Equine End Sem 2 Exam Flashcards by Nicola Beaumont

Where is the label correctly placed on a radiograph relative to the limb?
- Medially & dorsally
- Laterally & caudally
- Laterally & dorsally
- Medially & caudally

Laterally & dorsally

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Hallmarks of chronic laminitis include:
- Reduction of the solar magin-distal phalanx angle, remodelling of the extensor process of the distal phalanx, dorsal distal hoof wedge formation & osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx
- Increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle, dorsal hoof wedge formation, osteolysis of the extensor process of the distal phalanx & rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall
- Dorsal distal hoof wedge formation, remodelling of the palmar processes of the distal phalanx, reduction of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall
- Osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx, rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall, increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & dorsal hoof wedge formation

Osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx, rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall, increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & dorsal hoof wedge formation

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Which two projections of the carpus give you the best assessment of the third carpal bone?
- The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DLPMO
- The DMPLO & flexed lateral
- The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DMPLO
- The flexed dorsal 45 degree proximal-dorsal oblique & flexed lateral

The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DLPMO

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Of the following which is more accurate regarding a time dependent antimicrobial?
- It has better bactericidal effects than concentration dependent antimicrobials
- Doubling the dose (e.g. from 10mg to 20mg) will significantly increase the rate of microbial killing
- Doubling the frequency of drug administration (e.g. from q12h to q6h) will likely increase the rate of microbial killing
- It has worse bactericidal effects than concentration dependent antimicrobials

Doubling the frequency of drug administration (e.g. from q12h to q6h) will likely increase the rate of microbial killing

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Which of the following options describes the chronological order & initial treatment of an acutely burned horse best?
- Cooling of affected area for 5 min & IV fluid therapy
- Cooling of affected area for 20 min & ice boot application
- Cooling of affected area for 15 min & systemic analgesia
- Cooling of affected area for 10 min & IV clenbuterol administration

Cooling of affected area for 20 min & ice boot application

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A 2 day old colt was diagnosed with a bilateral stage II flexural deformity of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following statements is correct?
- Stall rest & heel extensions will likely correct the deformity
- Controlled exercise & stable bandages will correct the deformity within 2 weeks
- Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs has a good prognosis
- Inferior check ligament desmotomy has to be considered for the best outcome

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Please indicate the false statement about impingement of the dorsal spinous process (“kissing spine”).
- Surgical resection of one out of two processes is the only long-term treatment available
- Is it a true arthropathy
- It is more frequent between T12 & T18
- It is the most frequent abnormality found on radiographs of the back

Is it a true arthropathy

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Please indicate the correct statement about the etiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis.
- Since the articular cartilage is fully capable to repair itself, wear & tear is rarely the cause of osteoarthritis
- Only when left untreated septic arthritis can cause significant damage to the cartilage & lead to osteoarthritis
- Ligament damage resulting in major joint instability will certainly lead to osteoarthritis
- Malnutrition is a common cause of osteoarthritis, thus ensuring adequate nutrition can practically eliminate osteoarthritis

Ligament damage resulting in major joint instability will certainly lead to osteoarthritis

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You diagnose a 4 year old intact male, TB race horse of 520kg with a complete, displaced, closed, comminuted fracture of the first phalanx of the right forelimb after he came out 5/5 lame off the racetrack.

After immobilising the leg in a splinted Robert Jones bandage you refer the horse & recommend transporting him in a float with the partitions & with the rear legs facing the trailers’ front side

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Please indicate the correct statement about what would be considered a negative response to diagnostic analgesia (both palmar & digital nerves - lateral & medial - in the left front limb are blocked) in a horse with a left front lameness.
- The left front lameness can no longer be seen after the nerve block
- The left front lameness becomes more evident after the nerve block
- The left front lameness goes away after the nerve block & the horse now shows a right front lameness
- The left front lameness markedly improves after the nerve block

The left front lameness becomes more evident after the nerve block

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Which of the following procedures would most specifically localise pain to the fetlock joint?
- Metacarpo-phalangeal joint block
- Abaxial sesamoid nerve block
- Carpo-metacarpal joint block
- Low four point (volar) nerve block

Metacarpo-phalangeal joint block

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A 3 year old TB racehorse filly has just returned from an intense work out & is exhibiting signs of colic (pawing, biting at her sides). The filly is anxious & sweating. Palpation of the hindlimb musculature reveals a painful response. What is the most appropriate initial therapy indicated for this horse?
- Cool the horse with iced water
- Fluid therapy (IV or enteral)
- NSAIDs administration (IV)
- Buscopan administration (IV)

Fluid therapy (IV or enteral)

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A horse developed acute neurologic signs consistent with spinal ataxia after falling over during a competition. The horse has normal mentation, normal cranial nerve examination & is showing signs of ataxia & proprioceptive deficits on all 4 limbs (more pronounced in the hindlimbs). What is the most likely region for neurolocalisation?

C1-C6

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Ventrolateral strabismus can be related to a deficit in which cranial nerve?
- VI abducent
- IV trochlear
- III oculomotor
- V trigeminal

III oculomotor

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Which of the following propositions is false in a case of septic arthritis?
- Local treatment is much more likely to achieve a resolution of the infection
- Without local treatment there are less chances to get a control on the infection
- Identifying the causing agent helps in defining the correct antibiotic protocol
- Without arthroscopic joint lavage, the sepsis has no chances to be controlled

Without arthroscopic joint lavage, the sepsis has no chances to be controlled

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Please indicate the correct statement about osteochondrosis in horses.
- The proximal interphalangeal joint is the most commonly affected joint
- Despite the age of the horses, lesions always progress (get larger) or stay the same overtime
- It can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason
- It is rarely bilateral so radiographing the contralateral joint is not recommended unless there are external signs of bilateral involvement e.g. bilateral lameness, bilateral joint effusion

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After a training session a TB colt presents a mild lameness & the swelling illustrated on the picture. On palpation, the affected area is warm & mildly painful. Which of the following is true?
- This is desmitis of the suspensory ligament & the horse will need to rest 7-8 months
- This is a desmitis of the palmar annular ligament & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months
- This is a tendinitis of the superficial digital flexor tendon & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months
- This is a digital flexor tendon sheath tenosynovitis & the horse should recover in 6-8 weeks

This is a tendinitis of the superficial digital flexor tendon & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months

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Which of the following statements about foot problems in horses is most correct?
- Thrush is uncommon & in almost all cases causes severe lameness
- Solar penetrating puncture wounds need to be worked up using ultrasonography
- Navicular disease is more commonly seen in older horses (>10 years old) & frequently affects both front feet
- Foot abscesses typically cause severe lameness which markedly improves within 24 hours with or without treatment

Navicular disease is more commonly seen in older horses (>10 years old) & frequently affects both front feet

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A horse with a skin laceration over the lateral mid-diaphyseal region of its radius is examined: the bleeding has stopped, the wound is contaminated with soil & wood shavings. Which of the following is most important as initial step int he management of this wound?
- Topical or systemic corticosteroids
- IV antimicrobial administration
- Careful & thorough debridement
- Application of a sterile bandage

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Which of the following statements about skin grafting is most correct?
- Full thickness grafts will not re-innervate
- An epithelial ring will be visible 1 week after grafting
- Inoculation nourishes the skin graft for the first 24 hours
- Plasmatic imbibition nourishes the skin graft for the first 24-48 hours

Plasmatic imbibition nourishes the skin graft for the first 24-48 hours

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Which of the following statements regarding wound management is most correct?
- Haemostasis & debridement are part of the first aid
- Tetanus is only a concern with distal limb wounds
- Radiography is always a compulsory tool to assess wounds
- Chemical debridement is the ideal wound cleaning technique

Haemostasis & debridement are part of the first aid

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Ophthalmic stains can be used to help identify corneal disease. Choose the option below that best describes fluorescein & Rose Bengal stains.

Fluorescein stain does not stain corneal eptihelium or Descemet’s membrane, but is absorbed by exposed stroma.
Rose Bengal assesses the integrity of the mucin layer of the pre-corneal tear film & also stains devitalised corneal epithelial cells.

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Please indicate the option with the correct names of the anatomical structures indicated by the tip of each arrow in the images above

1 = metacarpo-phalangeal joint, 2 = proximal sesamoid bone, 3 = suspensory ligament, 4 = distal sesamoidean ligament, 5 = 3rd metacarpal bone

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Which of the following is the most important complication to be ruled out when assessing the puncture wound of the sole show in the image (nail penetrating bottom of sole near frog).
- Laminitis
- Foot abscess
- Septic navicular bursitis and/or distal inter-phalangeal joint
- Pedal osteitis
- Sub solar bruise

Septic navicular bursitis and/or distal inter-phalangeal joint

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A horse is presented with a laceration to the distal limb. There was obvious leakage of fluid through the wound when the distal interphalangeal joint was injected with sterile isotonic electrolyte solution under pressure. Which of the following statements is most correct? - Daily joint lavage with a powerful antiseptic would likely reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Prolonged systemic administration of broad spectrum antibiotics (e.g. amikacin & penicillin) would be enough to eliminate the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Enrofloxacin would be a good antimicrobial choice for intra-articular administration in order to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

- Enrofloxacin would be a good antimicrobial choice for intra-articular administration in order to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

A 15 year old horse is presented with a nodule on the left thorax (see image). The owner noted that it has been present for months & it hasn't really changed. During examination, you find additional nodules on the penis & sheath. The nodules range in diameter from 1-4cm. What is the most likely clinical staging of the deramal melanomas & most appropriate treatment advice?

Staging: stage 3 Treatment: surgical excision & intralesional...

The dorsal 45 degree proximal distal oblique radiograph of the foot highlights?

The proximal margin of the navicular...

Radiograph of hoof with rotation of P3. The likely diagnosis of this horse is?

Laminitis with rotation of the distal...

Which standard radiographic projection of the tarsus highlights the most common site of osteoarthritis of the distal intertarsal & tarsometatarsal joints?

The DLPMO

Radiograph of tarsus. This projection of the tarsus is most useful for examinatin of?

The distal intermediate ridge of the tibia & the lateral trochlear ridge of the talus

When ruling out synovial involvement after a deep heel bulb laceration which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques would be most appropriate?

Contrast radiography

When is cryotherapy used as treatment for laminitis?

