EPME Flashcards
(318 cards)
1
Q
What is Article 7?
A
Apprehension
2
Q
What is Article 15?
A
Impose NJP by CO/OINC, also has 5 days to appeal punishment.
3
Q
What are the three types of court-martials?
A
General (Judge and 5 members)
Special (Judge and 3 members)
Summary (One member, LCDR or above)
4
Q
What is Article 31?
A
Right to remain silent
5
Q
What is Article 91?
A
Insubordinate conduct towards an officer.
6
Q
What is Article 92?
A
Failure to obey an order or regulation.
7
Q
When standards of conduct come into question, what are the three categories that your limitations and responsibilities fall into?
A
- EMI (not be used as a substitute for CM or NJP) – or deprive a person of entitled liberty hours
- Withholding of privileges 3. Search and seizure
8
Q
When may search and subsequent seizure of items occur?
A
A. When probable cause exists
B. When probable cause is not required.
9
Q
What does court-martial 315 limit?
A
Puts limitations on search and seizure procedures.
10
Q
In order to perform probable cause searches, what duties must a petty officer be doing?
A
MP, Guard, Shore Patrol, Investigative duties.
11
Q
Under 315, who must grant a search authorization?
A
Commanding Officer or judge.
12
Q
What is court-martial law 314?
A
Enlisted personnel must be in the performance of military law enforcement duties in order to conduct searches and seize property or evidence.
13
Q
What is court-martial law 316?
A
Any evidence obtained as a result of these searches is admissible.
14
Q
How many formal reasons for discharge?
A
14 reasons
15
Q
Standards of conduct are described in?
A
5 C.F.R Part 2635
16
Q
Under Article 15 how many days does a member have to appeal punishment?
A
5 days
17
Q
Who has the authority to assign EMI after normal working hours?
A
Commanding Officer
18
Q
How many leadership competencies are there?
A
28
19
Q
What are the four leadership competencies?
A
Leading Self Leading Others Leading Performance and Change Leading the Coast Guard
20
Q
What are the 7 competencies for Leading Self?
A
- Accountability & Responsibility
- Followership
- Self-Awareness
- Aligning Values
- Health and Well-Being
- Personal Conduct
- Technical Proficiency
21
Q
What are the 6 competencies for Leading Others?
A
- Effective Communications
- Influencing Others
- Respect for Others & Diversity Management
- Team Building
- Taking Care of People
- Mentoring
22
Q
What are the 6 competencies for Leading Performance and Change?
A
- Customer Focus
2. Management and Process Improvement - Decision Making and Profile Solving
4. Conflict Management
5. Creativity and Innovation
6. Vision Development and Implementation
23
Q
What are the 9 competencies for Leading the Coast Guard?
A
“1. Stewardship
2. Technology Management
3. Financial Management
4. Human Resource Management
5. Partnering
6. External Awareness
7. Entrepreneurship
8. Political savvy
9. Strategic thinking
“
24
Q
What are the three levels of diversity management?
A
Personal Interpersonal Organizational
25
What are Maslow's Hierarchy of Human Needs?
```
"Self-Actualization
Esteem
Love/Belonging
Safety
Physiological
"
```
26
What are the 7 administrative remarks for CG-3307?
1. Accession
2. Assignment and transfer
3. Advancement and Reduction
4. Performance and Discipline (33 types)
5. Separation
6. Selective Reenlistment Bonus
7. SELRES Enlisted Bonus Programs
"
27
What happens to the original CG-3307?
It is filed in the PERSRU PDR and a copy is mailed to CDR (CGPC-adm-3) for electronic imagining into HQ PDR.
28
Supervisors must counsel evaulee no later than how many days beyond end of marking period?
21
29
How many days does a member have to appeal marks?
15 Calendar days
30
Marks must go from the supervisor to the marking official in how many days?
No later than 9 days
31
Within how many days must the supervisor council the subordinate?
Within 30 days
32
Marks must be submitted how many days before the end of the marking period?
14 days
33
Unsatisfactory conduct marks, or 1,2,7, must be supported by what?
Must be supported by an adverse remarks entry
34
Unsatisfactory conduct marks must be assigned for any member who is_____?
Awarded NJP, convicted at court martial, convicted in civil court, financially irresponsible, not supporting dependents, involved in alchol incident, fails to comply with civilian and military rules/regs.
35
What is an approving official's decision on advancement?
An AO decision on advancement is final and cannot be repealed.
