Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PTA BOARDS > Equipment, Devices And Technologies; Therapeutic Modalities > Flashcards

Equipment, Devices And Technologies; Therapeutic Modalities Flashcards

1
Q

What should you do before giving treatment?

A
  • Obtain informed consent from patient and document consent in patient’s chart
  • Notify the patient of proper clothing
  • Draping must be discussed for patient comfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______ is a technique utilized by health care providers to ensure the patient’s privacy and modesty when treating particular areas of the body.

A

Draping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Draping also assists with:

A
  • Keeping patient warm
  • Adequately exposing the area of treatment
  • Protect open areas, wounds, scars and patient’s personal belongings from being soiled or injured during treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient that is dependent must be repositioned in bed how often?

A

At least every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: Skin should be inspected for redness or breakdown with each position change?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why should a dependent patient be lifted when changing positions?

A

In order to avoid shearing of skin across the bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Use pillows, towels or blankets when _____ a patient in order to support and maintain a particular position

A

Positioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: A patient is not needed to participate in all mobility and positioning?

A

False; a patient should always be encouraged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Practice moving _____ from one side of the bed to the other

A

Segmentally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What position/technique should you utilize to assist with movement and rolling?

A

“Bridging”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the “Bridging” position

A
  • Hip flexed
  • Knee flexed
  • Feet flat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are the therapists located during a 3 person carry?

A
  • one therapist at the head and upper trunk
  • one therapist supports the trunk
  • one therapist supports the lower extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which therapist initiates commands during a 3 person carry?

A

The therapist at the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The _____ lift is used to transfer a patient between 2 surfaces of different heights or when transferring a patient to the floor

A

2 person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The 1st therapist during a 2 person lift should be standing where?

A

Behind the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How should the 1st therapist be positioned during a 2 person lift?

A
  • Their arms underneath the axilla
  • grasping the patients L forearm w/ their R hand
  • grasping the patients R forearm w/ their L hand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should the 2nd therapist be positioned during 2 person lift?

A
  • place one arm under the mid to distal thighs & other arm to support the lower legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of transfer is used to transfer a patient who cannot stand independently, but can bear some weight through the trunk and lower extremities?

A

Dependent squat pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During a dependent squat pivot transfer, the therapist should position the patient at a __degree angle to the destination surface

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During a squat pivot transfer, where does the patient place their hands?

A

On the therapist shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During a squat pivot transfer, the therapist should:

A
  • position patient at edge of surface
  • hold patient around hips and under buttocks
  • block patients knees
  • utilize momentum, straighten legs and raise patient or allow patient to remain in squatting position, pivot and slowly lower patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why should therapist block the patients knees when transferring?

A

To avoid buckling while standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The _____ is a device used for dependent transfers when a patient is obese, a patient is totally dependent or there’s only one therapist available to assist with transfer

A

Hydraulic lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: The hydraulic lift needs to be locked in position before transfer

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The _____ transfer is used for a patient who has some sitting balance, some UE strength and can adequately follow directions

A

Sliding board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the sliding board transfer

A
  • the patient should be positioned at edge of w/c or bed and lean to one side while placing one end of sliding board under proximal thigh
  • the other end of sliding board should be placed on destination surface
  • the patient uses both arms to initiate a push up or scoot across the board [therapist standing in front & assist as needed]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why shouldn’t the patient hold onto the end of sliding board?

A

To avoid pinching the fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The patient should place the lead hand __-__ inches away from sliding board

A

4, 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The therapist should be careful to avoid direct contact between what 2 surfaces during sliding board transfer?

A

Skin and sliding board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why should therapist avoid direct contact between skin and sliding board?

A

To avoid shearing force and potential skin breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The _____ transfer is used when a patient is able to stand and bear weight through one or both of the LE’s

A

Stand pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The _____ transfer is used with a patient who has the necessary strength and balance to weight shift and step during the transfer

A

Stand step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

With stand pivot transfer, the patient must possess _______ and _____

A

Functional balance, ability to pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of patients may utilize stand pivot transfer?

A

Patients with unilateral weight bearing restrictions or hemiplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Patients with unilateral weight bearing restrictions may lead with which side during stand pivot transfer?

A

Uninvolved side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List the 6 common wheelchair measurements used:
[know the difference p. 596]

A
  • total height
  • back height
  • armrest height
  • seat height from floor
  • seat depth
  • seat and back width
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

With a standing pivot transfer, it may be used therapeutically for patient post CVA leading with _____ side

A

Involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To initiate a stand pivot transfer, where should the patient be positioned?

