Equine Neurology Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

CN I name and function

A

Olfactory nerve: mediates sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 ways of testing CN II

A

Optic Nerve

i) drop a cotton ball and watch patient follow it to the ground (II only)
ii) Menace response (II for visual cues + VII for blink)
iii) PLR (II for visual + III for pupil constriction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

function of CN II

A

Optic nerve: carries visual signals from retina to occipital lobe of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 ways of examining CN III function

A

Oculomotor nerve

i) observing for physiologic nystagmus when turning head
ii) observing pupillary constriction (PLR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

function of CN III

A

Oculomotor nerve; provides motor to most of the extraocular muscles (dorsal, ventral + medial rectus) + for pupil constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CN IV function

A

Trochlear nerve: provides motor function to the dorsal oblique extraocular muscle and rolls globe medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Trochlear nerve CN number

A

CN IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to examine CN IV function

A

examine by observing for dorsolat. rotation of the pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 branches of the CN V

A

trigeminal nerve: mandibular, maxillary, ophthalmic branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

function of CN V

A

Trigeminal nerve:

  • motor to muscles of mastication (masseter, temporal)
  • sensory: eyelids, cornea, tongue, nasal mucosa + mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What nerve are you assessing when checking jaw tone?

A

CN V: trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What nerve are you assessing by touching the globe and assessing for retraction?

A

CN V: Trigeminal for sensory

CN VI: Abducens nerve for motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What nerves are you assessing through the menace response?

A

CN II (optic) + CN VII (facial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What nerves are you assessing when pinching the lips and observing for snarl response?

A

CN V (trigeminal) + CN VII (facial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

function of CN VI

A

Abducens nerve: provides motor function to the lateral rectus extra-ocular muscle and retractor bulbi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CN VII name and function

A

Facial Nerve: provides motor to muscles of facial expression (eyelids, ears, lips) + sensory to medial pinna. Also taste to rostral tongue + parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal glands and some salivary glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What nerve are you assessing when you observe for any facial paralysis, deviation of the nose to one side or droopy lips?

A

CN VII: facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CN VIII name and function

A

Vestibulocochlear: sensory input for hearing and head position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CN IX name and function

A

Glossopharyngeal: provides motor and sensory innervation to pharynx for swallowing (w/ CN X).
Also innervates some salivary glands and provides taste innervation from caudal tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What nerves are you assessing when you elicit a gag reflex?

A

CN IX: Glossopharyngeal

CN X: Vagus

21
Q

CN X name and function

A

Vagus: innervates the larynx, oesophagus and pharynx. Also provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart and viscera.

22
Q

how can you examine vagus nerve function?

A

CN X: Vagus nerve

i) elicit a gag reflex
ii) observe for laryngeal paralysis
iii) assess for megaoesophagus and regurgitation

23
Q

name and function of CN XI

A

Spinal accessory: innervates cranial cervical muscles

24
Q

name and function of CN XII

A

Hypoglossal: provides motor to the tongue

25
how do you examine CN XII
examine by observing tongue movements and symmetry or for problems drinking/prehending food
26
what is the tx and px for idiopathic trigeminal neuritis?
- supportive care w/ fluids and hand feeding of soft food | - prognosis is excellent w/ most dogs regaining function w/in 1-2wks and return to normal in 3-4wks
27
compare mortality rates of the togavirus encephalitides
Eastern equine encephalitis: 75-100% mortality Venezuelan equine encephalitis: 40-80% Western equine encephalitis: 20-50%
28
Dx of togavirus encephalitides
CS + CSF (inc. protein and cell count) + serology/necropsy evaluation
29
CS of togavirus encephalitides
- most profound in non-vax horses; fever, anorexia, depression, somnolence (sleeping sickness) to hyperasethesia, proprioceptive deficits, recumbency + cerebral/cranial nerve signs (head pressing, propulsive walking, circling, head tilt)
30
Dx of West Nile Virus
CS + CSF (inc. protein + mononuclear pleocytosis) --> antigen (IgM) capture ELISA, virus isolation + plaque reduction neutralisation
31
CS of WNV
- not all horses infected w/ WNV develop CS of disease. Horses that are vax. against WNV demonstrate decreased, if any, clinical manifestations. Those that do develop CS; - depressed, ataxia, weakness, muscle fasciculations, fever, recumbency
32
CS of equine herpes myeloencephalitis
- fever, lethargy, depression - ataxia, paresis, esp. Hind end - urinary incontinence, loss of tail tone - rarely concurrent resp. signs, can cause abortion in pregnant mares
33
Dx Tx Px of equine herpes myeloencephalitis
Dx: nasal swab PCR Tx: supportive care + antivirals Px: fair depending on severity, but recovery is prolonged
34
CS of EPM
- chronic w/ mild/vague signs, unilat. hind-end m. atrophy, shifting leg/vague asymm. lameness, weakness, mild ataxia - animals are almost always BAR
35
tx of EPM
Ponazuril (Marquis) tx up to 6months
36
what disease is prevented with opossum control?
EPM: Sarcocystis neurona
37
Pathogenesis of tetanus
Clostridium tetani enters through a wound (esp. anaerobic wounds) + proliferates to release a neurotoxin that travels to the CNS. - Incubation period 1-3wks
38
prevention of tetanus
- annual tetanus toxoid vax., prophylactic tetanus antitoxin in unvax. horses w/ a wound
39
3 forms of rabies CS
i) Furious/cerebral form: odd/aggressive behaviour, self-mutilation, ataxia, vocalisation ii) Dumb/brainstem form: somnolence, dementia, dysphagia, ataxia iii) Paralytic/Spinal cord: progressive ascending paralysis
40
prevention of rabies
AAEP core annual/biannual vax
41
risk factors assoc. w/ botulism
silage, poorly stored forage, round hay bales
42
tx and px of botulism
Tx: botulinum antitoxin + supportive Px: poor
43
pathogenesis of cauda equina
granulomatous perineuritis of peripheral nerves and cranial nerves, thought to be an immune-mediated event that may be triggered by other bacterial or viral infections
44
pathogenesis of equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy
EDM: Vit.E deficiency + a genetic component cause severe neuroaxonal dystrophy
45
pathogenesis of equine motor neuron disease
EMND: chronic Vit.E deficiency in adult horse causes peripheral motor neuron cell death
46
CS of EMND
weakness, low head carriage + high tail carriage muscle atrophy, muscle fasciculations, weight and muscle loss w/ good appetite - NO ataxia
47
CS of wobblers
Cervical vertebral malformation - usu. gradual but can be acute in onset - ataxia, usu. worse in HLs than FLs dt HL innervation being SF in the spinal cord - freq. perceived as poor performance/vague lameness - no CN/brainstem signs
48
Dx of equine cervical vertebral malformation
Dx: Suspected based on signalment (young, rapidly growing horse) + CS (symmetric HL weakness and ataxia) + survey rads w/ or w//out myelopgraphy i) Sagittal ratio is determined by measuring the smallest sagittal diameter of the vertebral canal of each cervical vertebra + dividing this number by the width of the cranial aspect of the vertebral body at its widest pt ii) The sagittal ratio should be greater than 52% (C4-6) to 56% (C7) iii) Myelographic studies are necessary for definitive ante-mortem diagnosis of CVM