36
When are E-2 evaluations done?
January-July
37
When are E-3 evaluations done?
February- August
38
When are E-4 evaluations done?
March - September
39
When are E-5 evaluations done?
April - October
40
When are E-6 evaluations done?
May - November
41
When are E-7 evaluations done?
September
42
From E2 to E5, how much time must a member spend in each paygrade?
Six months
43
From E5 to E6, how much time must a member spend in rate?
12 months
44
From E6 to E7, (and then to E8 and E9), how much time must a member spend in rate?
Two years
45
What is the minimum active service requirement for an E8?
Ten years, minimum active service
46
What is the minimum active service time for E-9?
Twelve years
47
When is a special employee review required?
Regardless of the time since the last employee review, a special employee review is done on the date a member is awarded a NJP or convicted by courts-martial.
48
What are the three Reserve Component Categories?
Ready Reserve
Standby Reserve
Retired Reserve
49
What does the Ready Reserve consist of?
The Ready Reserve consists of reservists who are liable for immediate recall to active duty.
50
What does the Ready Reserve include?
Selected Reserve (SELRES)
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
Standby Reserve
51
What manual contains all information and requirements concerning the enlisted advancement?
CG Personnel Manual - Chapter 5, Section C
52
What does the CG Personnel Manual cover on enlisted advancement?
Policy, procedures, and requirements
53
For authorized traditional college courses less than 18 weeks in length, when is tution paid?
Tuition is paid up front
54
For courses, 18 weeks or more, when is tuition paid?
Tuition is reimbursed upon completion of the course.
55
Who is eligible for the CG Foundation Enlisted Education Grant program?
Active duty, pay grades E-3 to E-9 > two years AD
56
What does the CG Foundation Enlisted Education Grant program cover?
Tuition costs not covered by TA. (assessment fees, application fees, admin/book fees)
57
Why should you ensure accuracy in Direct Access?
Selection panels for command screenings, CWO promotion boards, CC selection panels, Block 14 of the DD-214 Certificat of Release from AD lists all the military education
58
What is SEAS II?
Search, Examine, Arrest, Seize, Inspect, Inquire - 14 U.S.C., Section 89
59
What cites that the U.S Coast Guard is a military service?
Title 14, USC
60
What are the 7 steps of ORM?
```
"1. Define mission tasks.
2. Identify hazards. (equipment, environment, personnel) (PEACE)
3. Assess - (SPE risk = severity x probability x exposure) (GAR)
4. Identify options. (STAAR)
5. Evaluate risk vs. gain
6. Execute decision.
7. Monitor situation.
"
```
61
How many degrees is the CG Racing Stripe?
64 degrees
62
What is in the PDE?
1. CO Recommendation 2. Awards received 3. Evaluations 4. Sea Time 5. TIS, TIR 6. EOC results 7. Eligibility 8. Competency codes
63
Why was the Justification for Other than Full and Open Competition (JOTFOC) written?
To restrict competition.
64
If "sole source" procurement is the only way to meet the CG's needs, what needs to accompany the PR?
Justification for Other than Full and Open Competition (JOTFOC)
65
What is required if the product costs more than $3000?
Provide single source of supply and price
66
What are the micro purchases for PRs?
Construction $2000 Services $2500 Supplies $3,000
67
A report of survey (CG Form 5269) is not required for property less than?
$500
68
What is CG Form 5269?
Report of Survey
69
Speed of Service message What is Routine ( ) ? How many minutes?
SOS Routine (R) - 6 hours
70
Speed of Service message What is Priority ( ) ? How many minutes?
SOS Priority (P) - 3 hours
71
Speed of Service message What is Immediate ( ) ? How many minutes?
SOS Immediate (O) - 30 minutes
72
Speed of Service message What is Flash ( ) ? How many minutes?
SOS Flash (Z)
73
What is SMART?
Specific Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timing
74
What is LEAPS? (Effective Communications)
Listen Empathize Ask
Paraphrase Summarize
75
What is SAPP?
Security
Accuracy
Policy
Property
76
When is a member never eligible for reinstatement on their GTCC?
180 days past due
77
After how many days is a GTCC account cancelled?
101 days past due
78
When is the GTCC account suspended?
61 days
79
At 31 days, what is the status of the GTCC account?
Account is delinquent.
80
When is the GTTCC account classified as past due?
30 days
81
What is a confined space?
Tanks, voids and unvenilated spaces are classified as confined spaces
82
What are the three characteristics of a classified space?
