as a pattern of drinking alcohol that brings blood alcohol concentration (BAC) to 0.08 percent—or 0.08 grams of alcohol per deciliter—or higher
53
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being "sloppy" drunk?
.16 - .20
54
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
A: .30
55
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
A: .40
56
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
A: ∙ Passes out and cannot be awakened ∙ Vomiting while passed out ∙ Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin ∙ Breathing is slow and irregular
57
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.
School problems, such as higher rates of absences or lower grades.
Social problems, such as fighting or lack of participation in youth activities. Legal problems, such as arrest for driving or physically hurting someone while drunk.
Physical problems, such as hangovers or illnesses.
Unwanted, unplanned, and unprotected sexual activity.
Disruption of normal growth or sexual development.
Physical and sexual violence.
Increased risk of suicide and homicide.
Alcohol-related motor vehicle crashes and other unintentional injuries, such as burns, falls, or drowning.
Memory problems.
Misuse of other substances.
Changes in brain development that may have life-long effects.
Alcohol poisoning.
58
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
A: One reason for this is that alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men.
59
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
A: 1.5
60
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
A: 14 grams of pure alcohol (about 0.6 fluid ounces or 1.2 tablespoons).
61
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
A: 5oz
62
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
A: 12oz
63
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.06
64
Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
A: .08
65
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
66
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
A: 180 days
67
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
(1) A request must be made to a Chaplain, Command, CDAR, SAPS, or health care provider. (2) There can be no credible evidence of involvement in an alcohol/drug incident. (3) Members may self-refer for drug abuse; however, self-referral may result in a drug incident determination and administrative actions in accordance with Reference (a). (4) A self-referral for alcohol related issues is not to be punitive (5) A self-referral resulting in a diagnosis (e.g., current version of DSM of Mental Disorders) will result in administrative action if treatment is required and the member refuses, fails, or does not complete it. The member's refusal, failure, or incomplete treatment requires a copy of the referral, screening, and treatment plan be maintained in the member’s health record. The health of the member takes priority over career and advancement. (6) A reservist not in an IDT or ADT status may self-refer. However, a Readiness Management Plan (RMP,) or next scheduled IDT or ADT, whichever occurs sooner, will be used to complete the initial meeting that may be required by the command. An additional RMP is allowed for the initial health support screening if it cannot be completed during the initial meeting with the command
68
Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
A: It is CG policy to discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS), unsanitary conditions created by the use of spit tobacco, and the potential addiction to nicotine products. The use of any tobacco product in public detracts from a sharp military appearance and is discouraged. Where conflicts arise between the rights of non-nicotine users and nicotine users, the rights of the non-user will prevail.
69
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
A: No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result.
70
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
A: limit use of substances to the lawful use of alcohol or medical provider-prescribed medication. This encompasses, but is not limited to, the inhalation, injection, consumption, or introduction to the body of any mood altering substance
71
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
A: 1. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes; 2. Wrongful possession of drugs; 3. Trafficking of drugs--distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility; 4. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or overthe-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a "high," contrary to their intended use; or 5. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in civilian court, or be awarded non-judicial punishment for the conduct to be considered a drug incident)
72
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.
A: scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
73
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
A: a. Administrative Action. The command must process the military member for separation by reason of misconduct per Reference (b), Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. Cases requiring Administrative Discharge Boards because of the character of discharge contemplated or because the member has served eight or more total years, must also be processed per Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. b. Disciplinary Action. Military members who commit drug offenses are subject to disciplinary action under the UCMJ in addition to any required administrative discharge action. c. Medical Treatment Eligibility. Military members who are identified as drugdependent or diagnosed with a “drug use disorder-severe,” must be offered treatment prior to discharge. Reference (a), Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual, COMDTINST M6320.5 (series), outlines substance abuse medical referrals, screenings, and action policy. If it is determined that treatment is needed and accepted, the member must be discharged from the Service upon completion. Members who are diagnosed as drug/chemical dependent but refuse treatment are required to sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry acknowledging that they may waive the right to benefits for chemical dependency treatment under the Department of Veterans Affairs Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)
74
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
: Suicide
75
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
A: Self harm
76
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
77
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
A: Suicide attempt
78
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
A: Level 1
79
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
A: Level 2
80
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
A: Level 3
81
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1
82
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
An incident of self-harm
83
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
A: Suicide-Related Ideations
84
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Death
85
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Suicide Related Behaviors
86
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
suicidal ideations
87
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
episode of suicidal thinking
88
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide plan, suicide-related ideations, suicide threat.
89
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide plan
90
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide plan
91
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
I
IDEATION
Thoughts of suicide expressed, threatened, or written
SUBSTANCE USE
Increased or excessive alcohol or drug use.
PURPOSELESSNESS
Seeing no reason for living or having no sense of meaning or purpose of life.
ANXIETY
Feeling anxious, agitated, frequent nightmares, or unable to sleep (or sleeping all the time).
TRAPPED
Feeling trapped, like there is no way out.
HOPELESSNESS
Feeling hopeless about self, others, the future.
WITHDRAWAL
Withdrawing from family, friends, usual activities, society.
ANGER
Feeling rage or uncontrolled anger, seeking revenge for perceived wrongs.
RECKLESSNESS
Acting without regard for consequences, excessively risky behavior.
MOOD CHANGES
Experiencing dramatic changes in mood. Unstable mood.
92
What is a mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM
93
_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Ask
94
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
You made a comment about ending your life that concerns me
You made a comment about ending your life that concerns me
95
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE
96
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
ASK
97
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
CARE
98
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
CARE
99
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
CARE
100
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
CARE
101
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
CARE
102
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
CARE
103
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
104
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
105
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
If the person attempts to make a joke of the question or gives other indications of attempting to deflect the question, hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.
If the person attempts to make a joke of the question or gives other indications of attempting to deflect the question, hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.
106
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it?
(b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking?
(c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?
107
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
1-800-273-TALK (8255)
108
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?
IUD
109
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Implant, Vasectomy, Tubal occlusion, and IUD.
110
STDs can be passed from one person to another _____, though this is not very common.
through intimate physical contact like heavy petting
111
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
Human Papillomavirus HPV
