EPME Flashcards
(258 cards)
1
Q
Where should Coast guard voluntary education services inquiries to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil - The SMB
2
Q
Registrar services
A
3
Q
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
A
JST
4
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program? 
A
COMDINST 1540.10 - Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program
5
Q
Where are tuition assistance waiver submitted for final review?
A
The ESO will forward the waiver package to ETQC for final review and approval
6
Q
Where can I link to the ASVAB ACT waiver request guide be found?
A
Voluntary education service portal page > bottom of page > under course support and testing links
7
Q
In which of the following cases is tuition assistance authorized for?
A
Authorized for courses leading to the first certificate, associate, bachelor, and masters degree
8
Q
The Harry W Colmery veterans educational assistance. Act is also known as the what?
A
Forever G.I. Bill
9
Q
Under the post 911 G.I. bill, a veteran enrolled it more than 1/2 time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DOD‘s basic allowance for housing rate for a _____with dependents
A
E-5
10
Q
The Montgomery, G.I. bill active duty provides up to how many months of education benefits?
A
36
11
Q
The G.I. bill comparison tool offers information based on which of the following G.I. bill benefits?
A
Tuition and housing benefits
12
Q
Veterans in their second six months of OTJ and apprenticeship training programs may use their G.I. bill benefits to receive ______ of the applicable monthly housing stipend?
A
80%
13
Q
One purpose of the ______ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication in the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard
A
Advanced education
14
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the advanced education program?
A
Maintain military and Coast Guard requirements and standards
15
Q
Who acts as the subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
Education services Officer (ESO)
16
Q
What are the four firearm safety rules?
A
Treat all firearms as if they are loaded, always maintain proper muzzle, control, keep finger off the trigger till on target and ready to shoot, know your target and what is beyond it.
17
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E3?
A
Six months in pay grade E2 or satisfactory completion of class “A” course
18
Q
The _______ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests
A
AFCT
19
Q
Class “A” course graduates who had their advancement to E4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving UNSAT conduct while attending a class “A” course are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being in advanced?
A
Six months
20
Q
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E3 to E4?
A
Investigator rating or diver rating
21
Q
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
A
Ratings open to striking change based on service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message as ratings are opened or closed for striking
22
Q
Where are a school rating requirements listed?
A
COMDTINST M1500.10C
23
Q
Which stress management term is defined as bad stress?
A
Distress
24
Q
Good stress is related to which stress management term?
A
Good stress, perceived as positive and associated with a sense of control
25
Which term is defined as the nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?
Stress
26
What are stressors?
The causes of stress
27
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?
Stress map: a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load
28
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard stress management program as what?
The nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it, or what you feel after you encounter a stressor
29
The services provided by the ______ are available for professional assistance with stress management
Employee assistance program coordinator EAPC
30
Which stress management, awareness, and skills training for Munson, understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress. Navigation tools to build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?
Operational stress control
31
How can you contact the employee assistance program?
1855CGSUPRT or www.cgsuprt.com
32
Who is eligible for the office of work life stress management program?
Active duty and dependents, reservists, civilian employees
33
Identify a signal of distress, which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents
Spiritual distress, physiological, behavioral, cognitive, emotional
34
The national Institute of mental health in NIMH offers, which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Be observant, recognize signs of your bodies response to stress.
Talk to your healthcare provider or a health professional to get proper healthcare.
Get regular exercise.
Try a relaxing activity.
Set goals and priorities.
Stay connected and keep in touch of people who can provide emotional support and practical help .
Consider a clinical trial .
35
Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program?