1. Limited or restricted means for entry or exit. 2. Not designed for continous human occupancy. 3. Large enough for an employee to enter and perform work
83
When is double hearing protection required?
Noise levels above 105 db are present.
84
Whose permission do you need for working over the side?
Commanding Officer
85
Who must clear a confined space prior to entry?
Gas free engineer
86
What is the USCG's traditional wartime role?
Augment the U.S Navy with cutters and manpower, embark on special missions utilizing CG skills
87
When were all lighthouses federalized and funds were appropriated for lighthouses, beacons and buoys?
August 7, 1789; the Lighthouse Service was under the Department of Treasury
88
When was the Quasi War with France?
May 28, 1798
89
When did the Petty Officer rate become official in the Navy?
1808
90
What Revenue Cutter participated in the War of 1812?
Revenue Cutter Jefferson
91
Who captured the first war prize in the War of 1812?
Revenue Cutter Jefferson
92
When did the CG first use shallow draft craft?
War of 1812
93
When did Congress first create a timber reserve for the Navy?
1822
94
When was the Petty Officer rate assigned a rate insignia with a sleeve device?
1841
95
When did Congress declare war on Mexico?
May 13, 1846
96
When did Mexico declare war on the U.S?
May 23, 1846
97
When did specialty and rating marks become official?
1866
98
When did the U.S purchase Alaska and why?
1867, to enforce seal hunting regulations
99
When was the Life-Saving Service reborn, and under whom?
1871; Sumner L. Kimball
100
When did the U.S Navy begin to recognize 3 classes of Petty Officers?
1885
101
When did Petty Officers begin to wear rate insignias with chevrons pointed down under a spread eagle and rating mark?
1886
102
What cutter made the first recorded narcotics seizure, and when?
U.S Revenue Cutter Wolcott, August 31, 1890
103
When did the U.S Navy establish the Chief Petty Officer rate?
April 1st, 1893
104
When did Spain declare war on the U.S?
April 24, 1898
105
What lead to the Refuse Act of 1899?
Environmental protection
106
What two agencies were charged with the enforcement of the Refuse Act of 1899?
Army Corp of Engineers and Revenue Cutter Service
107
What did Surfman Rasmus S. Midgett receive for rescuing ten people from the grounded ship, Priscilla?
Gold Lifesaving Medal
108
What missions are a part of Maritime Security?
Drug Interdiction, Migrant Interdiction, Defense Readiness, PWCS
109
What are the three fundamental roles of the Coast Guard?
Maritime Security, Maritime Safety, Maritime Stewardship
110
What are the two missions that fall under Maritime Safety?
Search and Rescue
| Marine Safety
111
What are the five missions that fall under Maritime Stewardship?
```
Ice Operations
ATON
Marine Environmental Protection
Living Marine Resources
Other law enforcement
```
112
Where was Ida Lewis a lighthouse keeper?
Lime Rock
113
Who was the U.S President when the Lifesaving Service merged with the Revenue Cutter Service?
President Woodrow Wilson
114
When was the U.S Coast Guard transferred to the U.S Navy?
WWI, 1917
115
During the War of 1812, what was the first prize captured?
British Merchant vessel Patriot, captured by Revenue Cutter Jefferson
116
During the War of 1812 the nation's revenue cutters primary wartime mission was to ___________________.
Supporting and augmenting the Navy with its shallow-draft cutters
117
What are the characteristics of a Class A mishap?
Reportable property damage $2,000,000 or greater.
A missing CGC, or abandoned.
Fatality or permanent total disability.
CG small boat has reportable property value of $100,000 or more and is missing or abandoned, recovery is impossible or beyond economic repair.
118
Which two mishaps are most serious and warrant a formal Mishap Analysis Board?
Class A and Class B mishaps
119
Which mishaps are less serious and do NOT warrant a formal Mishap Analysis Board?
Class C and Class D mishaps.
120
What are the characteristics of a Class B mishap?
Reportable property damage is less than 2,000,000, but greater than $500,000.
Permanent partial disability
Five or more personnel are "in-patient" hospitalized.
CG small boat incurs repairable damage of $100,000 or more.
121
What are the characteristics of a Class C mishap?
Reportable damage greater than $50,000, less than $500,000.
Nonfatal injury that results in loss of time from work.
CG small boat incurs repairable damage of more than $50,000, but less than $100,000
122
What are the characteristics of a Class D mishap?