A

At edge of chair or bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of wheelchairs require patients to possess sufficient strength to propel the wheelchair independently?

A

Manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

______ wheelchairs are propelled by an external energy source, usually a battery, that provides stored energy to one or more belts that propel the wheelchair.

A

Powered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some considerations when selecting an appropriate wheelchair?

A
  • physical needs
  • physical abilities
  • cognition
  • coordination
  • endurance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you measure the wheelchair seat height?

A

From the heel to popliteal and add 2 inches to allow clearance of footrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What’s the average adult size for seat height?

A

19.5 - 20.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What’s the average adult size for w/c seat depth?

A

16 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What’s the average adult size for w/c seat width?

A

18 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What’s the average adult size for w/c back height?

A

16 - 16.5 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What’s the average adult size for w/c armrest height?

A

9 in above chair seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you measure the w/c seat depth?

A
  1. From the patients posterior butt, along lateral thigh to popliteal fold
  2. Subtract ~2 in to avoid pressure from front edge of seat against popliteal space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you measure the w/c seat width?

A

Measure the widest aspect of patients butt, hips or thighs and add ~2 in
(This provides space for bulky clothing, Orthoses or clearance of trochanters from armrests side panel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you measure the w/c back height?

A
  1. Measure from the seat of chair to floor of axilla with patients shoulder flexed to 90 deg
  2. Subtract ~4in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What w/c measurement will be affected if a seat cushion is being used?

A

Back height
Armrest height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do you measure the armrest height of w/c?

A
  1. Measure from seat of chair to olecranon process with patients elbow flexed to 90 deg
  2. Add ~1 in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is highly active with n need for postural supports?

A

Ultralight frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is in sports?

A

Ultralight frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is able to self propel using BUE and have adequate LE ROM and sitting ability for comfortable seating?

A

Standard or lightweight frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is able to self propel using LE’s?

A

Hemi frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is able to self propel using 1 UE?

A

One-hand drive frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is able to self propel, but center of gravity is shifted posteriorly due to amputation?

A

Amputee frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is NOT able to self propel or safely operate a power mobility device and requires assistance for seated mobility?

A

Geri chair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is unable to perform weight shifting tasks and/or unable to sit upright for extended periods?

A

Reclining frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which w/c component will a patient need if the patient is unable to sit upright or perform weight shifts, but also has issues with sliding or extensor tone?

A

Backward tilt-in-space frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which w/c back insert will a patient need if the patient requires no postural support and has no neuromuscular deficits?

A

Sling back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which w/c back insert is not typically intended for long term use?

A

Sling back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which w/c back insert will a patient need if the patient requires MILD TO MODERATE trunk support due to tone, strength or deformity related postural concerns?

A

Planar back insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which w/c back insert will a patient need if the patient requires MODERATE trunk support due to tone, strength or deformity related postural concerns?

A

Curved back insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which w/c back insert will a patient need if the patient requires significant trunk support due to severe postural concerns?

A

Custom molded insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which w/c seat insert will a patient need if the patient requires no postural support and has no neuromuscular deficit?

A

Sling seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which w/c seat insert is not typically intended for long term use?

A

Sling seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which w/c seat insert will a patient need if the patient has no seated deformity?

A

Planar seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which w/c seat insert will a patient need if the patient requires MILD TO AGGRESSIVE supportive curvature to provide increased contact between the lower body and seat?

A

Curved seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which w/c seat insert will a patient need if the patient requires customized seat support to correct for pelvic obliquity or a fixed asymmetrical deformity?

A

Custom molded seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What type of ARMRESTS should a patient have if the patient transfers via slide board or 2 person max assist; pt requires access to wheels for propulsion?

A

Removable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of ARMRESTS should a patient have if the patient doesn’t require any UE or trunk support?

A

No armrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of ARMRESTS should a patient have if the patient performs sit to stand transfers or require additional postural support or utilize a lap board?

A

Full length arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What type of ARMRESTS should a patient have if the patient requires durable UE support?

A

Fixed/non-removable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Push or pull brakes are AKA:

A

Toggle/lever brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of WHEEL LOCKS/BRAKES should a patient have if the patient has coordinated motor ability to operate brakes?