During the acute phase to maintain the lamellar temperature below 10 degrees celsius for at least 48hrs

Choose the best definitive diagnostic test for a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy-1 (PSSM-1).

Genetic test for the GYS1 variant on hair or blood samples

Which of the following describes upper motor neuron & lower motor neuron deficits most accuratly?

UMN = spasticity normal to increased

What is the best treatment for a horse with cranial trauma (traumatic brain injury)?

Hypertonic saline IV

What is the most likely diagnosis of a horse with protrusion of the third eyelid, a 'saw horse stance' & elevated tail head?

Tetanus

Image of large oval shaped crystal / stone.

It consists of calcium carbonate...

Please indicate the correct statement about the etiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis.

Muscle damage leading to joint damage & OA

A 6 year old horse has fallen violently in its paddock 2 hours before you evaluate it for the complaints of dullness, stumbling & "not knowing where his feet are." The owners are scared because he appears unsteady & they call you. Which of the following describes best the chronology for your initial approach?

You administer a sedative & anti-inflammatories & perform PE & start the horse on osmotic fluids & gather information

A horse showing hind-limb ataxia, bladder paresis, perineal hypalgesia but normal mentation & no muscle tremors is most likely to have been infected by which virus?

Equine Herpes Virus 1

Which of the following terms describes best the "passive absorption of nutrients" & is occurring within the appropriate time frame following skin grafting?

Plasmatic imbibition - 1-3 days after grafting

Which option best describes how NSAIDs cause nephron damage?

... prostaglandin E2

A horse is presented with signs of acute ataxia. The horse has 12hrs of turn-out to pasture per day as it is the early summer months. The horse shows Grade 4 ataxic in the hindlimbs & Grade 2 on the forelimbs, with cranial nerve deficits of the facial nerve only. You notice mild muscle fasciculations on the face & shoulders. Which of the following diseases is the most likely primary differential diagnosis?

Kunjin virus infection

A 2 day old colt was diagnosed with a bilateral stage contracture of the distal interphalangeal joint. Which of the following statements is correct? - Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs should be attempted first - Stall rest & heel extensions will likely correct the deformity - Superficial digital flexor tendon tenotomy has to be considered for a timely resolution

- Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs should be attempted first

A 5 year-old-horse presents with bilateral epistaxis, approximately 2 weeks after having pyrexia, nasal discharge and a cough for 3 days duration. Physical examination reveals: HR 44bpm, RR 16bpm, rectal temperature 37.8C, CRT 2 sec and petechiation of the oral mucosa. Prolonged bleeding after venepuncture is noticed. CBC reveals: PCV 30%, TS 56g/L, totally leukocyte count 5.4 x 10^9/L and thrombocyte count 26 x 10^9L. There were no platelet clumps seen on blood smear and the clotting times (PT and aPTT) were within normal reference ranges. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? a. Myeloproliferative disease b. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia c. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) d. Chronic haemorrhage

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

Which of the following options is an unacceptable method of euthanasia when used on its own, because it will induce loss of muscle tone prior to loss of consciousness? a. Intracardiac barbiturate injection b. Succinylcholine IM injection c. Intrathecal lignocaine d. Exsanguination e. Barbiturate IV injection

d. Exsanguination

Which of the following statements regarding enteroliths in horses is CORRECT? a. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic b. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, grass hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic. c. Most commonly found in the left dorsal colon, grass hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic. a. Most commonly found in the left dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic

a. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic

A 2-day-old foal is straining, tail flagging and occasionally in dorsal recumbency. The foal is not nursing but has passed meconium with yellow faeces present on the perineum. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate plan for this foal? a. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, digital rectal examination b. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk c. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk d. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, abdominal ultrasound, abdominal fluids, replace fluid deficits

c. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk

Ideally, euthanasia methods should result in rapid loss of (blank), followed by (blank) or (blank) arrest and the subsequent loss of (blank) function

o Consciousness, respiratory, cardiac, neurological

One of the hallmark radiographic signs of pleural effusion is that the lung is retracted from the thoracic wall and the material outside of the lung is more lucent than the lung itself. True / false?

True

You are scheduled to perform a general anaesthesia on a horse for field castration. Which of the following anaesthesia maintenance techniques would be LEAST appropriate? a. An IV infusions of midazolam, ketamine and medetomidine for up to 40-60minutes b. An IV infusion of guaifenesin, ketamine and xylazine for up to 40-60 minutes c. Inhalation anaesthesia with isoflurane and O2 for up to 40-60minutes d. Additional doses of ketamine and xylazine (1/2 to ¼ of original premedication induction doses) given every 10-15 minutes for up to 40-60 minutes.

c. Inhalation anaesthesia with isoflurane and O2 for up to 40-60minutes

A 14 yo Quarter Horse gelding presents with lethargy & a 2 day history of decreased appetite. The initial blood work & a picture of the blood sample are shown below. Which of the following statements regarding the increase in total bilirubin is correct? a. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin b. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in conjugated bilirubin c. Likely due to haemolysis leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin d. Likely due to haemolysis leading to an increase in conjugated bilirubin

a. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin

Which of the following dental conditions is most frequently associated with a marked limitation in lateral excursion of the mandible? a. Chisel mouth b. Shear mouth c. Wave mouth d. Step mouth

b. Shear mouth

Pleuropneumonia and pleural effusion cases often require thoracic drainage. Which of the following statements regarding pleural effusion and thoracic drainage in horses is CORRECT? a. The best way to determine if the chest drain can be removed is to observe the amount of fluid flowing through the drain b. It is important to perform an ultrasound examination in order to estimate continued pleural effusion and accumulation and timing of drain removal. c. In horses it is only necessary to perform thoracic drainage on one side of the thorax d. Pleural effusion should not be drained as it is often a septic effusion with fibrin build up with can result in draining tract cellulitis.

b. It is important to perform an ultrasound examination in order to estimate continued pleural effusion and accumulation and timing of drain removal.

Image of horse with large bloody wound below its eye. - An open fracture & laceration into the rostral maxillary sinus - The prognosis for a full recovery is poor - An open fracture & laceration into the ethmoid turbinates - A full thickness laceration into the oral cavity - Drainage & second intention healing are indicated

- Drainage & second intention healing are indicated

Foals should ideally have their serum IgG concentration assessed at (blank) age to allow prompt treatment with (blank) or (blank) if failure of transfer of passive immunity has been detected. a. 12-24 hours: IV plasma, systemic antimicrobials b. >36 hours: IV plasma, systemic antimicrobials c. >36 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma d. 12-24 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma

d. 12-24 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma

The pleural space always contains fluid to a degree that is visible on a radiograph to reduce lung friction against the body wall during respiration. True or False?

True

Which statement concerning small colon impactions is CORRECT? a. If treated surgically there is a low risk of postoperative salmonella shedding b. The aim of medical management is to soften the impaction, but diarrhoea may be a presenting sign c. Can be localised to small colon based on the lack of a antimesenteric band d. NSAID coverage and pain control are the most important aspects of treatment e. Affected patients typically present with nasogastric reflux

b. The aim of medical management is to soften the impaction, but diarrhoea may be a presenting sign

Which of the following lists best describes the initial assessment of the cardiovascular system of a horse with colic, in the field? a. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tent; assess the temperature of the extremities b. Auscultate the heart and lungs; rectal temperature; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tend; assess temperature pf the extremities c. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate MMs; rectal temperature and auscultate the abdomen d. Auscultate the heart and lungs; auscultate the abdomen; evaluate the MMS; check PCV, TS and lactate.

a. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tent; assess the temperature of the extremities

A 4-year-old horse presents with a poor body condition (score 2/9) is dull and lethargic with watery diarrhoea. Blood analysis reveals albumin 16g?L (ref range 28-39g/L) globulin 44g/L (ref range 20-38g/L), urea 16mmol/L (ref range 3.2-8.1mmol/L), creatinine 0.22,,p;/L (ref range 0.08-0.16 mmol/L) and neutrophils 12.9g/L (ref range 2/8-8g/L). Faecal analysis revealed no specific pathogens on culture and no helminth eggs. Which of the following is the first and most important treatment for this horse? a. IV fluid therapy b. Antimicrobial treatment with trimethoprim sulphonamide c. Withdraw food but offer fresh drink water with electrolytes d. Supplement food with psyllium and Biosponge.

a. IV fluid therapy

Which of the following statements regarding air bronchograms is CORRECT? a. An air bronchogram is a normal finding that has developed due to the increased contrast resolution that occurred when we shifted to digital imaging detectors b. Air bronchograms are a sign of bronchial wall thickening and are indicative of bronchitis c. Air bronchograms are the hallmark sigh of pleural effusion d. Air bronchograms are air filled airways that become more visible in the lung periphery due to increased contrast when surrounded by the soft tissue opacity of alveolar pulmonary infiltrates.

d. Air bronchograms are air filled airways that become more visible in the lung periphery due to increased contrast when surrounded by the soft tissue opacity of alveolar pulmonary infiltrates.

Endoscopy image with white frothy mucus / liquid. Which of the following options describes the best sample to collect & the best diagnostic test (based on the most likely disease affecting this horse)? - Nasal swab for PCR - Needle aspirate of the retropharyngeal lymph node abscess for PCR - Nasopharyngeal lavage for bacterial culture - Needle aspirate of the retro-pharyngeal lymph node abscess for culture

- Nasal swab for PCR

Which of the following upper respiratory tract obstructive disorders can be diagnosed on a resting endoscope examination? a. Epiglottal retroversion b. Lateral pharyngeal wall collapse c. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate d. Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

b. Lateral pharyngeal wall collapse

Which of the following options include the most common clinical signs of Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome (EGUS)? a. Colic, poor performance and poor haircoat b. Diarrhoea, poor performance and weight loss c. Partial anorexia, bruxism and colic d. Partial anorexia, colic and changed behaviour

d. Partial anorexia, colic and changed behaviour

What is the most important muscle of an inguinal hernia?

Vaginal ring

The lung will naturally look more opaque in expiration as compared to inspiration. True / False?