Cost of non-aviation property damage is greater than $5,000, but less than $50,000.
Aviation mishaps where cost of property is less than $50,000.
Nonfatal injury that does not meet the criteria for class C mishap.
Man Overboard, accidental firearm discharge, electric shock that doesn't meet the criteria of higher classification.
123
Why are mishap investigations conducted?
To determine why a mishap occurred in order to prevent similar mishaps.
124
Who appoints Class A and B mishap analysis boards?
Commandant (CG-113)
125
How are Class C and D mishap analysis boards normally conducted?
At the unit level with a Unit Safety Board.
126
What dollar value is each mishap?
A – 2 million or higher
B – $500,000 or more, but less than 2 million
C - $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000
D - $5,000 or more, but less than $50,000
127
When was the Homeland Security Act implemented?
November 25, 2002
128
What is an E-8 in the Marines?
Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
129
What is an E-8 in the Army?
Master Sergeant or First Sergeant
130
What is an E-7 in the Marines?
Gunnery Sergeant
131
What is an E-7 in the Army?
Sergeant First Class
132
When was the Department of Navy established?
1798
133
The Revenue Cutter Service captured 18 prizes and assisted in 2 others during which war?
Quasi War
134
Which CGC forced the surfacing of a German submarine using depth charges and a 3" deck gun?
CGC Icarus
135
Which CGC sank an enemy submarine by ramming it, causing severe damage to the CGC?
CGC Campbell
136
In late 1943, which CGC tracked a submarine through a convoy?
CGC Spencer
137
German submarines deliberately sank 3 American vessels propelling the U.S into which war?
WWI
138
What year did the U.S Coast Guard absorbed the Lighthouse Service?
1939
139
Where is the only manned lighthouse located?
Boston Harbor Light
140
During the Quasi War, the RCS captured 18 prizes, which cutter is credited with 10 of those captures?
Pickering
141
Which cutter ran aground when battling the British vessel Dispatch and continued to fight from shore?
CGC Eagle
142
In which war did the CGC Eagle recapture the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable from the French?
Quasi War
143
In Aug-Sep 1917, what were the six CGC to deploy to Gibraltar?
```
Ossipee
Seneca
Yamacraw
Algonquin
Manning
Tampa
```
144
What cutter was torpedoed by a German sub on Sept. 26, 1918?
CGC Tampa
145
In which war was a higher percentage of CG personnel killed than any other service?
WWI
146
When was the Coast Guard given responsibility for cold-weather operations in Greenland?
April 9, 1941
147
When did the Coast Guard make the first naval capture of WWII? And which cutter did it?
September 12th, 1941 made by CGC Northland
148
How did the CGC Northland happen to make the first naval capture of WWII?
On April 9, 1941, the Coast Guard was given responsibility for coldweather
operations in Greenland. This function continued throughout the
war. The Coast Guard made the first U.S. naval capture of the war on
September 12th. The cutter Northland took the Norwegian trawler Boskoe
into “protective custody” and captured three German radiomen ashore.
The Germans were attempting to set up weather stations in Greenland.
149
The present day CG was established in what year?
1915
150
What event prompted the creation of the International Ice Patrol?
Titantic
151
The bulk of men’s hair can be no longer than how many inches?
1.5 inches
152
What is the first ORM task?
Define mission task.
153
What is the second ORM task?
Identify hazards.
154
What is the third ORM task?
Assess risk.
155
What is fourth ORM task?
Identify Options.
156
What is the fifth ORM task?
Evaluate Risk vs. Gain
157
What is the six ORM task?
Execute decision.
158
What is the seventh ORM task?
Monitor situation.
159
What is the only competency on EERs that is not a number?
Conduct
160
What did they called the community leader that lead the lifesaving service stations?
Wreckmaster
161
How many CG districts are there?
9
162
In what year did the Coast Guard transfer from DOT to DHS?
2003
163
How many HQ units are there in the field?
35
164
The petty officer rate became official in what year?
1808
165
In what year did petty officers begin wearing a rate insignia on their sleeve?
1841
166
Coast Guard SELRES members are generally authorized how many paid IDT drills and ADT days per fiscal year?
48 IDT drills/12 ADT days
167
Which Reserve component consists of individuals who have previously served on active duty?
Individual Ready Reserve
168
Are IRR members required to meet the same IDT and ADT training requirements as Selected Reservists?
No
169
What does the Standby Reserve consist of?