A

Toggle/lever brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What type of WHEEL LOCKS/BRAKES should a patient have if the patient requires additional leverage to operate a toggle/lever brake and has limited ability to reach brake mechanism?

A

Brake extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of WHEEL LOCKS/BRAKES should a patient have if the patient doesn’t possess the ability to safely or independently operate brakes?

A

Attendant operated brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient has adequate strength to efficiently propel chair without adaptation

A

Small diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient requires speed for tasks?

A

Small diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient has some degree of weakness in the UE’s

A

Large diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient requires the ability to propel with more power?

A

Large diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient has grip deficits or hand deformity which limits the ability to functionally grip rims?

A

Rim projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of HANDRIMS should a patient have if the patient requires assist for adequate grasp or friction when hands are in contact with wheel rims?

A

Covered rims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What type of FOOTREST should a patient have if the patient has full ROM available through feet and ankles?

A

Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What type of FOOTREST should a patient have if the patient has some degree of deformity in feet and/or ankles?

A

Adjustable angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What type of FOOTREST should a patient have if the patient requires a supportive surface to maximize strength and/or stability and requires additional lateral foot support?

A

One-piece footboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How should you ascend a curb with a fwd approach using a w/c?

A
  1. Elevate the front casters of w/c by tipping w/c backwards
  2. Move w/c forward until rear wheels are in contact with curb and casters above curb
  3. Lower casters on elevated surface and ascend curb with real wheels until rear wheels and casters are in contact with elevated surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How should you ascend a curb with a backward approach using a w/c?

A
  • position patient facing away from curb
  • standing on upper surface, lift and roll rear wheels backward up curb
  • continue to roll w/c backwards until casters are in contact with upper surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How should you descend a curb with a fwd approach using a w/c?

A
  • position casters close to elevated edge of curb
  • tip w/c backwards and slowly roll w/c fwd until rear wheels are in contact with lower surface
  • gently lower casters to lower surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How should you descend a curb with a backward approach using a w/c?

A
  • position patient facing away curb
  • move w/c backwards and slowly lower rear wheels to lower surface maintaining contact with curb
  • continue to roll w/c backwards and gently lower casters to lower surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

List the primary indications for using an assistive device during ambulation:

A
  • pain
  • decreased weight bearing on LE’s
  • muscle weakness of trunk or LE’s
  • decreased balance or impaired kinesthetic awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The handgrip of an Axillary crutch should be at the approximate level of _____

A

Ulnar styloid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A therapist assesses crutch height by determining the distance from what two surfaces?

A

Top of crutch to base of axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

______ provide max stability and security for a patient during beginning stages of ambulation or standing

A

Parallel bars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What’s the proper fit of parallel bars?

A
  • Bar height that allows 20-25 deg elbow flexion while grasping on bars ~4-6 inches in front of body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A ____ can be used with all levels of weight bearing and has a significant BOS w/ good stability

A

Walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

_______ can be used with all levels of weight bearing however, require higher coordination for proper use

A

Axillary crutches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What’s the proper fit for Axillary crutches?

A
  • crutches 6in in front and 2in lateral
  • crutch height = no greater than 3 finger widths from axilla
  • handgrip height = level of ulnar styloid process allowing 20-25 deg elbow flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Another name for “forearm” crutches

A

Loftstrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

_____ crutches can be used with all levels of weight bearing, but require the highest level of coordination for proper use

A

Loftstrand

103
Q

With Loftstrand crutches, proper fit includes __-__ degrees of elbow flexion while holding the handgrip positioned __ inches in front and __ inches lateral to patients foot

A

20, 25; 6; 2

104
Q

With Loftstrand crutches, the arm cuff should be positioned where? Why?

A

1 - 1 1/2 inches below olecranon process; So it won’t interfere with elbow flexion

105
Q

A ____ provides minimal stability and support for patients during ambulation activities

A

Cane

106
Q

A straight cane provides the ___ support and is used primarily for _____

A

Least; assisting with balance

107
Q

What type of canes better assist with limiting weight bearing on an involved LE and improve balance on unleveled surfaces, curbs and stairs?

A

Small & large base quad canes

108
Q

What are the 5 levels of Weight Bearing?