True

Which of the following statements regarding “epidermal inclusions cysts (atheromas) is CORRECT? a. Typically diagnosed using upper airway endoscopy b. Can be treated using minimal invasive techniques in the field c. Requires surgical intervention and is typically malignant d. Typically affects older horses e. Affects the dorsal conchal meatus

b. Can be treated using minimal invasive techniques in the field

Which of the following are the most common pathogens associated with acute watery diarrhoea in horses? a. Salmonella spp, Clostridium difficile and Rotavirus b. Clostridium perfrinagens (Types A and C) Clostridium difficile and Corona virus c. Clostridium difficile, Clostridium perfringens (A and C) and Clostridium septicum d. Salmonella spp, clostridium difficile and clostridium perfingens (A and C)

d. Salmonella spp, clostridium difficile and clostridium perfingens (A and C)

A horse with colic has the following in-house lab results: PCV 50%, TS 55g/L, serum lactate 5mmol/L. Which of the following options is the most likely interpretation of these results? - The lab results are normal - Dehydration & splenic contraction - 10% dehydration hypoproteinaemia - Splenic contraction & organ hypoperfusion

- 10% dehydration hypoproteinaemia

Which of the following options provides the cause of “high blowing” in the horse, the phase of respiration it occurs in and its clinical significance correctly? a. Vibration of the nares during expiration, a normal finding b. Vibration of the alar folds during inspiration, a normal finding c. Vibration of the nares during inspiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction d. Vibration of the alar folds during expiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction

d. Vibration of the alar folds during expiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction

Which of the following treatments is most effective for exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage (EIPH)? a. Oral administration of non-steroid anti-inflammatories to reduce airway inflammation b. Application of nasal dilator strip during exercise c. IV administration of a pro-coagulant such as aminocaproic acid to strenuous exercise d. Intravenous administration of furosemide before strenuous exercise

d. Intravenous administration of furosemide before strenuous exercise

Pneumo-peritoneum (free air in the abdomen) has multiple findings on radiographs. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a typical finding of pneumo-peritoneum? a. There is increased visibility of the intestinal walls b. Severe segmental dilation of the small intestine develops (two populations of bowel). c. Odd, angular gas bubbles are noted amongst the abdominal contents d. A diaphragmatic stripe sign is present

b. Severe segmental dilation of the small intestine develops (two populations of bowel).

Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to development of ‘sharp points’ in the molar/premolar region of the equine mouth? a. Are exacerbated by reduced grazing of coarse roughage b. Occur on the lingual aspect of the maxillary arcade and the buccal aspect of mandibular arcade c. Are the main reason regular routine dentistry is required d. Can cause buccal ulceration e. Occur on the buccal aspect of the maxillary arcade and the lingual aspect of the mandibular arcade

e. Occur on the buccal aspect of the maxillary arcade and the lingual aspect of the mandibular arcade

Myopathy and neuropathy are well-recognised potential complications of anaesthesia in horses. Which of the following is LEAST likely to prevent this complication from occurring? a. Monitoring arterial blood pressure and maintain mean arterial blood pressure >70 mmHg b. Use of appropriate padding and positioning of the limbs (e.g. down leg forward if in lateral recumbency). c. Use of appropriate padding and positioning of the limbs (e.g. down leg forward if in lateral recumbency). d. Removal of halters once the horse is recumbent

d. Removal of halters once the horse is recumbent

A horse presents with an extended head and neck carriage, intermittent nasal discharge, parotid region swelling and enlargement of the parotid and submandibular lymph nodes. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis and most appropriate diagnostic testing respectively? a. Guttural pouch mycosis; radiography of skull and cranial neck and ultrasonographic evaluation of the swollen regions b. Guttural pouch empyema; radiography of skull and cranial neck and ultrasonographic evaluation of the swollen regions c. Guttural pouch empyema; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity d. Guttural pouch mycosis; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity testing

c. Guttural pouch empyema; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity

Which of the following is the most important in the after care of an emergency tracheotomy? a. providing broad spectrum antimicrobials to prevent surgical site infection b. daily cleaning and replacement of the tracheostomy tube and providing incisional care c. providing broad spectrum antimicrobials to prevent lower airway infection d. nebulizing the horse with bronchodilators to prevent further lower airway collapse

b. daily cleaning and replacement of the tracheostomy tube and providing incisional care

Which of the following findings on blood work would be present in a horse with a severe acute bacterial colitis? a. leukopenia b. hyperfibrinogenemia c. Anaemia d. Leucocytosis

d. Leucocytosis

A grade 3 holo-diastolic, decrescendo murmur with the point of maximal intensity over the left heart base is auscultated in a 16-year old eventer. Which of the following options is the most likely origin of this murmur? a. tricuspid regurgitation b. aortic regurgitation c. physiological pulmonary ejection murmur d. mitral regurgitation

b. aortic regurgitation

Fill in the blanks… Radiographic signs of broncho-pneumonia are usually a(an) (blank) pattern distributed (blank). Which of the following answer combinations is most CORRECT? a. Interstitial, dorsally b. Alveolar, ventrally c. Alveolar, diffusely d. Alveolar, dorsally e. Bronchial, diffusely f. Bronchial, cranio-dorsally g. Interstitial, diffusely h. Bronchial, cranio-ventrally

c. Alveolar, diffusely

Thoracic radiographs performed after trauma can be confusing because multiple common lesions can occur simultaneously. I taught you to consider a list of five traumatically induced lesions that occur with thoracic blunt trauma to assist your interpretation. Which of the following lesions is NOT included in this list because it does not commonly occur with trauma? a. Rib fracture b. Pericardial effusion c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. All of the above e. Pulmonary contusions f. Pneumothorax g. None of the above h. Pleural effusion

b. Pericardial effusion

During total intravenous anaesthesia, assessing anaesthesia depth can be difficult in horses. Which of the following variables provide you with the LEAST valuable information regarding depth of anaesthesia? a. Muscle tone b. Arterial blood pressure c. Heart rate d. Presence of nystagmus

a. Muscle tone

Which combination of clinical and laboratory findings would be MOST supportive of the need for fluid therapy, in a horse you suspect is hypovolaemic?

Increased HR, increased PCV, increased blood lactate, increased capillary refill time

Which of the following are the morphological and possible physiological characteristics of a premature/dysmature foal? a. Morphological: overgrown foal, floppy ears, domed forehead and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, normal GI tract, poor thermoregulation, wear or normal suckle reflex, entropion. b. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, cleft palate and short fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature Gi tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, normal eyes. c. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, domed head and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature GI tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, entropion. d. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, cleft palate and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature Gi tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, normal eyes.

c. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, domed head and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature GI tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, entropion.

Which of the following cell types are most likely to be elevated in the respiratory secretions of a horse with moderate equine asthma? a. eosinophils b. macrophages c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils

d. neutrophils

Image of tear in the rectal mucosa (from rectal exam) with some haemorrage. What is the recommended treatment? - Antimicrobials, laxatives, daily inspection & evacuation of rectum - Immediate euthanasia due to grave prognosis - Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, rectal enema & referral - Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, suture of tear & rectal packing - Antimicrobials, laxatives, rectal liner, daily inspection & evacuation of rectum

- Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, rectal enema & referral

A 48hr old colt is dull & not nursing well. Haematology reveals a moderate leukopenia with a left shift neutropenia, moderate toxic change & an IgG concentration of 5g/L. What is the most likely differential diagnosis & diagnostic test to help you confirm your suspicion?

Differential diagnosis: failure of passive transfer Diagnostic test: Antibody Test (IgG)

A neonatal foal hasn’t been observed to urinate since foaling (approximately 24 hours ago) and a ruptured bladder is suspected. Which of the following diagnostic findings confirms the diagnosis of a uroperitoneum? a. Transabdominal ultrasonography and with evidence of an increase in free peritoneal fluid b. Urine analysis and culture c. Systemic creatinine two times higher than peritoneal fluid creatinine d. Peritoneal fluid creatinine two times higher than systemic creatinine.

d. Peritoneal fluid creatinine two times higher than systemic creatinine.

What is the main cause of hypoxaemia in horses undergoing colic surgery? - Anaemia - Lung oedema - Hypoventilation - Lung atelectasis

- Hypoventilation

Which of the following is the most likely life threatening side effect in horses medicated with phenylbutazone? - Proximal enteritis - Right dorsal colitis - Gastric ulceration - Anaphylaxis

- Gastric ulceration

NSAIDs exert their anti-inflammatory effect through inhibition of: - The cyclo-oxygenase pathway - Neither the cyclo-oxygenase & lipo-oxygenase pathway - Both the cyclo-oxygenase & lipo-oxygenase pathway - The lipo-oxygenase pathway

- The cyclo-oxygenase pathway

Which of the following measures is an appropriate treatment method of post castration haemorrhage? - Forced exercise - Topical hydrogen peroxide - Clamping testicular artery - Systemic antimicrobials - Hosing

- Clamping testicular artery

Identify the most common complication of equine castration: - Septic funiculitis - Oedema - Omental prolapse - Intestinal evisceration - Hydrocele

- Oedema

Which of the following emasculator type allows for a separate crushing & cutting of the spermatic cord using a separate handle? - Serra - White - Reimers - Haussman - Henderson

- Reimers

A hydrocele formation is associated with the following... - More frequent in mules & donkeys - Closed castration technique - Painless swelling over scrotal area - Firm & painful scrotal swelling

- Painless swelling over scrotal area

Eruption of permanent incisor 203 has occurred by what age in the horse?

5 years

A 500kg TB mare has had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days & is now estimated to be 6% dehydrated. What volume of fluid is needed to correct the fluid deficit?