Reservists who are not in the Ready Reserve or the Retired Reserve, but are liable for involuntary recall to active duty.
170
What are SELRES and IRR?
Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve
171
Who is required to train for mobilization as prescribed in 10 USC 10147?
Members within the Ready Reserve
172
10 USC 10147 states that the Ready Reserves are required to do what?
Train for mobilization
173
I was the first commissioned officer
in the Revenue Cutter Service. I received my commission from President Washington on 21 March
1791. I was the Master of Revenue Marine Cutter (RMC) Scammel. The sister ship to the Scammel was the RMC Massachusetts which
was the first cutter built. Who am I?
Captain Hopley Yeaton
174
I was a member of the U.S Life-Saving Service in a town called Hull, MA. During the last 13 years of my life, I participated in rescues that saved 540 lives. I was 76 when I died and was buried in a surfboat. Who am I?
Joshua James
175
I was the co-pilot of the U.S. Navy’s NC4
(which was an old Curtiss #4), which was one of four planes that made the first transatlantic
flight, from the U.S. to Europe, in 1919. My transatlantic trip was not a solo or non-stop
flight; Charles Lindbergh has that claim, but it was the first flight across the Atlantic. I also pioneered CG aviation search and rescue during WWI. Who am I?
LT Elmer Stone
176
Who was the first SPAR?
Captain Dorothy C. Stratton
177
How many battle streamers does the CG have, and where are they displayed?
43 battle streamers are on the CG Standard
178
When did the CG Seal/Emblem become official?
1927
179
The CG Emblem evolved into a simplification of what?
CG Seal
180
What is used
for official documents and records of the Coast Guard? It is also used on
invitations, programs, certificates,
diplomas and greetings.
CG Seal
181
It evolved into a simplified version of the seal and was created as a visual identifier for the CG. It is used on the CG ensign.
CG Emblem
182
The CG adopted battle streamers in 1968 following the practice established by what military service?
U.S Marines
183
Battle streamers are attached to the CG Standard to replace what?
Cords & tassels
184
What do the 13 stars and 13 stripes on the CG Shield represent?
The original 13 colonies.
185
Which CG units may display a complete set of battle streamers?
Major HQ commands
186
What does the presence of a Commissioning Pennant mean?
Its presence indicates that a CG cutter is under the command of a commissioned or warrant officer.
187
When was the commissioning pennant created and where is it flown from?
1799 and it is flown from the main mast 24/7.
188
What items can the CG Seal be used on?
Official documents, and records. Also invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas and greetings.
189
Where is the CG emblem used?
The emblem is used on the Coast Guard Ensign.
190
Where is the CG Racing stripe used?
Ships, boats, aircraft, stations, vehicles, signs and forms.
191
When did the CG Racing stripe become official?
6 April 1967
192
When was the first CG Seal/Emblem created?
1927
193
In what year did the CG Emblem become separate from the CG Seal and begin to appear on the CG Ensign?
1957
194
What is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S laws?
CG Ensign
195
Give four characteristics of the CG Ensign.
1. Never carried as a parade or ceremony standard.
2. Created in 1799
3. On CGC, flown 24/7, in port or underway.
4. Flown from the Main Mast.
196
When the American Flag is flown from a vessel or facility what is it called?
National Ensign
197
When the American flag is carried by foot, what is it called?
Colors
198
When was the CG's commissioning pennant created?
1799, same time as the CG Ensign.
199
What does the CG commissioning pennant mean?
Its presence indicates that a CGC is under the command of a commissioned or warrant officer.
200
What appears on the CG Racing stripe?
CG Emblem
201
The rectangular blue part of the U.S flag containing the stars in the form of a flag is what?
Union Jack
202
When a vessel is moored or at anchor, what two flags are flown from 0800 to sunset?
National Ensign (from the stern) and Union Jack (from the bow)
203
What allows you and your dependents to register and vote absentee in federal elections?
Uniformed and Overseas Citizen Voting Act
204
What Work-Life specialists are available to consult in suspected cases of family violence or child neglect?
Family Advocacy Specialist
205
Who can assist a member and their dependents in voting registration and materials?
Unit voting officer
206
Can you make monetary contributions to a political organization or committee favoring a particular candidate?
Yes
207
Army, AF, Marines O-1?
Second LT
208
Army, AF, Marines O-2?
First LT
209
Army, AF, Marines O-3?
Captain
210
Army, AF, Marines O-4?
Major
211
Army, AF, Marines O-5?