1. Raise awareness of substance abuse issues.
2. Encourage teach and support low risk guidelines for alcohol use
3. Provide periodic prevention training.
4. Support commands.
5. Outline zero tolerance for drug and substance misuse and abuse.
6. Support mission readiness
7. Align with other policy.
36
37
The national Institute of alcohol, abuse and alcoholism low risk guidelines Suggest that zero drinks is a low risk option when_____
Driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
38
Where can you find additional clarification on low risk drinking guidelines?
https://www.rethinkingdrinking.nia.nih.gov/
39
Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program
Provide direction, oversight, and supervision of SAPS’s
Advise commands on the availability of education, treatment, rehabilitation resources, and procedures to obtain them
Process all requests self command and incident, referrals for drug and alcohol rehabilitation
Approved selection of the medical screening provider
Oversee implementation and maintenance of support and aftercare plans
Liaison with unit commanding officers, other military services, state and federal programs and local civilian treatment facilities as appropriate
Established track and maintain PQS for SAPS
Complete annual health insurance portability, and accountability act training related to substance abuse patient records
Ensure SAPS complete an annual HIPAA training
Participate in headquarters, sponsored teleconference, meetings, and work groups related to SAP program
Assigned each SAPS an area of responsibility with oversight for CDAR assigned to that area of responsibility
Supervise field operation of the electronic data collection system as designated by commandant
Provide quality assurance, standards, and oversight to the SAPs
Over CSAPS compliance with all applicable policies and procedures
Establish and maintain collaborative and effective communication pathways
Informed the SAM of all issues affect affecting program implementation
Produce reports for CG 1111
Advocate for the needs of the SAPS in the SAP program she
40
What is one responsibility of a command drug and alcohol representative CDAR?
Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of commanding officer notification of a potential substance related abuse issue
Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command
Collaborate with SAPS to prepare the appropriate administrative remarks CG3307
Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training
Prepare in prominently, display prevention awareness, materials
Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance, abuse, screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans
Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment
Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment
Collaborate with the APS to develop support and aftercare plans
Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the commanding officer
Provide updates to the SAPS for all members involved
Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records
Provide substance abuse, prevention training, minimally, one time per year
And act and annually review with the unit seven steps to an effective command prevention program
41
What is the definition of substance abuse?
Substance abuse, which includes the abuse or dependents on alcohol or drugs, as a brain disease. Substance abuse, independency are on a continuum or constellation of symptoms. Addiction and all of its forms, including gambling, affects, not only the effective member, but also society, family, friends, coworkers, and commands
42
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over-the-counter compounds, or any substance that is used to change the mood or induce a high that causes cognitive behavioral or physiological impairment problems
43
According to the national Institute on alcohol, abuse, and alcoholism, as an individuals, BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases
Harm
44
According to the national Institute of alcohol abuse, drinking too much overtime can raise your risk for cancer, liver disease, and_____?
Heart disease: Cardiomyopathy, Arrhythmias, Stroke, High blood pressure
Steatosis
Alcoholic hepatitis
Fibrosis
Cirrhosis
45
46
According to the national Institute on alcohol, abuse and alcoholism, more than _______ people die from alcohol related causes of the United States each year
95,000
47
Being able to hold your liquor or having a high tolerance for alcohol is____
Not protection from alcohol problems, but instead of reason for caution. An increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder.
48
What is considered binge drinking for men?
Five drinks for men in about two hours
49
What is considered binge drinking for women?
Four drinks for women in about two hours
50
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08 or higher
51
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
52
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being sloppy drunk?
0.16
53
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.30
54
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.40
55
A sign of alcohol poisoning is_______
Passes out and cannot be awakened
Vomiting while passed out
Cold clammy and/or pale skin
Breathing is slow and irregular
56
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 OZ
57
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a standard drink?
14 grams
58
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 oz
59
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 oz
60
Using the BAC calculator what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consume 3 ounces of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.05
61
Across the United States, a recorded blood alcohol content test of ____ or higher Alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.08
62
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral
AUD (alcohol use disorder)
63
A member diagnosed with the first ____ days of Coast Guard service as drugs and alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment
180 days
64
Which of the following is required for self referral for potential substance abuse?
A request must be made to a chaplain, command, CDAR, SAPS, or healthcare provider
65
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (within six months), or verified medical use explanation for drugs that would count for the positive analysis result.
66
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample and _______
Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
67
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
Administrative action
Disciplinary action
Medical treatment
68
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit or intent to die?