30L

What clinical feature is the most sensitive indicator of adequate fluid replacement in profoundly dehydrated horses? - 50% reduction in serum lactate concentration - Increasing arterial blood pressure - Normalisation of PCV & total serum protein concentration - Resumption of normal urine output

- Resumption of normal urine output

You have decided to administer IV fluids to a horse for management of dehydration. Which one of the following findings would indicate to you that your fluid replacement plan had been successful? - The horse starts drinking from its water bucket - The horse starts urinating - The horse's rectal temperature returns to normal - The horse's appetite returns

- The horse starts urinating

How can hypovolaemia be best distinguished from dehydration when performing a clinical examination? - The horse is depressed, CRT 2-3s & cold extremities - The horse is mildly depressed, skin turgor 2 sec & heart rate 52 bpm - The horse is depressed, mucous membranes are tacky & CRT 2 sec - The horse is depressed, tacky mucous membranes & skin turgor 1 sec

- The horse is depressed, CRT 2-3s & cold extremities

Which is the most appropriate type & route of fluid administration to an adult horse with profuse, watery diarrhoea & signs of hypovolaemia? - Synthetic colloid given orally - Water with 5% dextrose given orally - Isotonic bicarbonate fluid given IV - Isotonic crystalloid fluid given IV

- Isotonic crystalloid fluid given IV

What is the most appropriate fluid therapy regimen for a cardiovascularly stable 500kg horse with an uncomplicated impaction of the left ventral colon? - Encourage access to free water containing salt solution - Repeat fluid boluses 8-10L isotonic fluid given via nasogastric tube - Continuous rate enteric fluid therapy with hypotonic fluids at a rate of 5L/h via an indwelling nasogastric tube - Repeat administration of 20L fluid bolus of IV crystalloid solution

- Repeat fluid boluses 8-10L isotonic fluid given via nasogastric tube

A horse is presented with a laceration to the distal limb. There was obvious leakage of fluid through the wound when the distal inter-phalangeal joint was injected with sterile saline under pressure. Which of the following statements is most correct? - Prolonged systemic administration of gentamicin & penicillin would prevent the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Intra-articular gentamicin administration is a good choice to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness - Joint lavage with 0.1% iodine solution would likely reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

- Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

Radiograph of joint in one day old foal. Lots of individual little bones which look like they're floating. What is the diagnosis?

Incomplete ossification of carpal bones

What is a false statement regarding the intra-articular use of glucocorticoids in the management of degenerative joint disease? - They prevent "post-injection flares" - They are statistically associated with an increased risk of laminitis - They don't cause detrimental effects on inflamed or abnormal joints when used judiciously - They must be used with caution as they are regulated drugs

- They prevent "post-injection flares"

What is the correct statement about a negative response to diagnostic palmar digital nerves anaesthesia of the left front limb in a horse with a left front limb lameness. - The left front lameness is less severe - The left front lameness is as severe - The left front lameness shifts to a right front lamaness - The left front lameness is more severe

- The left front lameness is as severe

You have performed a low 4 point nerve block. There is no improvement in lameness & you are suspicious that the nerve block has not worked effectively. Which of the following is not a reason for failure to respond to diagnostic analgesia? - Source of lameness located proximal to the site of anaesthesia - Subchondral bone pain - Inaccurate needle placement - Proximal diffusion of the local anaesthetic

- Proximal diffusion of the local anaesthetic

What is the correct affirmation about the management of septic arthritis in an adult horse? - Arthroscopic joint lavage performed on the patient under general anaesthesia increases the success rate by 80% - Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials performed on a standing sedated patient provides an inexpensive & often successful alternative - Joint lavage performed on the patient under general anaesthesia is essential to a successful control on the infection - A prolonged general antimicrobial therapy can be expensive but often leads to a positive control of the infection

- Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials performed on a standing sedated patient provides an inexpensive & often successful alternative

A 3 year old mare developed sudden onset of stiffness, sweating & is very anxious after training. The HR is 58bpm, RR36bpm, MM are pink but sticky, gut sounds are decreased & rectal temp is 37.9. 2 hours later the serum biochemistry reveals a CK of 480,000 IU/L& AST 666 IU/L. What is the tentative diagnosis?

Exertional rhabdomyolysis

Radiograph of proximal inter-phalangeal joint with wispy / furry looking bone. How do you describe in radiology terms the remodeling shown?

Subchondral bone sclerosis

A 6 month old SB colt is presented with effusion of the left stifle & 1/5 left hind limb lameness with no apparent trauma. What is the most appropriate diagnostic procedure & likely diagnosis?

A latero-medial (LM) radiograph of the stifle to identify an OCD of the lateral ridge of the trochlea of the femur

Which of the following options is the common reason for graft failure & wound dehiscence? - Infection - Excessive pressure from bandage - Inadequate NSAID therapy - Inadequate antimicrobial therapy - Exuberant granulation tissue

- Infection

Which of the following procedures would most specifically localise pain to the fetlock joint cavity? - Abaxial sesamoid nerve anaesthesia - Carpo-metacarpal joint anaesthesia - Metacarpo-phalangeal joint anaesthesia - Low 4 point palmar anaesthesia

- Metacarpo-phalangeal joint anaesthesia

Which of the following diagnostic procedures is not indicated for the investigation of a lameness that resolved after a palmar digital nerve block? - Distal interphalangeal joint anaesthesia - Ultrasonographic examination of the collateral ligaments of the fetlock joint - Radiographic examination of the podotrochlear apparatus - MRI of the distal interphalangeal joint

- Distal interphalangeal joint anaesthesia

Which of the following steps is most critical when dealing with a lower limb laceration of a horse? - Systemic antimicrobial coverage - Debridement of all non-vital & contaminated tissues - Immobilisation of the limb using a Robert Jones bandage - Rule out any synovial structure involvement

- Rule out any synovial structure involvement

Which of the following statements about fracture immobilisation by a splint is true? The splint should: - Be placed at the palmar aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture - Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal hindlimb fracture - Not be placed to stabilise an open fracture - Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture

- Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture

A 2yo SB filly is presented with a semi-circumferential laceration of the right front leg with a complete section of the common digital extensor tendon. Which prognosis can be given to the owner? - 20% chance to survive & euthanasia is recommended - 80% change to survive but her racing career is over - 80% change to survive & to fully recover for racing - 50% chance to survive & 50% change to be sound for racing

- 80% change to survive & to fully recover for racing

Inclement weather (low temperatures, wind & rain) may lead to weight loss because: - It increases the competition for food among herd mates - Horses are unable to digest & absorb nutrients as efficiently - It increases the digestible energy requirements - It induces partial anorexia

- It increases the digestible energy requirements

A 7yo show jumping horse presents an acute lameness of the left front limb & a painful warm effusion of the left front fetlock joint 6 days after an intra-articular injection with 5mg of triamcinilone. What lab test will 100% confirm an infection of this joint? - Elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) in synovial fluid sample - A positive culture of synovial fluid sample - Elevated cell count & total protein in synovial fluid sample - Reduced glucose & pH in synovial fluid sample

- Elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) in synovial fluid sample

Laminitis caused by endocrinopathic or metabolic dysfunction is associated with which of the following pathophysiological processes? - Hyperglycaemia - Triglyceride dysregulation - Insulin dysregulation - Hypercortisolaemia

- Insulin dysregulation

Dysphagia & muscle fasciculations in a horse without fever is most likely caused by: - Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) - Hendra virus infection - Exertional rhabdomyolysis - Kunjin encephalitis virus infection

- Kunjin encephalitis virus infection

Which form of ataxia is related to a horse that demonstrates ataxia without intention tremor or head tilt? - Cerebellar - Trigeminal - Spinal - Vestibular

- Spinal

A horse showing hind-limb ataxia, bladder paresis, perineal hypalgesia but normal mentation & no muscle tremors is most likely to have been infected by which virus? - Kunjin virus - Equine herpes virus 1 - Rabies virus - Ross river virus

- Equine herpes virus 1

Which of the following tests is most beneficial in determining whether a neurologic horse is demonstrating signs of paresis? - Obstacle course - Tail pull while walking - Blindfolding - Standing tail pull

- Tail pull while walking

Which of the following methods would be the most appropriate & fastest way of preparing a healthy granulation bed for skin grafting when presented with a chronic, fully granulated "degloving" wound over the dorsal aspect of the third metatarsal bone? - Wound lavage using sterile saline at a pressure of 18psi - Trim excess epithelial lining - Cleaning & chemical debridement using 50% hydrogen peroxide - Bone rasping & blunt debridement - Trim excess granulation tissue

- Trim excess granulation tissue

In relation to the detection of a patent adult tapeworm infestation in an individual horse, the McMasters faecal egg count can be considered as having:

High sensitivity & low specificity

Which of the following skin grafting techniques represents a full thickness island graft that is associated with a high success rate? - Punch graft - Mesh graft - Pinch graft - Tunnel graft - Sheet graft

- Punch graft

Which of the following anthelmintic drugs is effective against encysted larval stages of the Cyathostome nematodes? - Ivermectin - Praziquantel - Oxfendazole - Moxidectin

- Moxidectin

A horse presents with a penetrating soft tissue injury & an unknown vaccination history. What is the appropriate recommendation regarding tetanus prophylaxis at this time? - Administer tetanus toxoid now, with a second dose given 4-6 weeks later - Administer tetanus toxoid now & wait 7 days to administer tetanus antitoxin - Administer both tetanus antitoxin & toxoid now followed by a second dose of toxoid 4-6 weeks later

- Administer both tetanus antitoxin & toxoid now followed by a second dose of toxoid 4-6 weeks later

In which of the following phases of the wound healing process does wound contraction occur? - Inflammation phase - Debridement & remodeling phase - Inflammation & debridement phase - Proliferation & maturation phase - Debridement phase

- Proliferation & maturation phase

Which of the following factors will delay formation of exuberant granulation tissue significantly? - Exposed muscle fascia - Bandaging - Topical antimicrobials - Exposed bone - Wound contraction

- Exposed bone

What is the most important technical aspect of an episioplasty on a maiden-mare to ensure a long breeding career? - Perform a wide breeding stitch - Excise only as thin muscle layer - Use an absorbable suture material - Excise only a thin muco-cutaneous layer

- Excise only a thin muco-cutaneous layer

Which 2 disease categories account for ~50% of cases of weight loss in adult horses? - Parasites & dental disorders - Hepatopathy & neoplasia - Digestive disorders & renal disease - Abdominal infection & PPID / Cushing's

- Parasites & dental disorders

Which would be the most economical first approach to a weight loss case, without any localising signs of disease? - Rectal exam, abdo US, abdominocentesis, CBC & biochem - Dental exam, rebreathing exam, feacal egg count, CBC & biochem - Dental exam, rectal exam, faecal egg count, abdo US & abdominocentesis - Abdo radiographs, rectal exam, rebreathing exam, faecal egg count & gastroscopy

- Dental exam, rebreathing exam, feacal egg count, CBC & biochem

Which of the following statment is true about the perineal laceration of the above illustrated degree? - It should be repaired after 10-15 days to minimise the risk of dehiscence - It should be repaired within 48 hours to minimise the risk of dehiscence - It should be repaired with the mare under general anaesthesia - If not repaired can lead to persistent contamination of the vagina & infertility