LT Colonel
212
Army, AF, Marines O-6?
Colonel
213
Army, AF, Marines O-7?
Brigadier General, one star
214
Army, AF, Marines O-8?
Major General, two star
215
Army, AF, Marines O-9?
LT General, three star
216
Army, AF, Marines O-10?
General, four star
217
Army, E-1 and E-2?
Private
218
Army, E-3?
Private 1st Class
219
Army, E-4?
Corporal
220
Army, E-5?
Sergeant
221
Army, E-6?
Staff Sergeant
222
Army, E-7?
Sergeant First Class
223
Army, E-8?
Master Sergeant/First Sergeant
224
Army, E-9?
Sergeant Major
225
Marine, E-2?
Private First Class
226
Marine, E-3?
Lance Corporal
227
Marine, E-4?
Corporal
228
Marine, E-5?
Sergeant
229
Marine, E-6?
Staff Sergeant
230
Marine, E-7?
Gunnery Sergeant
231
Marine, E-8?
Master Sergeant/First Sergeant
232
Marine, E-9?
Master Gunnery Sergeant/Sergeant Major
233
A Master Sergeant in the Army is equivalent to what rank in the CG?
Senior Chief
234
Why did Congress create a timber reserve for the U.S Navy?
To protect the environment, and the cutting of live oaks on public lands, the President used the Revenue Cutter Service.
235
What rank is the U.S Surgeon General?
Vice Admiral
236
What does Part V of the Manual for Courts Martial state about mast reps?
Mast reps may do the following:
1. Question witnesses
2. Submit questions to ask witnesses
3. Make statements geared to the CO.
4. Make a plea for leniency.
5. Mast rep may solicit and submit statements regarding member's reputation, extenuating or mitigating circumstances.
237
What does CG Policy say about communications between mast reps and the accused?
Communications between the accused and mast rep are privileged in the same way communications are between attorney and client.
238
What is a Preliminary Inquiry Officer (PIO)?
A member of the command designated by the XO to conduct an inquiry based on offenses alleged on a CG-4910.
239
What are the responsibilities of the Preliminary Inquiry Officer? (PIO) (PG E7-27)
1. Make sure the CG-4910 is completed.
2. Review the suspected offenses.
3. Question witnesses and collect any documents or other evidence.
4. PIO should obtain written statements from each witness.
5. Complete the PIO report on the CG-4910.
240
What happens to the completed CG-4910?
Forwarded to the XO.
241
What recommendations may the PIO suggest?
1. Captain's Mast (NJP)
2. Trial by court-martial
3. Dismissal
4. Administrative Action - negative 3307 entry.
242
What are the 3 goals of the CG Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
1. Reduce alcohol and substance abuse by CG members.
2. Detect and separate those who abuse drugs.
3. Facilitate rehab for those who may remain on active duty.
243
Where are Addiction Prevention Specialists assigned?
Maintenance and Logistics Commands (MLC)
244
In regards to alcohol/substance abuse, who receives the Prevention-based Education Program?
1. Recruits
2. Officer candidates
3. Direct commission officers
4. Cadets
245
What is an alcohol situation?
An occurrence where alcohol is involved or present, but is not the causative factor for a member's undesirable behavior or performance.
246
An alcohol incident may include any of the following behaviors:
1. Member is unable to perform duties
2. Brings discredit upon the Uniformed Services
3. Is a violation of the UCMJ, Federal, State or local laws.
247
What must happen for something to be considered an alcohol incident?
Alcohol must be consumed to be considered an alcohol incident.
248
What happens after the first incident disposition?
Member will be screened.
249
What happens after the second incident disposition?
Member must be screened and the command may commence discharge procedures if the following applies:
1. It is a 2nd incident
2. Diagnosed as alcoholic and drinks after receiving treatment.
3. Violates aftercare plan.
250
What are the three levels that the CG provides on alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation?
Level 1: Awareness Education
Level 2: Outpatient/Intensive Outpatient
Level 3: Residential Rehabilitation Programs
251
What is Antabuse?
A nontoxic drug that interferes when the body metabolizes alcohol. When Antabuse users drink alcohol, they experience flu-like symptoms.
252
When are romantic relationships between members unacceptable?
Members are assigned to the same unit with less than 60 members.
253
What kinds of units are under LANT/PAC AREA?
MLC, Districts, Cutters
254
How many HQ units are there?
35 units
255
What is an example of an alcohol situation?
Someone purchases alcohol for a minor.