A

NWB - Non WB
TTWB - Toetouch WB
PWB - Partial WB
WBAT - WB as tolerated
FWB - Full WB

109
Q

A patient is unable to place any weight through the involved extremity and is not permitted to touch the ground or any surface

A

Non-weight bearing

110
Q

A patient is unable to place any weight through the involved extremity, however, may place the toes on ground to assist with balance

A

Toe touch weight bearing

111
Q

A patient is allowed to put a particular amount of weight through the involved extremity

A

Partial weight bearing

112
Q

A patient determines the proper amount of weight bearing based on comfort.

A

Weight bearing as tolerated

113
Q

A patient is able to place full weight on involved extremity.

A

Full weight bearing

114
Q

A therapist must consider what prior to initiating ambulation activities?

A

Patient’s size, weight and level of impairment

115
Q

While guarding a patient, the therapist should be standing where?

A

To the side [affected side] and slightly behind

116
Q

Where should the therapist hands be placed while guarding a patient?

A

One hand on gait belt and other on shoulders

117
Q

What are the 5 gait patterns?

A

2-point
3-point
4-point
Swing-to
Swing-through

118
Q

A gait pattern in which a patient uses 2 crutches or canes and ambulates by moving the L crutch fwd while simultaneously advancing the RLE

A

2-point

119
Q

A gait pattern which involves 1 injured LE that may have decreased weight bearing

A

3-point

120
Q

A gait pattern in which the patient waits and advances the opposite leg once the crutch/cane has been advanced

A

4-point

121
Q

A gait pattern where a patient with trunk and/or BLE weakness, paresis or paralysis uses crutches or a walker and advances the LEs simultaneously only to the point of assistive device

A

Swing to

122
Q

A gait pattern where the patient advances the LEs simultaneously beyond the point of assistive device

A

Swing through

123
Q

When a patient is ascending curbs/stairs while using a handrail, where should the therapist be standing?

A

Opposite side and behind

124
Q

When a patient is ascending curbs/stairs without use of a handrail, where should the therapist be standing?

A

Behind slightly toward affected side

125
Q

When a patient is descending curbs/stairs while using a handrail, where should the therapist be standing?

A

Opposite side and in front

126
Q

When a patient is descending curbs/stairs without use of a handrail, where should the therapist be standing?

A

In front and slightly toward affected side

127
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences FORWARD LOB while ASCENDING?

A

Pull backwards on safety belt and attempt to move trunk backwards with opposing hand

128
Q

If the patient still can’t regain balance after correcting LOB while ASCENDING, what should the therapist do?

A

Transition patient toward handrail or lower patient slowly towards stairs

129
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences FORWARD LOB while DESCENDING?

A

Use one hand to apply posterior directed force to patients trunk

130
Q

If the patient still can’t regain balance after correcting FORWARD LOB while DESCENDING, what should the therapist do?

A

Attempt to move them into sitting position

131
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences BACKWARD LOB while ASCENDING?

A

Attempt to stabilize patient’s trunk by applying anterior force while maintaining a WBOS

132
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences BACKWARD LOB while DESCENDING?

A

Pull forwards on safety belt using one hand to grasp handrail

133
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences SIDEWAYS LOB TOWARDS THERAPIST while ASCENDING?

A

Use one hand or trunk to stabilize patient and use other hand to grasp handrail

134
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences SIDEWAYS LOB TOWARDS THERAPIST while DESCENDING?

A

Use one hand or trunk to stabilize patient and use other hand to grasp safely belt or handrail

135
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences SIDEWAYS LOB AWAY FROM THERAPIST while ASCENDING?

A

Use one hand to pull safely belt toward you and use other to stabilize trunk or grasp handrail

136
Q

What should the therapist do if the patient experiences SIDEWAYS LOB AWAY FROM THERAPIST while DESCENDING?

A

Use one hand to pull safety belt toward you and use other to stabilize trunk or grasp handrail

137
Q

NG Tube stands for

A

Nasogastric tube

138
Q

G tube stands for

A

Gastric tube

139
Q

J tube stands for

A

Jejunostomy tube

140
Q

IV stands for

A

Intravenous

141
Q

_______ is a plastic tube inserted through nostril that extends into stomach

A

Nasogastric tube

142
Q

NG tube is commonly used for:

A

Short term liquid feeding, medication administration or to remove gas from stomach

143
Q

_____ is a tube inserted through a small incision in the abdomen into the stomach

A

Gastric tube

144
Q

G tubes can be used for ___ term feeding in the presence of difficulty with swallowing due to anatomic or neurological disorder or to avoid risk of aspiration

A

Long

145
Q

_____ is a tube inserted through endoscopy into jejunum via abdominal wall

A

Jejunostomy tube

146
Q

Which tube can be used for long-term feeding for patients that are unable to received food by mouth?

