Eponymous fractures

Question 1

Bankart fracture

Answer 1

One of the most frequently used eponyms, this refers to a fracture of the anteroinferior portion of the glenoid labrum associated with anterior dislocation of the humeral head, which is the mechanism causing the break. It is difficult to recognize a Bankart fracture on plain radiographs, and sometimes it can only be detected with the use of CT (Fig. A3-1) or MRI

Question 2

Barton fracture

Answer 2

wrist; dorsal aspect distal radius extending to articular surface, with volar sparing. AKA Dorsal type barton #

Question 3

Busch fracture

Answer 3

A Busch fracture consists of fracture with detachment of a fragment of the distal phalanx of the finger and the extensor tendon, which inserts at this site. It is also known as “baseball finger” because it occurs frequently in baseball players.

Question 4

Chance fracture

Answer 4

AKA seat beat #. Flexiondistraction 3 column injury. Anterior wedge #; horizontal injury of posterior elements; facet + spinus process distraction.

Question 5

Charcot joint: foot

Answer 5

Neuropathic arthropathy - prgressive destruction of a joint in pt with abnormal pain/sensation/proprioception

Question 6

Colles fracture: wrist

Answer 6

FOOSH + distal radial metaphyseal # + dorsal angulation impaction. Extra-articular

Question 7

Duverney fracture:

Answer 7

Direct blow to pelvis - with resultant isolated iliac wing #.

Question 8

Essex-Lopresti fracture

Answer 8

fracture of the radial head, dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and rupture of the antebrachial interosseous membrane 3.

Question 9

Freiberg infraction:

Answer 9

foot

osteochondrosis of metatarsal heads. can be 2-4th

Question 10

Galeazzi fracture

Answer 10

distal part of the radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint and an intact ulna. MUGR

Question 11

Gosselin fracture:

Answer 11

distal tibia with a V-shaped fractured fragment and intra-articular involvement.

Question 12

Hill-Sachs fracture

Answer 12

shoulder (Posterolateral humeral head defect. From ant- dislocation

Question 13

trimalleolar fracture

Answer 13

Cotton fracture. Cotton fracture affects both malleoli and, additionally, produces a displaced fracture from the posterior margin of the tibial articular surface.

Question 14

De Quervain fracture

Answer 14

he name De Quervain is applied to fractures of the scaphoid associated with dislocation of the semilunar bone

Question 15

Dupuytren fracture.

Answer 15

A Dupuytren fracture affects the tibia above the lateral malleolus, with rupture of the distal tibiofibular ligaments and deltoid ligament. There may be an associated fracture of the medial malleolus and lateral displacement of the talus

Question 16

Essex-Lopresti fracture

Answer 16

The name Essex-Lopresti refers to a fracture of the radial head, usually producing several fragments and displacement. In addition, there is distal dislocation of the radioulnar joint.

Question 17

Galeazzi fracture. •

Answer 17

Galeazzi fracture involves the radius, usually the radial diaphysis, with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (Fig. A3-10). Often the dislocation is only evident on clinical examination and cannot be recognized on radiography.

Question 18

Gosselin fracture

Answer 18

A fracture having a V shape, Gosselin fracture affects the distal tibia with intra-articular extension.

Question 19

Hill-Sachs lesion

Answer 19

Impacted fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head caused by impingement of the head on the anterior edge of the scapular glenoid during anterior dislocation of the shoulder.Increased risk of recurrent dislocations

Question 20

Holdsworth fracture.

Answer 20

Holdsworth fracture is an unstable spinal fracture at the thoracolumbar junction affecting the vertebral body, articular processes, and posterior ligaments.

Question 21

Hutchinson fracture. AKA chauffeur fracture

Answer 21

An oblique fracture of the radial styloid process . Hutchinson fracture is also known as “chauffeur fracture.” At the beginning of the past century it was often caused by the kickback produced when starting an automobile by hand-cranking.

Question 22

Jefferson fracture.

Answer 22

A complex fracture of the atlas, Jefferson fracture usually affects both the anterior and posterior arches as well as the lateral masses

Question 23

Jones fracture.

Answer 23

The Jones fracture affects the base of the fifth metatarsal distal to the tuberosity. It should not be confused with fracture- avulsion of the base of fifth metatarsal, known as “dancer’s fracture” or “pseudo-Jones fracture,” which occurs proximal to the tuberosity and is related to the peroneus brevis tendon. Jones fracture should also be differentiated from a lack of fusion of the ossification center.

Question 24

Le Fort fracture (maxilla)

Answer 24

There are three types of Le Fort maxillary fractures. Type I is a bilateral horizontal fracture of the upper maxilla. Type II has a more vertical fracture line and can reach floor of the orbit, nasal cavity, or hard palate. In type III there is complete detachment of the maxilla and one or more facial bones from the remaining craniofacial skeleton.