256
What is it called when alcohol is involved or present but not cause of undesirable behavior?
Alcohol situation
257
Which flag does the CG Ensign fly under on a vessel's mast?
Commissioning Pennant
258
What are the dimensions of the Commissioning Pennant?
2 1/2" x 72"
259
When is the Union Jack flown aboard cutters?
When the cutter is anchored is moored.
260
An alcohol incident occurs when the CO determines that the use or abuse of alcohol is a significant or causative factor resulting in at least one of what three things?
1. Loss of ability to perform duties.
2. Discredit upon the Coast Guard.
3. Any violation of the law.
261
Who is responsible for establishing unit prevention plans and giving annual alcohol awareness training?
Command Drug & Alcohol Rep (CDAR)
262
What actions are taken in response to an alcohol situation?
Members are counseled concerning their abuse of alcohol and receive a CG-3307 in the member's PDR.
263
What 3 requirements must members meet for residential rehabilitation?
1. Are formally evaluated and diagnosed as alcohol dependent by an MD.
2. Require rehabilitation on a full-time, live-in basis for 4-6weeks.
3. Receive CO approval by showing potential for continued CG service.
264
What is the continuous, systematic process identifying and controlling risks in all activities according to a set of preconceived parameters by applying appropriate management policies and procedures?
Operational Risk Management (ORM)
265
Under ORM, what are the four decision-making principles?
1. Accept no unnecessary risk.
2. Accept necessary risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
3. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
4. ORM is just as critical in executing as well as in planning all activities.
266
What are the two risk assessment models?
GAR and SPE
267
What are the two programs that contribute to accident reduction?
Mishap Prevention Program and ORM
268
How is the GAR (Green, Amber, Red) model used?
A command can use the GAR Model to assess the overall operation or mission.
269
How is the SPE (Severity, Probability, Exposure) model used?
Use SPE after using the GAR model. If one or more elements appears unusually high, a second assessment can be done using the SPE model for each area of concern.
270
What six elements does the GAR model incorporate?
1. Supervision
2. Planning
3. Crew selection
4. Crew fitness
5. Environment
6. Event/Complexity
271
Who are the key persons in the mishap prevention process?
Supervisors
272
How many major Coast Guard HQ directorates report to the Commandant?
15 HQ directorates
273
Who are the 15 major CG HQ directorates that report to the Commandant?
```
Acquisition
Deepwater
JAG
Planning Resources and Procurement
Maritime Domain Awareness
Human Resources
Intel
Engineering and Logistics
Command, Control, Comms, Computers and Information Technology (C4IT)
Marine Safety and Environmental Protection
Operations
```
274
Who is the Marine Safety, Security and Environmental Protection Program (G-M) protecting, through prevention and mitigation of maritime incidents?
Public
Environment
U.S economic intrests
275
What was Maritime Domain Awareness (CG-7M) developed in response to?
MDA was developed in response to the establishment and implementation of the U.S Northern Command. (NORTHCOM)
276
What is the Office of Maritime Domain Awareness responsible (CG-7M) for?
The MDA office is responsible for creating policy and oversight of CG missions relating to response to a domestic incident, tracking potential man-made and natural threats to national security or safety.
277
What is the Chief Office of Law Enforcement and Defense Operations(G-O) responsible for?
Chief Office of Law Enforcement and Defense Operations is responsible for:
1. Enforcement of laws and treaties
2. Defense Operations
3. Intelligence
4. Investigations
5. Security
6. Management of all CG aircraft and cutters.
278
What is the Office of Intelligence (CG-2)responsible for?
Direct, coordinate and oversee intelligence and investigative operations and activities that support:
1. All CG mission objectives
2. National Strategy for Homeland Security
3. National Security Objectives
279
What does the MCPO of the Coast Guard serve as?
Program manager for Commandant designated CMCs and co-program manager for enlisted professional and career development with the Director of Reserve and Training (CG-13)
280
Define rate, as stated in the EPME manual.
Used for enlisted pay grade in law (14 USC Chapter 11 Sec. 532)
281
Define rating, as stated in the EPME manual.
The correct term for an enlisted member's occupational specialty.
282
Why was the Chief Petty Officer Rating created?
After the merger between RCS and LSS, Petty Officers and Surfmen got into a power struggle, so CPO was created.
283
When did the 55th U.S Congress approve and establish the Coast Guard's CPO grade?
May 18, 1920
284
Who were the first CG Chiefs?