A

J tube

147
Q

An _______ system consists of sterile fluid source, a pump, a clamp and catheter to insert into a vein

A

Intravenous

148
Q

An ______ is a monitoring device consisting of a catheter that is inserted into an artery and attached to an electronic monitoring system

A

Arterial line

149
Q

An arterial line is used to:

A
  • measure BP
  • obtain blood samples
150
Q

If an arterial line is displaced, what should a therapist do?

A

Apply direct pressure to limit blood loss and call for assistance

151
Q

A _____ is used for measured pressures in R atrium or superior vena cava by means of indwelling venous catheter and a pressure manometer

A

Central venous pressure catheter

152
Q

A central venous pressure catheter is used to evaluate:

A
  • R ventricular function
  • R atrial filling pressure
  • circulating blood volume
153
Q

An _____ is inserted through the cephalic or internal jugular vein and threaded into superior vena cava and R atrium

A

Indwelling R atrial catheter

154
Q

Indwelling R atrial catheter is AKA:

A

Hickman

155
Q

An ______ measures the pressure exerted against the skull using pressure sensing devices placed inside the skull

A

Intracranial pressure monitor

156
Q

Excessive pressure can be produced by:

A
  • closed head injury
  • cerebral hemorrhage
  • overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid
  • brain tumor
157
Q

Types of intracranial pressure monitors include:

A
  • epidural sensor
  • subarachnoid bolt
  • intraventricular catheter
158
Q

An ______ is a photoelectric device used to determine the oxygen saturation of blood

A

Oximeter

159
Q

This device is most commonly applied to finger or ear

A

Oximeter

160
Q

A _____ is a soft, flexible catheter that’s inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery

A

Pulmonary artery catheter

161
Q

Pulmonary artery catheter is AKA:

A

Swan-Ganz catheter

162
Q

_____ refers to a surgical procedure where holes are drilled into uninjured areas of bone surrounding the fracture

A

External fixation

163
Q

What are indications for modalities?

A
  • inflammation and repair
  • pain
  • restriction in motion
  • abnormal tone
164
Q

______ refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between 2 materials at different temperatures

A

Conduction

165
Q

_____ refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body

A

Convection

166
Q

What are some examples of modalities that utilize CONDUCTION?

A
  • hot/cold pack
  • paraffin
  • ice massage
  • cryo cuff
167
Q

What are examples of modalities that utilize CONVECTION?

A
  • fluidotherapy
  • hot/cold whirlpool
168
Q

_____ refers to heating that occurs when no thermal energy is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat

A

Conversion

169
Q

What are examples of modalities that utilize CONVERSION?

A

Diathermy
Ultrasound

170
Q

What are examples of modalities that utilize EVAPORATION?

A

Vapocoolant spray

171
Q

_____ refers to transfer of heat that occurs as a liquid absorbs energy and changes form into vapor

A

Evaporation

172
Q

_____ refers to direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature

A

Radiation

173
Q

What are examples of modalities that utilize RADIATION?

A

Infrared lamp
Laser
Ultraviolet light

174
Q

_____ refers to the local or general use of low temperatures in rehab

A

Cryotherapy

175
Q

List the therapeutic effects of cryotherapy

A
  • dec blood flow to tx area
  • dec edema
  • dec tone
  • dec local temp
  • dec metabolic rate
  • dec nerve conduction velocity
  • inc pain threshold
176
Q

What are the indications for cryotherapy?

A

Abnormal tone
Acute/chronic pain
Acute/subacute inflammation
Bursitis
Muscle spasm
Musculoskeletal trauma
Myofascial trigger points
Tendonitis
Tenosynovitis

177
Q

Contraindications for cryotherapy

A

Cold intolerance
Cold urticaria
Cryoglobulinemia
Infection
Over an area of compromised circulation
Over regenerating peripheral nerves
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
Peripheral vascular disease
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Skin anesthesia

178
Q

What sensations will the patient feel with ice massage?

A

C - intense cold
B - burning
A - aching
N - numbness (analgesia)

179
Q

With ice massage, an area __cm by __cm can be covered in __-__ minutes

A

10, 15; 5-10

180
Q

With ice massage, when should the therapist inspect the skin?

A

Before and after completion of tx

181
Q

What’s an abnormal response to ice massage?