Suicide
69
What term is defined as self-inflicted potentially dangerous behavior for which there is evidence either in person or explicit that the person did not intend to kill him or herself?
Self harm
70
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there’s evidence either explicit or implicit of intent to die
Suicide attempt
71
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm with no injuries reported as________
Self harm level one
72
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm with injuries reported as_______
Self harm level two
73
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm, resulting in death is reported as_______
Self harm level three
74
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide attempt, resulting an injury is reported as____
Suicide attempt level two
75
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide attempt, resulting in no injury is reported as______
Suicide attempt level one
76
What would be the cause to report a self harm level three in the suicide prevention program?
Death
77
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide related behavior?
Suicide related ideations
78
What term is defined as self-inflicted, potentially injurous behavior, intent unknown?
Undetermined suicide related behavior
79
Dismissing ______as manipulation is one of the shortest ways to increase suicide risk
Suicidal ideation
80
And one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _________at some point in their lives
Episode of suicidal thinking
81
What are any impersonal acts of importing, conveying or transmitting suicide related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide related communications
82
What type of suicide related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide related behavior?
Suicide plan
83
What type of suicide related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide related behaviors?
Suicide plan
84
Which of the following is part of the pneumonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associate with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM
Ideation
Substance use
Purposefulness
Anxiety
Trapped
Hopeless
Withdrawal
Anger
Recklessness
Mood changes 
85
What pneumonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE
Ask
Care
Escort
86
During which step of suicide prevention may the at risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
87
During the ______step of suicide prevention, you should actively listen
Care
88
During which step of suicide prevention is an important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
89
During which step of suicide prevention, should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
90
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
91
During which step in suicide prevention, will you adopt an attitude that you were going to help the person and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
92
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room HCP or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
93
If you ask a person, are you thinking about killing yourself and they make a joke of the question what should you do?
Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious
94
If a person indicates he or she has thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
How-does he or she have a plan?
Situation -is he or she alone?
History -prior attempts
95
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Coast Guard employee assistance program coordinator
The national suicide prevention lifeline
Employee assistance program 24/7 Phone Center
http://www.uscg.mil/ work life /suicide prevention
Local Coast Guard medical clinic
Healthcare provider
Unit independent duty health services technician
Hospital emergency room
Coast Guard, Chaplin
96
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as an emergency contraceptive?
Copper IUD
97
Which form of birth control is included in tier one for effectiveness
Implant
Vasectomy
Tubal occlusion
IUD
98
STDs can be passed from one person to another _______ ,though this is not very common
Through intimate, physical contact like heavy petting
99
Most people do not have symptoms when they have which STD?
Genital herpes
100
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinence
101
Which personnel are required to develop personal fitness plans?
All Coast Guard active duty and selected reserve members
102
Who do you submit your completed personal fitness plan to?
Supervisor
103
When must your completed personal fitness plan be submitted?
In April and October
104
The most current personal fitness plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by______
Member and supervisor
105
Physical fitness guidelines for General health has set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes of moderate intensity, aerobic activity
106
Physical fitness guidelines for General health as set forth by the CDC include muscle strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week
Two or more days a week
107
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outline in their personal fitness plan and a minimum ______per week
180 minutes
108
Is strongly recommended that the personal fitness plan include ______minutes per week of cardio respiratory activity
150 minutes
109
It is strongly recommended that the personal fitness plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training
30
110
Because the effects of physical activity are accumulative exercise sessions may vary in length with a minimum of ______minutes in order to be beneficial
10 minutes
111
In general physical activity session should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
Three days
112
Physical activity should produce a training effect as measured by a _______level of intensity
Medium to vigorous
113
According to the CDC adult ship performed 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity of what level of intensity?
Moderate intensity
114
What is the form number for the personal fitness plan?
CG – 6049
115
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature involve_____
The acceptance of some level of risk
116
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error induced mishaps if not managed?