- It should be repaired after 10-15 days to minimise the risk of dehiscence

How many days after wounding would you expect to see first evidence of granulation tissue formation? - 3-4 days - 1-2 days - 14-21 days - 10-12 days - 6-7 days

- 14-21 days

What 2 structures are anastomosed during surgical correction of a priapism in a stallion? - Corpus spongiosum & ischeocavernosus - Corpus spongiosum & bulbospongiosum - Corpus cavernosum & corpus spongiosum - Corpus cavernosum & tunica albuginea

- Corpus cavernosum & corpus spongiosum

Which of the following neoplastic conditions is most common on the equine penis? - Squamous cell carcinoma - Sarcoid - Habronema - Adenoma - Melanoma

- Squamous cell carcinoma

Which statement is true about urolithiasis in horses? - Uroliths can't be efficiently dissolved or prevented with an alkalinizing diet - Uroliths can be efficiently dissolved or prevented with an acidifying diet - Type II uroliths are less common but occur at several other locations of the urinary tract in 50% cases - Type I uroliths are yellow green colour, spiculated & more common

- Type I uroliths are yellow green colour, spiculated & more common

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is effective when administered via the oral route in horses? - Penicillin - Amikacin - Gentamicin - Ceftiofur - Trimethoprim sulfonamide

- Trimethoprim sulfonamide

In regards to compounding antimicrobials please select the most accurate statement. - Compounded medications are considerably cheaper than labelled formulations & their affordable cost outweight the risks - If purchased from a reliable company, there are no disadvantages in using this cheaper formulation, in comparison to the labelled formulation - Compounded medications are not subject to rigorous assessment for product quality, efficacy & safety & should be avoided - Compounded medications should never be used

- Compounded medications are not subject to rigorous assessment for product quality, efficacy & safety & should be avoided

Which fo the following drug combinations administered systemically is LEAST likely to increase the risk of renal damage due to NSAID toxicity? - Oxytetracycline & phenylbutazone - Furosemide & flunixin - Gentamicin & phenylbutazone - Penicillin & phenylbutazone - Amikacin & flunixin meglumine

- Penicillin & phenylbutazone

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is true? - Gentamicin is a time-dependent drug - Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug - Enrofloxacin is a time-dependent drug - Amikacin is a time-dependent drug - Penicillin is a concentration dependent drug

- Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug

Which of the following dietary management protocols is most appropriate for treatment of equine metabolic syndrome? - Provide a diet primarily of long-stemmed fibre & provde carbs at 15-20% of daily intake - Limit soluble carbs & soak hay prior to feeding to limit the amount of carbs ingested - Feed primarily lucerne hay but recommend a grazing muzzle to limit the amount of fresh grass consumed during pasture turn-out - Feed grass hay & allow no more than 50% of the day for grazing fresh grass in pasture

- Limit soluble carbs & soak hay prior to feeding to limit the amount of carbs ingested

What is the mechanism of action of pergolide in relation to the treatment for pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)? - A GABA agonist - A serotonin agonist - A dopamine agonist - A POMC agonist

- A dopamine agonist

A 3 month old foal is presented with pyrexia, cough & nasal discharge. The foal & its mother are housed in a dry lot with 3 other mares & their foals. Clinical examination of the foal shows increased resp rate & increased bronchovesicular sounds. Lab studies show leucocytosis with neutrophilia. Radiographs show a prominent alveolar pattern characterised by ill-defined regional consolidation. The most likely cause is?

Rhodococcus equi

Photo of horse with arrow pointing to side of face (upper cheekbone area). Which cranial nerve is most likely affected? - V trigeminal - VII facial - III oculomotor - I olfactory

- VII facial

An endurance horse has just finished a 160km ride & is presented with colic signs & a high body temp (40.8 degrees celsius). What is the preferred treatment? - Cooling - Enteral fluid therapy - Flunixin meglumine - Detomidine

- Cooling

At least what percentage of their bodyweight in forage (dry matter) does a horse need to consume daily in order to maintain appropriate GI health?

Which of the following is the least likely explanation for a positive bacterial culture from a tracheal wash, taken via endoscopy from a horse with severe equine asthma? - Contamination of the sample due to non-aseptic technique - Primary bacterial infection - Normal upper respiratory tract flora - Opportunistic secondary bacterial infection

- Primary bacterial infection

Which of the following is the most likely source of bleeding in a horse with exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage? - Pulmonary vasculature; cranioventral lung lobes - Pulmonary vasculature; caudodorsal lung lobes - Bronchial vasculature; cranioventral lung lobes - Bronchial vasculature; caudodrsal lung lobes

- Pulmonary vasculature; caudodorsal lung lobes

Which diagnostic tool is most useful to confirm a definitive diagnosis of equine asthma? - Tracheal wash - Endoscopy - Bronchoalveolar lavage - Nasopharyngeal swab

- Bronchoalveolar lavage

Which of the following is the most common cause of systolic murmurs on the right side of the thorax in the horse? - Ventricular septal defect - Aortic regurgitation - Tricuspid regurgitation - Mitral regurgitation

- Tricuspid regurgitation

Which of the following best represents normal equine urine?

Cloudy, pH 8.0, urine dipstick 1+ protein

Which of the following is the most likely cause of a dorsally radiating holosystolic murmur auscultated over the left apex of the heart?

Mitral valve regurgitation

During a routine clinical examination of a 10 year old eventer you note an early grade 2 systolic murmur that does not extend to S2 & is localised over the heart base. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

It is likely a murmur of aortic valve insufficiency; the horse should have an echocardiogram

Which of the following statements about GI macromolecule absorption in the neonate is most accurate?

Intestinal macromolecule absorption is greatest before 6hr age & reduces to zero by 24-36hr

The periocular lesions (shown in the image) have been present for the past 6-9 months but the owner has recently noticed additional nodules. What is the most likely diagnosis & most appropriate treatment? - Verrucous sarcoid; cryotherapy - Occult sarcoid; intra & perilesional BCG injections - Nodular sarcoid; intra & peri-lesional BCG injections - Nodular sarcoid; intra & perilesional cisplatin injections

- Nodular sarcoid; intra & perilesional cisplatin injections

Gastric reflux is considered significant in horses when the pH is more (blank) & (blank) of net reflux is obtained at anytime.

Alkaline >4

During a routine rectal exam in a horse what will be palpable in the left dorsal & right dorsal abdominal quadrants respectively?

- Spleen, kidney, nephrosplenic space; caecum with one taenial bands

A variety of techniques should be used to ensure a nasogastric tube is correctly placed within the oesophagus. Which of the following options is NOT a consistent method?

The horse will cough when you pass the tube into the trachea. Therefore absence of a cough ensures correct placement

During a rectal exam of a horse with mild to moderate colic you feel a structure with dough-like ingesta in the left ventral abdominal quadrant extending towards the right. Choose the most likely diagnosis: - Pelvic flexure & left ventral colon impaction - Left dorsal displacement of the large colon - Right dorsal displacement of the large colon - Caecal impaction - Ileal impaction

- Caecal impaction

A 36hr old foal has a history of not nursing & progressive weakness. On presentation the foal is recumbent & dull. Physical exam reveals a rectal temp of 36.8, HR of 140bpm, resp rate 38bpm, congested mucous membranes with CRT of 3 sec, serum lactate of 4mmol/L & glucose of 4.2mmol/L. CBC & biochem revealed a moderate leucopenia with a left shift neutrophilia & presence of cytoplasmic vacuolation of neutrophils as well as mild azotaemia. Appropriate treatment plan?

Measure IgG concentrations, ultrasound abdomen, start on maintenance IV fluids using 0.45% NaCl & 5% dextrose

Which of the following is a key advantage of field exercise testing compared with treadmill exercise testing? - Environmental conditions can be easily controlled - Horses can be exercised to fatigue - Competition or racing conditions can be easily replicated - Resp measurements including breathing frequency, tidal volume & minute ventilation can be easily performed

- Competition or racing conditions can be easily replicated

Energy regulation involves a complex interaction of various body systems. Dysregulation of any of the regulatory systems in neonates commonly results in: - Hypothermia - Hypotension - Hypoglycaemia - Hypoproteinaemia

- Hypoglycaemia

A 4 day old foal is evaluated for being dull & not nursing well. Physical exam reveals slightly injected MM, a rectal temp of 39.5 & effusion of the tarsocrural joint. Septicaemia is suspected secondary to failure of passive transfer of immunity. What is the most appropriate action prior to referral?

Replace fluid deficits including a 1L plasma transfusion & treat with Na penicillin & gentamicin

During a rectal exam of a horse with severe colic you feel a severely distended colon just cranial to the pelvis, coursing in a horizontal direction. Choose the most likely diagnosis from the list below. - Pelvic flexure & left ventral colon impaction - Left dorsal displacement of the large colon - Right dorsal displacement of the large colon - Large colon volvulus - Caecal impaction

- Large colon volvulus

Oxygen insufflation in a neonate should be instituted when the PaO2 is:

<60mmHg

The normal resp & HR range in a neonatal foal <12hr of age is: - 20-30 breaths per min, 100-120 bpm - 40-50 breaths per min, 80-100 bpm - 30-40 breaths per min, 80-120 bpm - 10-20 breaths per min, 60-80 bpm

- 40-50 breaths per min, 80-100 bpm

Which of the following is NOT a cause of neonatal pneumonia? - Rhodococcus equi - Equine herpes virus 1 - Chlamydia psittaci - Mixed bacterial population including anaerobes

- Rhodococcus equi

Which of the following cardiac findings are most likely to affect athletic performance negatively in a TB racehorse? - Grade 3/6 tricuspid regurgitation - Persistent atrial fibrillation - 2nd degree AV block at rest - Grade 2/6 mitral regurgitation

- Persistent atrial fibrillation

Which of the following therapies is associated with the development of acute tubular necrosis in horses?