Question 25

Le Fort fracture (ankle)

Answer 25

The Le Fort ankle fracture is a vertical fracture of the fibula with avulsion of the tibiofibular ligament

Question 26

Lisfranc fracture

Answer 26

Lisfranc fracture is associated with dislocation of the tarsometatarsal joints. The most frequent type involves fracture of the base of the second metatarsal (anatomically wedged between the medial and lateral cuneiform bones) and posterolateral dislocation of four or all five metatarsals. In normal conditions the internal margin of the second cuneiform and that of the base of the second metatarsal should be aligned. This injury is more frequent in neuropathic conditions (e.g., diabetes) than after trauma (Fig. A3-14). 45. Lisfranc fracture. This is an example of a fracture of the second metatarsal base with dislocation from the second to the third metatarsal.

Question 27

Maisonneuve fracture

Answer 27

The Maisonneuve fracture refers to a spiral fracture of the proximal third of the fibula with disruption of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and interosseous membrane. It can be associated with fracture of the medial malleolus or deltoid ligament rupture

Question 28

Malgaigne fracture

Answer 28

The Malgaigne fracture involves both pubic rami with sacroiliac dislocation or fracture of the sacrum. The lateral fragment, which contains the acetabulum, is unstable

Question 29

Mason fracture. •

Answer 29

Mason fracture is an isolated fracture of the radial head

Question 30

Monteggia

Answer 30

Monteggia fracture is a proximal ulnar fracture with anterior dislocation of the radial head

Question 31

Pott fracture. •

Answer 31

Fibular fracture and subluxation of the talus due to rupture of the deltoid ligament. A bimalleolar fracture, Pott fracture was originally described as a subluxation of the ankle with fracture of the distal third of the fibula and tearing of the medial ligaments of the joint

Question 32

Pipkin fracture

Answer 32

Impact to the knee with the hip flexed (dashboard injury)Fracture of femoral head in association with posterior dislocation of hip. 57. Pellegrini-Stieda disease Steida fracture Pellegrini’s syndrome • Ossification of the superior portion of the medial collateral ligament of the knee Sequela of an old injury (or injuries) to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) of the knee 58. • Ossification of the superior portion of the medial collateral ligament of the knee Sequela of an old injury (or injuries) to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) of the knee

Question 33

Rolando fracture. •

Answer 33

A comminuted intra-articular fracture, Rolando fracture affects the base of the first metacarpal and is associated with dislocation. It is similar to a Bennett fracture.

Question 34

Segond fracture.

Answer 34

fracture-detachment of the proximal tibial epiphysis, almost always associated with rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament This fracture is related with insertion of the tensor muscle tendon of the fascia lata.

Question 35

everse Segond Fracture

Answer 35

Cortical avulsion of tibial insertion of deep capsular component of medial collateral ligament • Mechanism: external rotation +valgus stress • May be associated with: midsubstance tear of posterior cruciate ligament; avulsion of PCL from posterior tibial plateau; tear of medial meniscus • Elliptic bone fragment arising from medial aspect of proximal tibia

Question 36

Shepherd fracture.

Answer 36

This is a fracture of the posterolateral process of the talus and should not be mistaken for a normal variant, the os trigonum.

Question 37

Skillern fracture

Answer 37

is a complete fracture of the lower third of the radius with a greenstick or torus fracture of the ulna

Question 38

Smith fracture.

Answer 38

An extra-articular fracture of the distal third of the radius with volar (palmar) displacement of the distal fragment, the Smith fracture can be considered a reverse Colles fracture

Question 39

Tillaux fracture. •

Answer 39

Tillaux fracture consists of fracture-avulsion of the vertical course of the anterior tibial tubercle at the insertion of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. It is more common in older adolescents, in whom the medial portion of the distal tibial physis is already closed but the lateral area remains open. It is sometimes seen in adults

Question 40

Hangman’s fracture

Answer 40

Hangman’s fracture consists of a fracture of the posterior elements of C2 and anterior displacement of the C2 vertebral body with respect to the C3 body

Question 41

Boxer’s fracture

Answer 41

fracture is produced at the neck of the fifth metacarpal with volar angulation of the distal fragment

Question 42

Clay Shoveler’s Fracture

Answer 42

fracture of a lower cervical spinous process due to traction by the interspinous ligaments.

Question 43

Gamekeeper’s thumb

Answer 43

An injury that should now be called “skier’s thumb,” gamekeeper’s thumb consists of fracture-dislocation of the ulnar aspect of the base of the first phalanx associated with a lesion of the ulnar collateral ligament of the first metacarpophalangeal joint (Stener and non-Stener lesion)

Question 44

Greenstick fracture.