Seven critical human factors:
Mission analysis
Leadership
Adaptability
Flexibility
Situational awareness
Decision-making
Communication assertiveness
117
Deliberate use of the risk management process ______by reducing member exposure to hazards
Increase mission success
118
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify or warrant the_______
Expected risk exposure
119
What provides a framework to identify and assessed hazards, evaluate the risk level and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
The risk management process
120
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time critical risk management requirement and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
121
When is risk management most effective?
Risk management is most effective when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate an implement mitigation and controls to reduce risk exposure
122
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the risk management process is________
Continuous and adaptive
123
Where are the steps of risk management described?
“Risk management steps and actions” and “risk management process”
124
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analysis on an as needed basis when new missions and activities are introduced to a unit?
Risk assessment matrix
125
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew endurance
126
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to_______
Address unique operational realities
127
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE (planning, event, complexity, asset, communication, communications, and environment)
STAAR (spread out, transfer, avoid, except, and reduce)
128
_______ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
Risk
129
________ is defined as a process to identify assess control mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operational activity
Risk management
130
How many actions are there in the “assess hazards” step in the risk management process?
Three
131
Which is an action taken during the first step of the risk management process?
Identify hazards (mission analysis, what can go wrong analysis, why analysis)
132
What are captured in the GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE and STAAR
133
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE
134
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?
GAR 2.0
135
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and or control risk?
STAAR
136
Which models were used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command assist decision-making and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR
137
Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR
138
What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personal personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
139
Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit commanders, commanding officers, and officers in charge
140
When are Coast Guard owned motor vehicles authorized to transport, spouses and dependents?
Motor vehicles are authorized to transport, an employee, spouse, and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited, and the employee is participating in an official capacity
141
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a Coast Guard owned motor vehicle?
Official purposes
Ceremonies
Non-Coast Guard employees, in official capacity
Military recruits
Official travel
142
Transportation of a members dependent would be authorized in a Coast Guard owned motor vehicle in which case?
Unofficial function to which the spouse independent were invited, and that employee is participating in an official capacity
143
Only government employees that possess a _______ state, territorial or district of Columbia, drivers license or permit permitted to operate a motor vehicle.
Current and unrestricted
144
To reduce the potential for traffic, mishaps caused by operator fatigue commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when signing long distance driving duties to personnel who have been on duty within the previous_______ hours
8
145
To reduce the potential for traffic mess steps caused by operator fatigue members must not exceed_______ hours of combine duty hours and driving hours
14
146
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle vehicle?
SF 91
147
Personal convicted of a serious moving violation operating a government motor vehicle must_______
Complete a driver improvement course
148
What term is defined as the process or steps involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments for an individual or family?
Personal financial management
149
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances
Personal financial readiness
150
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individuals or families income, expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to what Chief financial goals and ensure individual family and mission readiness?
Financial planning and counseling
151
The personal financial management program PFMP consists of how many elements?
7
Education and training, counseling, information and referral, command, financial specialist program, outreach, collaboration, and coordination, CG support personal financial wellness program
152
Commands with at least_____ personnel assigned, must have a trained command financial specialist
25
153
What is the early withdrawal penalty tax for the thrift saving plan?
10%
154
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down______ categories, based on level of compliance
3
Action required, attention recommended, informational
155
What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?
Update your contact information and Direct Access to include your preferred email address
156
If your personal readiness data in CGBI needs corrections select the_____ icon in the top right corner of the skills tab
Get more information
157
What is a purpose of the EES?
To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members
To inform a list of members of the performance standards
To provide a means by which list of members can receive feedback
To capture a valid reliable assessment of a list of members performance for advancement purposes
To provide the postcard with a total support, a wide variety of human resources decisions, including discharges, reenlistments conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments, and reductions and rate
To provide members of boards and panels with a necessary information to make selections
158
Which of the functions is the evaluation responsibility in the EES?
Familiarization
Performance
Evaluation input
Acknowledgment
Verification
159
A new period of eligibility for the good conduct award begins_____
The day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct Mark was awarded
160
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report____
May not be appealed to an appeal authority
161
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
First flag officer in chain of command
162
What is the definition given in the recruit training master pamphlet for effective communication?