Amikacin

A 3yo racehorse is presented for investigation of poor performance during his last race. Clinical exam reveals a HR of 32 with occasional dropped beats & a grade 2/6 systolic murmur over the right heart base. The resting resp rate is 12 breaths per min & he has a 1/5 left forelimb lameness during trot in a straight line. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to perform next? - Echocardiography - A more detailed lameness exam - Endoscopic examination of the airways - A resting electrocardiogram (ECG)

- A more detailed lameness exam

Choose the most appropriate practical method to assess a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM):

Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4-6 hours after 15 min of exercise

Which of the following are the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis? - Hypoperfusion, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use - Severe rhabdomyolysis, NSAID use, ascending bacterial infection - Severe rhabdomyolysis, NSAID use, beta lactam antimicrobial use - Ascending bacterial infection, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use - NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use, immune-complex disease

- Hypoperfusion, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use

The repeated episodes of uveal inflammation that characterise equine recurrent uveitis are associated with what inciting factor? - The presence of intraocular neoplastic tissue - Dysregulation of the host immune system resulting in abnormal responses to uveal autoantigens - Recurrent bouts of systemic inflammation - The activity of bacterial & leukocyte antiproteases degrading uveal tissue

- Dysregulation of the host immune system resulting in abnormal responses to uveal autoantigens

Choose the correct description for the ocular abnormalities present in photo A & the abnormality identified by the arrow in photo B.

A = right sided ptosis B = hypopyon

Choose the most suitable treatment and prognosis for the ulcerative keratitis depicted below. - Topical chloramphenicol ointment q4-6h, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days - No treatment required, just keep the eye covered using a fly mask; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days - Place a subpalpebral lavage system, topical chloramphenicol drops q2hr, systemic NSAIDs; guarded prognosis likely to require long term intensive treatment - Topical triple antimicrobial ointment q6-8hr, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days

- Topical triple antimicrobial ointment q6-8hr, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days

A 14yo horse is examined because of weight loss & partial anorexia. Clinical exam is normal except for severe dental tartar & oral erosions. Which of the following results confirms the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in this horse?

An elevation of serum creatinine & BUN in combination with a USG between 1.008-1.012

Please indicate the correct statement about management of septic arthritis. - Arthroscopic lavage of the joint increases the chances for full recovery by 80% - Prolonged systemic antimicrobial therapy can control the infection - Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials is inexpensive & can easily be performed on a standing horse - Joint lavage is essential but requires general anaesthesia

- Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials is inexpensive & can easily be performed on a standing horse

The most common causes of icterus in adult horses are: - Haemolysis, liver disease & anorexia - Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), blood loss anaemia & haemolysis - Sepsis, hyperlipaemia & anorexia - Hyperbilirubina, phototoxins & lymphoma

- Haemolysis, liver disease & anorexia

Please indicate the correct statement about osteochondrosis in horses. - OCD is rarely bilateral, therefore, after OCD is diagnosed in one joint, radiographic examination of the contralateral joint is not recommended - OCD can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason - Despite the age of the horse, OCD lesions may progress (get larger) or stay the same overtime - The proximal interphalangeal joint is the most commonly affected joint

- OCD can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason

Choose the most appropriate method to assess a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM): - Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4 to 6 hours after 15 min of exercise - Serum CK & AST concentrations when showing signs of muscle pain at rest - Serum CK & AST concentrations, half hour after 15 min of exercise - Serum CK concentration 4 hours after 15 min of exercise & serum AST concentration 2 weeks after exercise

- Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4 to 6 hours after 15 min of exercise

Please indicate the correct statement regarding angular limb deformities (ALD) in foals - Growth retardation techniques would occur on the short (concave) side of the bone & would not overcorrect - ALD of the fetlock can be treated conservatively within the first 3 months of age - Carpal / tarsal valgus & fetlock varus are most common - Conservative therapy would include forced exercise of the foal

- Carpal / tarsal valgus & fetlock varus are most common

Please indicate the correct statement about horse gaits - Gallop is a four beat symmetric gait with a suspension phase - Walk is a four beat symmetric gait with a suspension phase - Canter is a three beat assymetric gait with a suspension phase - Trot is a two beat symmetric gait without a suspension phase

- Canter is a three beat assymetric gait with a suspension phase

Which of the following statements would best describe a horse with chronic kidney disease? - Weight loss, anuria, hyponatraemia, azotaemia & hyposthenuria - Weight loss, anuria, hyponatraemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria - Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria - Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & hyposthenuria

- Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria

Please indicate the most distal nerve block that would likely anaesthetise the whole foot - Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon) - Palmar digital nerve blocked at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (abaxial nerve block) - Palmar digital (PD) nerve block at the level of the pastern - High 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves close to the carpometacarpal joint)

- Palmar digital nerve blocked at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (abaxial nerve block)

Please indicate the correct option regarding the interpretation of the radiograph of a one-day old foal (bones which are floating in space / look like ice cubes) - Asymmetric growth of metaphysis & epiphysis - Septic arthritis, collapsed carpal bones - Incomplete ossification of carpal bones - Adequate ossification of carpal bones

- Incomplete ossification of carpal bones

A newborn foal is presented with a patent urachus which developed 4 days after birth. Which of the following is an indicator for surgical ablation of the umbilical remnants? - The foal is a male & the urachus is unlikely to close spontaneously - The foal has a leukocytosis & elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) concentration - The ultrasound examination of the umbilicus revealed an abnormal enlargement of the umbilical vein - During urination more urine is passed from the urachus than the urethra

- The ultrasound examination of the umbilicus revealed an abnormal enlargement of the umbilical vein

A show jumper is presented for investigation of poor performance. He is reported to rush at fences & is reluctant to work with the head & neck flexed. A resting examination was unremarkable & the horse appears to be sound at walk & trot in a straight line & during lunged exercise. What would be the most appropriate next step? - Full blood profile - Exercising electrocardiogram - Further lameness examination using a Lameness Locator - Endoscopic examination of the respiratory tract

- Endoscopic examination of the respiratory tract

After an intense training session a TB colt presented with mild lameness & swellin over the palmar mid-metacarpal soft tissue area of his left foreleg. On palpation, the affected mid-metacarpal area is warm & mildly painful. Which of the following is true about this case? - Immediate cold therapy, support bandage & anti-inflammatory therapy are indicated - This is likely a lesion within the digital flexor tendon sheath & the horse should recover in 2 weeks - Desmotomy of the palmar annular ligament is indicated & the colt should be back in training in 4 months - This is likely desmitis of the suspensory ligament (M. interosseous) & may be treated with stem cell injections

- Immediate cold therapy, support bandage & anti-inflammatory therapy are indicated

A 1 year old horse suddenly started exhibiting right hind lameness & right hock effusion. Radiographic evaluation revealed a loose osteochondral fragment in the tarsocrural (i.e. tibiotarsal joint). Please indicate the most likely disease & the best therapeutic approach for this horse. - Septic arthritis, antibiotic therapy plus immobilisation - Osteochondrosis, anti-inflammatories plus stall rest - Septic arthritis, antibiotics & arthroscopic surgery - Osteochondrosis, arthroscopic surgery

- Osteochondrosis, arthroscopic surgery

24 hours post insemination a mare was examined. She received 1.25mg of deslorelin at insemination. On palpation per rectum the cervix was relaxed, uterus relaxed, left ovary had a 42mm soft follicle & on the right ovary follicles were palpated. Per rectum ultrasound showed the following. What action plan is recommended for this mare?

Re-examine the mare the next day to confirm ovulation

Fractional excretion (FE) of electrolytes is a sensitive method for evaluation of overall nephron function. Which of the following FE combinations is most likely in a horse with acute kidney injury? - FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, Fek - 45%, FEca - 0.5% - FEna - 0.3%, FEcl - 1%, FEk - 73%, FEca - 3% - FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, FEk - 45%, FEca - 11% - FEna - 0.3%, FEcl - 1%, FEk - 8%, FEca - 3%

- FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, FEk - 45%, FEca - 11%

A mare that aborted yesterday is presented to the clinic with foetid vaginal discharge. On physical examination her temperature was 38.5, respiration was 20 breath/min, HR was 40bpm. MM were pink & moist, CRT 2 seconds. Palpation of the forelimbs showed an increase in digital pulses. No injuries were noticed on perineal area examination & foetal membranes palpated within the vagina. What treatment will be recommended for this mare? - Administer broad spectrum antibiotics for 10 days - Administer broad spectrum antibiotics, flunixin meglumine & oxytocin, perform uterine lavages, apply ice boots & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface - Initiate an oxytocin drip, infuse the uterus with antibiotics & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface - Administer oxytocin every 2h until she expels the foetal membrane

- Administer broad spectrum antibiotics, flunixin meglumine & oxytocin, perform uterine lavages, apply ice boots & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface

Please indicate the factor that has the most negative impact on the prognosis in horses with long bone fractures in the proximal limbs. - 6 hours travel to the nearest referral centre - Diagnosed & referral 8 days after the fracture - Horse age >8 years - Bodyweight more than 250-300kg

- Bodyweight more than 250-300kg

Provide 2 advantages & 2 disadvantages of arthroscopic lavage to manage septic synovitis.

Advantages: - Higher success rate - Better visualisation of the joint Disadvantages: - Requires specialist surgeon - Expensive

Please indicate the correct statement about the morphology & physiology of synovial joints - In mature horses, the articular cartilage is supplied by vessels & nerves which explains why arthritis causes so much pain - Synovial fluid is produced mostly by the chondrocytes - The subchondral bone provides physical support & nutrition to the deep layers of the articular cartilage - The only function of the synovial fluid is lubrication of articular cartilages

- The subchondral bone provides physical support & nutrition to the deep layers of the articular cartilage

Please indicate the correct statement about the aetiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis - Septic arthritis can only cause significant damage to the articular cartilage & lead to osteoarthritis if left untreated - Malnutrition leading to growth retardation is a very common cause of osteoarthritis, thus adequate nutrition can markedly reduce the prevalence of osteoarthritis - Major joint instability due to ligament damage will lead to osteoarthritis - Because articular cartilage is capable of self repair, wear & tear is rarely the cause of osteoarthritis

- Major joint instability due to ligament damage will lead to osteoarthritis

A horse with an obvious (AAEP grade 3) left front lameness was subjected to a palmar digital (PD) nerve block of the left forelimb. Please watch the videos below showing the horse trotting before & after the nerve block & indicate the correct statement about the response to the block. - After the block the horse started exhibiting even more severe left front lameness (AAEP grade 5) - After the block the horse exhibited marked improvement of the left front limb lameness - The block resolved the left front limb lameness & the horse started exhibiting obvious right front lameness (AAEP grade 3) - The block did not change anything & after the block the horse exhibited a very obvious left front lameness similar to what the horse was exhibiting before the block