Answer 44

A lesion observed in children, greenstick fracture is related to the plasticity of the bone at this stage of development and to the strength of the periosteum. It predominantly affects the bones of the forearm and is characterized by the fact that one side of the bone is fractured while the opposite side remains intact

Question 45

Torus fracture

Answer 45

Another type of incomplete fracture seen in children, torus fracture usually affects the distal radial diaphysis. Its name is derived from an architectural term given to a part of the base of a Greek column. Torus fracture is often diagnosed during resolution of the break, with visualization of sclerosis.

Question 46

March fracture.

Answer 46

March fracture. • The march fracture, which frequently occurs in military recruits, consists of a diaphyseal fatigue fracture, usually of the second or third metatarsal, due to overload during repeated impact of the forefoot on the ground while walking. The radiologic features may not be evident initially. After 1 week a radiolucent line can be seen and, later, periosteal reaction (Fig. A3-31). These fatigue fractures can also occur in other bones, such as the pelvis, femoral neck, tibia, fibula, or calcaneus, although they are much less common at these sites.

Question 47

Dancer’s fracture. •

Answer 47

Dancer’s fracture. • Fracture-avulsion of the base of fifth metatarsal, known as “dancer’s fracture,” occurs proximal to the tuberosity and is related to the peroneus brevis tendon, also known as pseudo Jones fracture

Question 48

Lovers Fracture •

Answer 48

Calcaneus is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone • A so-called “lover’s Fracture” is an intra-articular fracture produced by an axial loading force typically produced by a leap from a height with person landing on heels (also called a “Don Juan” fracture) – Why is it called a “Lover’s fracture?” • Because it is the type of fracture that could presumably be caused by a lover jumping out of the bedroom window to escape from a surprised and enraged spouse • Bilateral in up to 10% • The same axial load is transmitted to the spine and may produce associated burst fractures of the lumbar or thoracic spine in up to 10% of patients – Frequently occur at the thoraco-lumbar junction at L1, L2, T12 and T11 90. • Bilateral calcaneal fractures and fractures of spine. There is a comminuted fracture of the left calcaneus (white arrow); there is a comminuted fracture of the left calcaneus (red arrow) with flattening of Bohler's Angle to 0 degrees. A sagittal reconstructed CT scan of the spine shows compression fractures of the superior endplates of T12 and L1 (yellow arrows) .

Question 49

Salter Harris Fracture

Answer 49

The Salter-Harris classification describes fractures that involve the epiphyseal plate or growth plate. The most common is type II, which accounts for 75% Type I - transverse fracture through the growth plate or physis • Type II - fracture through the growth plate and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis • Type III - fracture through growth plate and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis • Type IV - fracture through all three elements of the bone, the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis • Type V - compression fracture of the growth plate

Question 50

Weber Classification

Answer 50

The Weber ankle fracture classification (sometimes Danis-Weber) is a simple system for classification of lateral malleolar fractures, relating to the level of the fracture in relation to the ankle joint. * Type A: below level of the ankle joint with tibiofibular syndesmosis intact; deltoid ligament intact and medial malleolus often fractured * Type B: at the level of the ankle joint, extending superiorly and laterally up the fibula. Tibiofibular syndesmosis intact or partially torn, but no widening of the distal tibiofibular articulation. Medial malleolus may be fractured or deltoid ligament my be torn. * Type C: above the level of the ankle joint. Tibiofibular syndesmosis disrupted with widening of the distal tibiofibular articulation. Medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament injury present

Question 51

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Answer 51

is a chronic fatigue injury due to repeated microtrauma at the patellar ligament insertion onto the tibial tuberosity, usually affecting boys between ages 10-15 years. ----------- From radiopedia. Plain radiograph Soft tissue swelling with loss of the sharp margins of the patellar tendon is the earliest signs in the acute phase; thus, a compatible history is also essential in making the diagnosis. Bone fragmentation at the tibial tuberosity may be evident 3 to 4 weeks after the onset. It is important not to equate isolated 'fragmentation' of the apophysis with OSD, as there may well be secondary ossification centres. Ultrasound Ultrasound examination of the patellar tendon can depict the same anatomic abnormalities as can plain radiographs, CT scans, and magnetic resonance images. The sonographic appearances of Osgood-Schlatter disease include 3: swelling of the unossified cartilage and overlying soft tissues fragmentation and irregularity of the ossification centre with reduced internal echogenicity thickening of the distal patellar tendon infrapatellar bursitis MRI MRI, as expected, is more sensitive and specific, and will demonstrate: soft-tissue swelling anterior to the tibial tuberosity loss of the sharp inferior angle of the infrapatellar fat pad (Hoffa fat pad) thickening and oedema of the distal patellar tendon infrapatellar bursitis (clergyman's knee) a distended deep infrapatellar bursa can be a frequent finding 6 bone marrow oedema may be seen at the tibial tuberosity

Question 52

Reverse Barton fractures

Answer 52

Reverse Barton fractures, also known as volar type Barton fractures, represents an intra-articular distal radial fracture with volar displacement.