An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group
163
What are the common barriers to effective communication?
-External barriers(physical, ambient noise, distracting movement, language)
-Perpetual barriers (past experience, stereotypes, emotional blocking, social status)
164
How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?
Active listening
Paraphrasing
Clarifying
165
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting
Paraphrasing
Clarifying
166
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Active
Reflective
167
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?
Be specific into the point, express exactly what happened?
168
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?
Try to be open minded and receptive. Don’t be defensive.
169
What is the Coast Guard definition of leadership?
The ability to inspire others to achieve a common goal
170
The Coast Guard leadership development framework consists of_______ categories of leadership and competencies
4
Leading self, leading others, leading performance and change, leading the Coast Guard
171
How do you access and view your payslip?
Employee – view – view my payslips – select specific date
172
What is the Coast Guard definition of leadership?
The ability to inspire others to achieve a common goal
173
The Coast Guard leadership development framework consists of_____ categories of leadership competencies
4
Leading self, leaving others, leading performance change, leading the Coast Guard
174
How do you access and view your payslip?
Employee – view – view my payslips, so select specific date
175
What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits
Dependent date of birth
176
Which block of the pay slip contains a member‘s basic pay
Earnings
177
What information can be found in the tax data section of the pay slip
The marital status and allowances dictate what tax options you selected
178
In which section of your face can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and or allowances
The middle section under earnings
179
Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip
All current in year-to-date wages in taxes are shown that appear on the W-2. A summary is also shown in the net distribution section shows direct deposit info and amount that was actually deposited into your account.
180
What information is found in the net paid distribution block of the payslip
Direct deposit info in the amount those actually deposited
181
Which section of the payslip information unique to each member
Remarks section
182
On board ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception
Except for those render to the commanding officer and officers, senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, officers were addressing or being addressed by them
183
You must render salutes to, which of the following
Officers of the forces of the United States, the national oceanic and atmospheric administration, the public health service, and foreign arm services
184
If in a motor vehicle during the national anthem the driver shall___
Stop vehicle and remain seated at attention
185
When in uniform at the parade, if the flag passes you shall____
Come to attention, face the flag, and salute
186
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicle vehicles?
Person’s operating moving motor vehicles should not handle a return salutes. Passengers will render and return salutes
187
While in civilian attire and parade, when the fly passes you shall___
Come to attention, remove hat, if wearing one, place right handover heart
188
The code of conduct is an ethical guide for members of the arm services that has_____ articles
Six
189
All members of the armed forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied and the code of conduct____
While in combat or in captivity
190
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for member of the armed forces
Engaging conducive anyway, may reasonably imply that the military department concerned, or any component of such department has taken an official position in for otherwise involved in the local political campaign
Where are uniform or use any government property or facilities while participating
Allow such participation to interfere with or prejudice the members performance of military
191
192
193
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the armed forces?
Avoid any outside activities that may be prejudicial to the performance of military duties or locally to be discriminating to the armed forces
Give full-time and attention to the performance of military duties during prescribed duty hours
194
The national terrorism advisory system consist of how many types of advisories
Two: bulletins and alerts
195
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable thought of terrorist activity exists
Bravo
196
Which FPCOM requires the movement of cars and objects at at least 25 m from buildings
Bravo
197
Which FPCON applies when a general threat possible terrorist activity exists, but warrants only routine security posture
Normal
198
Which FPCON requires that the implement security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely
Alpha
199
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards
Charlie
200
Which type one PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law-enforcement or other types of gear are required
Steven’s model 1600 type 1PFD or standard navy PFD with color
201
Boat characteristics include which two types of frames
Transverse and longitudinal
202
Members with a shaving waiver will trim facial hair as to not exceed what length
A quarter inch
203
Which grooming standard applies to mustaches
If one a mustache must be neatly groomed. Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth.
204
Who can grant permanent shaving Weaver for personnel or diagnosed with pseudofolliculitis barba?