Former station keepers of the Life Saving Stations, given the title Chief Boatswains' Mate (CBM) with an L for "Lifesaving" attached to their rate to distinguish them from their seagoing counterparts.
285
What law established the two pay grades, E-8 and E-9, and when?
Public Law 85-422, May 1958
286
When were SWE held for Chiefs?
August 5, 1958
287
Who initiated the first Senior Enlisted Advisory Team (SEAT) and conducted a cursory review of Public Law 85-422?
MCPOCG Patton (ret) and SEAT members realized that Public Law 85-422 was out of date with CG missions. Senior Enlisted Needs Assessment (SENA) was created.
288
What was the Senior Enlisted Needs Assessment (SENA)?
The first known comprehensive analysis of E-8 and E-9 ranks.
289
What are the three roles CPOs have within the Coast Guard?
Leader, Mentor, Tech expert
290
When is full dress uniform worn?
Year-round when assuming or relinquishing command, participating in COC ceremonies, official visits with honors, occasions of state, ceremonies, weddings, solemnities.
291
When is tropical blue long worn?
Year-round, at all occasions, where coat and tie are not required nor expected or on official business
292
Describe the regulations for women's earrings.
Plain gold or silver with a shining or brushed matte finish, plain diamond, or natural white pearl ball studs, 4-6mm(1/8 to 1/4in) in diameter with all uniforms.
293
How wide is a tie bar allowed to be?
3/16" wide, and must be concealed when wearing the service dress blue coat.
294
Describe regs for cufflinks and shirt studs.
Cufflinks are to be plain gold, or CG related. Shirt studs are to be plain gold or plain natural white pearl.
295
When ODU sleeves are rolled up, how many inches wide should the cuffs be, and how far should they be above the elbow?
Cuffs should be 3" wide and 2" above the elbow.
296
For men, hair cannot exceed how many inches in bulk?
1.5" in bulk, 4" in length
297
Men’s hair above the ears and around the neck is to be tapered from
the lower natural hairline upwards at least ____ inch.
3/4"
298
Women's hair bulk cannot exceed _____
2"
299
Women's fingernails cannot extend ___ beyond fingertip
1/4"
300
Men's facial hair cannot exceed___.
1/4"
301
A mast representative's testimony may include ______________.
The reputation of the member at the unit, extenuating and mitigating circumstances.
302
If, during the course of the inquiry, the PIO becomes aware of a new or different offense, what must they do?
1. The PIO must inquire into the new or different offense.
| 2. Should make a recommendation concerning the disposition of the new or different offense(s).
303
What are the five categories that master, senior and chief petty officer performance evaluation factors are grouped into?
```
Military
Performance
Professional Qualities
Leadership
Conduct
```
304
What is a benefit of Zero Based Budgeting?
1. Eliminates a sense of entitlement to cost increases.
2. Fosters improved cost containment
3. Promotes increased discipline in developing budgets.
4. Encourages more meaningful budget discussions during planning and reviewing sessions.
305
________ is an unplanned or unsought event or series of events that may result in death, injury, or occupational illness to CG and non-CG personnel as a result of a CG operation.
Mishap
306
What percent of mishaps are due to the unsafe acts of people?
88%
307
What percent of mishaps are due to unsafe conditions not identified or corrected by people?
10%
308
In what war did 8 cutters, carrying 43 guns join Rear Admiral William Sampson's North Atlantic Squadron?
Spanish-American War
309
In what war did cutter McCulloch, carrying six guns and manned by 10 officers engaged in the battle of Manila Bay.
Spanish-American
310
What did CGC serve as the escort and dispatch boat with Commodore George Dewey's Asiatic Squadron?
CGC McCulloch
311
When did the CGC Hudson and torpedo boat USS Winslow engage in battle with Spanish gunboats?
May 11, 1898, Cardenas Bay, Cuba
312
What is the acronym MAB?
Mishap Analysis Board
313
What type of budgeting does the CG employ?
Zero Based Budgeting
314
Is a Report of Survey required for property that is lost, damaged, or destroyed?
Yes
315
How many miles of the U.S Coastline is the Coast Guard charged with protecting?
95,000 miles
316
Who was the first commissioned officer to serve in the Revenue Cutter Service?
Hopley Yeaton
317
What insignia was attached to Chief's rating badges when the RCS and LSS merged?
The letter "L"
318
What titles were Chiefs first given?
Chief Boastwain's Mate (CBM)