- After the block the horse exhibited marked improvement of the left front limb lameness

Please indicate the correct statement about surgical ankylosis (arthrodesis) - It is a good method to relieve pain in low motion joints with end-stage degenerative joint disease - It means the end of the sport career of the horse in all cases - It is the method of choice to restore the function of the metacarpophalangeal joint of sport horses with end-stage degenerative joint disease - It is the only option to relieve pain associated with end-stage degenerative joint disease

- It is a good method to relieve pain in low motion joints with end-stage degenerative joint disease

A 2yo filly is being treated with penicillin & phenylbutazone for a respiratory infection. After 7 days she develops mild anaemia, peripheral oedema & petechiation of mucous membranes. Which option would be the most logical decision? - Vaccinate against Streptococcus equi equi - Continue penicillin treatment since a Streptococcus equi equi infection is suspected - Postpone performing a skin biopsy - Administer a high dose of corticosteroids

- Administer a high dose of corticosteroids

Please indicate the correct answer about the surgical procedure illustrated in the drawing below (vagina being sutured closed) - Reconstruction of the perineal body; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; better if performed with epidural anaesthesia - Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; easy to perform with local anaesthesia - Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina and/or urovagina; better if performed with epidural anaesthesia - Reconstruction of the perineal body; indicated in mares with pneumovagina and/or urovagina; easy to perform with local

- Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; easy to perform with local anaesthesia

What is the most appropriate treatment regime for a horse with recurrent airway obstruction (RAO)? - Low dust environment, bronchodilator and corticosteroids - Low dust environment, bronchodilator and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory - Low dust environment, antibiotics and corticosteroids - Low dust environment, antibiotics and bronchodilator

- Low dust environment, bronchodilator and corticosteroids

How can RAO be best distinguished from inflammatory airway disease during the clinical examination? - Based on bronchoalveolar lavage findings. Horses with RAO will have a higher proportion of neutrophils - Horses with RAO will cough, whilst horses with IAD will not - Horses with RAO will have evidence of increased respiratory effort at rest, whilst horses with IAD will not - Based on tracheal wash findings. Horses with RAO will have a higher proportion of neutrophils

- Horses with RAO will have evidence of increased respiratory effort at rest, whilst horses with IAD will not

What is the most likely diagnosis for a horse that is presented with bilateral purulent nasal discharge and fever without a cough? - Strangles disease - Pleuropneumonia - Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) - Bronchopneumonia

- Strangles disease

A 2-year old horse develops acute swelling of the head two weeks after drainage of a submandibular abscess. Your tentative diagnosis is purpura haemorrhagica. What are the two most important components of the treatment of equine purpura haemorrhagica? - Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and IV fluids - IV fluids and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM) - Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and diuretics (furosemide IV) - Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM)

- Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM)

What is the aetiology of strangles and how is the disease spread? - Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact - Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus, which is transmitted only by direct contact - Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted only by direct contact - Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact

- Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact

Which rules should be included in the isolation protocol once strangles is diagnosed at a stable yard: - Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and clean the environment - Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and 2 weeks treatment of the horses with clinical signs - Isolation of horses up to 6 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and endoscopy of the guttural pouch of horses to indicate carrier status of horses - Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after resolution of clinical signs of strangles disease and negative culture of nasal-pharyngeal swabs

- Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after resolution of clinical signs of strangles disease and negative culture of nasal-pharyngeal swabs

Examine the following endoscopic image taken during exercise. What form of dynamic airway collapse is shown? (hourglass figure)

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds (“hourglass” shape)

In a horse with recurrent laryngeal neuropathy, which muscle is implicated in the failure to abduct the arytenoid cartilage? - Thyroarytenoideus - Cricothyroideus - Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis - Cricoarytenoideus lateralis

- Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

Examine the endoscopic image taken from a racehorse during strenuous exercise. Which treatment option would be most appropriate in this horse? - Prosthetic laryngoplasty and ventriculocordectomy - Laser Ventriculectomy - Ventriculocordectomy - Partial arytenoidectomy

- Prosthetic laryngoplasty and ventriculocordectomy (RACEHORSE)

Which of the following forms of dynamic airway collapse is most likely to be associated with abnormal respiratory sounds during expiration? - Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds - Vocal fold collapse - Pharyngeal wall collapse - Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

- Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

Which of the following diagnostic techniques is the most appropriate for making a definitive diagnosis of dynamic upper airway collapse in the horse? - Sound analysis - Exercising endoscopy - Resting endoscopy - Laryngeal ultrasound

- Exercising endoscopy

Which of the following statements best describes the situation in a normal horse during exercise? - Soft, blowing sounds are normal during expiration but not during inspiration - Loud respiratory noises are audible throughout the respiratory cycle - There should be no audible respiratory sounds during inspiration or expiration - Soft, blowing sounds are audible during inspiration but not during expiration

- Soft, blowing sounds are normal during expiration but not during inspiration

A deficiency of which of the following electrolytes is a possible risk factor for development of atrial fibrillation? - Sodium - Calcium - Potassium - Chloride

- Potassium

You diagnose atrial fibrillation in a Dutch warmblood dressage horse. It was previously auscultated one month ago and found to be in normal sinus rhythm with no murmurs. What are the chances of successfully converting this horse to sinus rhythm using quinidine sulphate and what is the likelihood of recurrence? - 25% chance of conversion, 95% chance of recurrence - 95% chance of conversion, 65% chance of recurrence - 95% chance of conversion, 25% chance of recurrence - 65% chance of conversion, 95% chance of recurrence

- 95% chance of conversion, 25% chance of recurrence

Which of the following is likely to be a common side effect following the administration of quinidine for treatment of atrial fibrillation? - Tachycardia - Colitis - Laminitis - Bradycardia

- Tachycardia

The most common type of urolith found within the equine urinary tract is: - Calcium-phosphate nephrolith - Calcium-oxalate cystolith - Calcium-struvite cystolith - Calcium-oxalate nephrolith

- Calcium-oxalate cystolith

Which of the following regarding acute renal failure (ARF) is true? - Typical electrolyte changes in ARF include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia & hyperphosphatemia - ARF is usually caused by a single overdose of aminoglycosides - ARF is usually caused by a primary disease process affecting the kidneys - The most common risk factors for ARF in horses include age of the horse, horse breed & general anaesthesia

- ARF is usually caused by a single overdose of aminoglycosides

A diagnosis of nephroliths in horses is usually confirmed by which diagnostic modality? - Rectal palpation - A transrectal ultrasonography of both right & left kidneys - Transabdominal ultrasonography of both kidneys - Biospy of the kidney

- Transabdominal ultrasonography of both kidneys

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign associated with chronic renal failure in the horse? - Hypercalcemia - Weight loss - Dental tartar - PU/PD

- Weight loss

A 3yo TB race horse filly has just returned from an intense work-out & is exhibiting signs of colic (pawing, biting at her sides). You arrive & find the filly anxious & sweating. Knowing her genetics, you begin to palpate muscle groups of her hind limbs & find she is quite painful. What are the most important initial therapies indicated for a horse experiencing an acute episode of recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis? - Immediate dietary modifications to decrease carbohydrate ingestion - Fluid therapy (IV or oral), judicious NSAID therapy, & sedatives if necessary - IV flunixin & dantrolene administration - Aggressive crystalloid & colloid fluid therapy

- Fluid therapy (IV or oral), judicious NSAID therapy, & sedatives if necessary

A 14 month old QH filly has had intermittent episodes of sweating, muscle weakness & fasciculations, which have lead to recumbency on 2 occasions. The filly is able to recover & stand within 30 minutes of each episode. You collect a blood sample from the filly & find the following - increased K+, severely increased CK. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this case?

The muscle enzyme creatinine kinase (CK) has a short half-life & will reach peak serum levels within 4 hours of exercise testing

Which step will be the most effective in preventing oedema formation & infection? - Incisional lavage - Open castration technique - Double ligation of spermatic cord - Stretching incision

- Stretching incision

Haemorrhage as a castration complication is most often commonly related with... - Emasculators - Sutures - Scrotal ablation - Open castration

- Emasculators

Which of the following is a evisceration prevention measure? - Older stallions - Very young colt - Closed technique - Standing technique

- Closed technique

Which of the following is NOT a suitable first treatment measure when encountering an omental evisceration? - Rectal examination - Emasculate contaminated omentum - Emergency laparotomy - Suture superficial inguinal ring / scrotum

- Emergency laparotomy

What is a pathognomonic sign for a Cl. tetani infection? - SC gas formation - Flaccid paralysis - 3rd eyelid prolapse - Hypothermia

- 3rd eyelid prolapse

Which treatment method is NOT typical utilised for a scirrous cord (septic funiculitis)? - Cold hosing - Surgical drainage - Antimicrobials & drainage - Resection of infected stump

- Cold hosing

What is the best management option in case of Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND)? - Increase the amount of pellets, hay & supplement with Vit E - Decrease the amount of pellets & supplement with Vit E - Increase the amount of hay - Decrease the amount of pellets, hay & corn oil

- Increase the amount of pellets, hay & supplement with Vit E

You are asked to examine a Warmblood mare 5yo with an abnormal gait especially while cantering the mare is showing a 'hopping gait'. You suspect the horse of Australian stringhalt. What are the next abnormal findings during clinical exam & diagnostic testing? - No abnormalities in history, normal clinical signs & normal findings at electromyograph (EMG) examination - Normal clinical signs, severely increased muscle activities (CK & AST activities) & normal EMG findings - Normal clinical signs, no abnormal findings at blood analysis & abnormal findings at electromyography (EMG) examination - History includes toxic plants in the paddock & decreased appetite; blood analysis shows increased liver enzyme activities (AST & GGT)

- Normal clinical signs, no abnormal findings at blood analysis & abnormal findings at electromyography (EMG) examination

A 12yo gelding presents with acute ataxia (incoordination) in all 4 limbs. A nasal swab reveals a positive EHV-1 real time PCR test. Which risk factors are most likely involved in this infection? - Young horses returning from long distance transport? - Young female horses during summer time - Young female ponies following return of a show - Tall, aged female horses following retun of a horse competition