Commanding officers in charge
205
The Coast Guard celebrates his birthday on____
August 4, 1790
206
The revenue cutter service began with____ cutters at the cost of 1000 each
10
207
In 1838 Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency
The steamboat inspection service within the treasury department
208
The first time that a federal agency was specifically asked danger was in_____ when the revenue cutter Gallatin was ordered to control the coast
1831
209
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the revenue service in the life-saving service were merged on what date
1915
210
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of transportation
April 1967
211
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of homeland security
March 1, 2003
212
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first___
Secretary of treasury
213
Who is the Coast Guard first aviator?
Elmer Stone
214
Who is the first commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Captain, commandant Ellsworth price Bertholf
215
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth price Bertholf was name named Captain, commandant of the_____
United States revenue cutter service
216
Who is awarded the medal of honor for evacuating a battalion of marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942
Douglas Monroe
217
Where did SM1 Douglas Monroe aid of battalion Marines during landing and rescue?
Pointcruz, Guadalcanal
218
SM1 Douglas Monroe was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at point Cruz,_____
Guadalcanal
219
what vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War
Harriet Lane
220
The USCG C Tampa was sunk by____ during World War I
A German torpedo
221
An explosion that killed more than 1600 people in Nova Scotia lead Congress to establish______ duties for the United States Coast
Coast Guard captain of the port offices
222
Captain of the port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard, during which military conflict
World War I
223
During World War II, how many US Coast Guard cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
Six
224
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of a special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg France
Quentin R Walsh
225
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day
Quentin R Walsh
226
During Vietnam, the United States Coast guard conducted_____ Which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials, and personnel from going to the Viet cong
Operation market time
227
During Vietnam, how many point class patrol votes from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations
26 82-foot patrol boats
228
Where did Coast Guard port security units deploy in 1990and 1991
Persian Gulf
229
United States, Coast Guard, where among the first response to the attack on the World Trade Center on_____
September 11, 2001
230
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in the United States history following hurricane Katrina
2005
231
The United States Coast Guard mobilize more than 2700 reserves and the largest homeland security operation since World War II following_______
September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
232
In 2010 the United States coast reserve were activated a response to the deep water horizon or rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gases into golf waters for_____ days
87
233
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on April 24, 2004
Bronze star with a combat V
234
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS fire bolt in Iraq when he was morally wounded
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal
235
How many times has the national ensign been changed since 1776?
26
236
The Coast Guard ensign consists of_____ perpendicular, stripes, alternating red and white
16
237
The_____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings examinations and seizure vessels for the purpose of enforcing US laws
Coast Guard Ensign
238
The_____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American Waters
Coast Guard Ensign
239
On August 1, 1799 Secretary of the treasury, Oliver Woolcot issued an order specifying the design of the____
Coast Guard Ensign
240
During parades and ceremonies is the Coast Guard standard is adorned with_____
43 battle streamers
241
The design of the______ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early Jack
Coast Guard standard
242
The_____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard ensign
Coast Guard standard
243
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies
Coast Guard standard
244
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions and all Mable encounters from 1798 to the present
Battle streamers
245
Battle streamers are attached to the______ replacing cords and tassels
Coast Guard standard
246
Individual units may only display those_____ That they have earned
Battle streamers
247
248
Only____ may display a complete set of battle streamers
Major headquarters commands
249
The United States coast of ducted battle strangers in 1968, following the practice established by the____
United States Marine Corps
250
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of_____ battle streamers
43
251
The_____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port
Union Jack
252
The____ is flown on the Jack staff which is located on the bow of a vessel
Union Jack
253
The____is the canton of the United States flag
Union Jack
254
The presence of the____ Indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer
Coast guards commissioning pennant
255
The____ is used on invitations programs certificates, diplomas, and greetings
Coast Guard seal
256
The____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard
Coast Guard seal
257
Sufficient quanities of SCTO kits (normally ___% to ___%) should be built in advance of the release.
10% to 30%
258