- Tall, aged female horses following retun of a horse competition

A 5 week old Appaloosa foal presents with dysphagia, a stilted gait & muscle tremors. The tail & tongue tone are weak. The vital signs & blood analyses (CBC & serum chemistry) are paresis but reveals no mechanical obstruction. What is the most likely diagnosis & how should the foal be treated? - This foal has ingested the preformed toxin of Clostridium piliformis & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum & metronidazole - This foal has white muscle disease & treatment should include Vit A & Selenium - This foal has the toxico-infectious form of botulism & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum (& metronidazole) - This foal is infected with Clostridium tetani & treatment should include antitoxin & metronidazole

- This foal has the toxico-infectious form of botulism & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum (& metronidazole)

A lesion of cranial nerve IV will cause which of the following: - Ventrolateral strabismus because the oculomotor nerve innervates the ventral oblique muscle - Dorsomedial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the dorsal oblique muscle - Medial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle - Dorsolateral strabismus because the abducens nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle

- Dorsomedial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the dorsal oblique muscle

Which of the following tests is most beneficial in determining whether a neurologic horse is demonstrating signs of paresis? - Blindfolding - Tail pull - Any test is useful because all horses with neurologic disease have a component of weakness - Obstacle course

- Tail pull

The afferent and efferent pathways of the menace response are? - Afferent = the oculomotor nerve & efferent = the ophthalmic branch of nerve V - Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the oculomotor nerve - Afferent = the oculomotor nerve & efferent = the facial nerve - Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the facial nerve

- Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the facial nerve

Which of the following statements regarding cervical stenotic myelopathy is correct? - The most common signalment of affected horses is Quarter horses older than 5 years of age, with dynamic compression of the cord most commonly observed at C2-C3 - Clinical signs most commonly include assymetrical ataxia with the forelimbs typically 1 to 2 grades worse than the hindlimbs - Diets high in carbohydrates increase the risk of disease in young horses because of the endocrine response that causes abnormal cartilage maturation leading to osteochondrosis - This disease is most commonly caused by inflammation of the spinal cord due to oxidative damage from diets high in zinc and low in copper

- Diets high in carbohydrates increase the risk of disease in young horses because of the endocrine response that causes abnormal cartilage maturation leading to osteochondrosis

A case is presented with the hindlimb deficits present at all times. The neurological examination reveals a stabbing hindlimb gas exacerbated by backing the horse & by elevating the head. Exam on the tight circle reveals pivoting on the hindlimbs. What is your neuroanatomical diagnosis? - Cervical (C2-T2) - Central - Thoracolumbar (T2-S2) - Sacral - coccygeal

- Thoracolumbar (T2-S2)

Which one of the following analgesic drugs & dosages is most appropriate for treating a foal with 5% dehydration & moderate pain due to joint sepsis? - Phenylbutazone - Dexamethasone phosphate - None, I would not administer any anti-inflammatory or analgesic drugs to this foal - Meloxicam - Flunixin meglumine

- Meloxicam (has the largest therapeutic index & is the safest option for this foal at this stage)

Which of the following antimicrobial agent / combination is MOST appropriate in the first-line treatment of a foal with septicameia? - Amikacin IV & ceftiofur PO - Procaine penicillin IM & gentamicin IV - Enrofloxacin IV - Trimethoprim sulfonamide PO - Amikacin IV & crystalline penicillin IV

- Amikacin IV & crystalline penicillin IV

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to result in a positive swab in a TB racehorse 14 days after administration? - Flunixin meglumine IV - Triamcinilone acetonide intra-articular - Methylprednisolone acetate intra-articular - Phenylbutazone IV - Dexamethasone phosphate IV

- Methylprednisolone acetate intra-articular

Which of the following conditions & treatment route is NOT an appropriate use of corticosteroids in the horse? - Topical ocular therapy for equine recurrent uveitis - Topical therapy for acute wound management - Systemic therapy for reactive airway disease - Systemic therapy for urticaria - Inhalation therapy for reactive airway disease

- Topical therapy for acute wound management (Topical corticosteroids are contraindicated in acute wound management)

Which of the following drug combinations administered systemically is LEAST likely to increase the risk of renal damage due to NSAID toxicity? - Penicillin & phenylbutazone - Oxytetracycline & phenylbutazone - Amikacin & flunixin meglumine - Furosemide & flunixin - Gentamicin & phenylbutazone

- Penicillin & phenylbutazone (Penicillin has no nephrotoxic effects & will not increase the risk for toxicity caused by the NSAID phenylbutazone)

What would be the most appropriate type, dose & route of analgesic / anti-inflammatory drug to administer to a horse with an acute, non-displaced P1 (proximal phalanx) fracture prior to referral? - Ketoprofen 3.3 mg/kg IM - Phenylbutazone 8.8mg/kg IM - Phenylbutazone 1.1 mg/kg IV - Flunixin meglumine 1.1 mg/kg PO - Phenylbutazone 4.4 mg/kg IV

- Phenylbutazone 4.4 mg/kg IV (Phenylbutazone has the most potent analgesic effects, a one-time high dose of 4.4 mg/kg IV is appropriate for this acute, severe orthopaedic injury. Flunixin meglumine will also provide suitable analgesia but should be given IV in this scenario not per os).

Which of the following drugs is most likely to have the MOST deleterious effects on the GI mucosa of horses? - Flunixin - Dexamethasone - Phenylbutazone - Ketoprofen - Meloxicam

- Phenylbutazone

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is TRUE? - Klebsiella sp are sensitive to penicillins - Clostridium sp are sensitive to trimethoprim sulfonamide - Enterobacter sp are sensitive to cephalosporins - Escherichia coli are generally sensitive to aminoglycosides - B haemolytic Streptococcus sp are sensitive to enrofloxacin

- Escherichia coli are generally sensitive to aminoglycosides

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is TRUE? - Gentamicin is a time-dependent drug - Amikacin is a time-dependent drug - Enrofloxacin is a time-dependent drug - Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug - Penicillin is a concentration dependent drug

- Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs are effective when administered via the oral route in horses? - Amikacin - Penicillin - Trimethoprim sulfonamide - Ceftiofur - Gentamicin

- Trimethoprim sulfonamide

Which describes the best overall management for a horse with signs of tetanus? - Turn off lights of stable, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin - Place horse in sling, anti-seizure medication, penicillin, IV fluid therapy, booster tetanus toxoid - Turn off lights of stable, anti-inflammatory medication, penicillin, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin - Place horse in sling, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV parenteral nutrition, booster tetanus toxoid

- Turn off lights of stable, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin

Based on the events occurring during any neurological insult (regardless of its classification) which are the main goals for treating neurological disease on animals? - To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to minimise external stimuli, to ensure supportive care, to be aware of potential residual neurological damage - To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to provide broad-spectrum coverage with antimicrobials, to ensure supportive care, to offer the latest complementary therapies to clients (e.g. acupuncture, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, stem cell transplant) - To inform the owners & practice managers in the case of stud farms / equestrian centres that treating neurological disease is unrewarding & there is not much that veterinarians can offer than a necropsy & further testing - To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to provide anti-oxidant therapies, to ensure supportive care, to start rehabilitation therapies as soon as the animal seems stable

- To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to minimise external stimuli, to ensure supportive care, to be aware of potential residual neurological damage

What are signs of vestibular ataxia & examples of diseases causing it? - Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lsion, base-wide stance, horizontal nystagmus & normal menace response. Guttural pouch disease & otitis media / interna can cause this - Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lesion, catching own feet, vertical nystagmus & absent menace response. Guttural pouch disease & cerebellar trauma / abiotrophy can cause this

- Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lsion, base-wide stance, horizontal nystagmus & normal menace response. Guttural pouch disease & otitis media / interna can cause this

Which of the following combinatino of data gives you the best confidence to confirm that a synovial fluid collection is indicating sepsis: - The nucleated cell count, % of neutrophils & total proteins - The turbidity of the synovial fluid, distension of the synovial structure & nucleated cell count - The degree of lameness of the horse, the culture of the synovial fluid & its macroscopic aspect - The synovial fluid lactate, the synovial fluid glucose & its pH

- The nucleated cell count, % of neutrophils & total proteins

Which set of neurologic diseases warrants isolation of the diseases horses? - Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine herpes myeloencephalopathy & hendra virus infection - Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine degenerative myelpathy & botulism - Equine degenerative myelopathy, hendra virus infection & australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies) - Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), kunjin virus encephalitis & botulism

- Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine herpes myeloencephalopathy & hendra virus infection

Please indicate the correct statement about tendons & ligaments: - Even in mature horses, healing is fast because of the high metabolism & rapid turnover of tendons & ligaments - Paratenon is a layer of loose connective tissue surrounding a tendon with the function of facilitating tendon gliding - Tendon sheath is a synovial structure covering no more than half of the circumference of a tendon - Tendon & ligament injuries are always caused by a single traumatic episode leading to excessive tension on the ligament

- Paratenon is a layer of loose connective tissue surrounding a tendon with the function of facilitating tendon gliding

Please indicate the most distal nerve block that would likely anaesthetise the whole fetlock joint in a forelimb: - Palmar digital nerve block at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones - Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon) - High 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves close to the carpometacarpal joint) - Lateral palmar nerve blocked at the level of the accessory carpal bone

- Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon)

Please indicate which would be a reasonable therapeutic approach for a valuable 1 month old foal with moderate carpus valgus & secondary fetlock varus affecting the right front limb. - Confine the foal to a stall, wait & hope that the angular limb deformities will resolve spontaneously overtime - Wait 5 months & perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the lateral side of the distal radius & on the medial side of the proximal phalanx - Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & wait for the varus deformity of the fetlock to improve overtime - Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & on the lateral side of the proximal phalanx

- Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & on the lateral side of the proximal phalanx

The photo below shows the front limbs of a 15yo mare with the left front limb lameness that is unable to touch the ground with the heels of the left front foot for the last 4 months. What is the correct statement about the name of the deformity in the left front limb & the likely cause of this deformity? - Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to a sudden increase in energy & protein in the diet about 6 months ago - Laxity of the digital extensor tendons attributed to chronic & severe toe pain - Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain - Laxity of the digital extensor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain

- Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain

Please indicate the best therapeutic approach for a 1yo horse with sudden onset of right hind lameness & right hock effusion with radiographic evidence of a loose osteochondral fragment in the right tarsocrural joint - Arthroscopic surgery - Prolonged stall rest - Immobilisation - Corrective trimming & shoeing

- Arthroscopic surgery

Equine End Sem 2 Exam Flashcards

(259 cards)