A

Presence of wheals or rash

182
Q

Cold packs should be cooled for atleast _____ between uses and for ___ prior to initial use

A

30 minutes, 2 or more hours

183
Q

How long should a cold pack be applied?

A

20 minutes

184
Q

Cold packs can be applied every __ to __ hours for reduction of inflammation and pain control

A

1 - 2

185
Q

With cold packs, application may extend to 30 min if tx goal is ____

A

Spasticity reduction

186
Q

With a cold bath, it’s commonly used for immersion of ___ extremities and should be immersed for __-__ min to attain desired therapeutic effects

A

Distal, 15-20

187
Q

The Cryo Cuff is most commonly used on ____

A

Knee

188
Q

With vapocoolant spray, it should be applied at a ___ degree angle at a distance of __-__ inches from the skin

A

30, 12-18

189
Q

Therapeutic effects of SUPERFICIAL thermotherapy

A

Dec muscle spasm
Dec tone
Inc blood flow to tx area
Inc capillary permeability
Inc collagen extensibility
Inc local temp
Inc metabolic rate
Inc muscle elasticity
Inc nerve conduction velocity
Inc pain threshold

190
Q

Indications for SUPERFICIAL thermotherapy

A

Abnormal tone
Dec ROM
Muscle guarding
Muscle spasm
Myofascial trigger points
Subacute/chronic pain
Subacute/chronic inflammatory conditions

191
Q

Contraindications of SUPERFICIAL thermotherapy

A

Acute musculoskeletal trauma
Arterial disease
Bleeding or hemorrhage
Over an area of compromised circulation
Over malignancy
Peripheral vascular disease
Thrombophlebitis

192
Q

A standard hot pack measures __ by __ in and used for majority of body segments

A

12 x 12

193
Q

A 24 x 24 hot pack is generally used for which area?

A

Low back or buttocks

194
Q

A cervical hot pack measures __ x __ inches

A

6 x 18

195
Q

T/F: Skin checks should be performed frequently when using hot packs

A

True

196
Q

Hot packs require approximately __-__ minutes to achieve desired effects

A

15-20

197
Q

Tx time for infared lamp

A

15-30 min

198
Q

What are the 3 methods of paraffin application?

A

Dip-wrap
Dip-reimmersion
Paint application

199
Q

With dip-wrap and dip-reimmersion method of paraffin, how many dips should the patient take?

A

6-10

200
Q

Total tx time of dip wrap?

A

10-15 min

201
Q

Total tx time of dip-reimmersion?

A

20 min

202
Q

Indications of DEEP thermotherapy

A

Acute & post-acute conditions [US w/ non-thermal]
Calcium deposits
Chronic inflammation
Delayed soft tissue healing
Dermal ulcers
Joint contracture
Muscle spasm
Myofascial trigger points
Pain
Plantar warts
Scar tissue
Tissue regeneration

203
Q

Contraindications of DEEP thermotherapy

A

Acute & post acute conditions [US w/ thermal effects]
Areas of active bleeding
Areas of dec temperature sensation
Areas of dec circulation
DVT
Infection
Malignancy
Over breast implants
Over carotid sinus or cervical ganglia
Over epiphyseal areas in young children
Over eyes, heart and genitalia
Over methyl methacrylate cement or plastic
Over pelvic, lumbar or abdominal areas in pregnant women
Over pacemaker
Thrombophlebitis
Vascular insufficiency

204
Q

How much flexion allows the therapist to target upper cervical spine?

A

0-5 deg

205
Q

How much flexion allows the therapist to target mid-cervical spine?

A

10-20 deg

206
Q

How much flexion allows the therapist to target lower cervical spine?

A

25-35 deg

207
Q

In general, with cervical traction, treatment time varies from __-__minutes

A

5-30

208
Q

Indications for compression

A

Edema
Hypertrophic scarring
Lymphedema
New residual limb
Risk for DVT
Stasis ulcers

209
Q

Indications for electrotherapy

A

Bell’s palsy
Dec ROM
Facial neuropathy
Fracture
Idiopathic scoliosis
Joint effusion
Labor and delivery
Muscle atrophy
Muscle spasm
Muscle weakness
Open wound/ulcer
Pain
Stress incontinence
Shoulder subluxation

210
Q

_____ refers to directed flow of charge from one place to another

A

Current

211
Q

_____ is a measure of electromotive force or the electrical potential difference

A

Voltage

212
Q

_____ describes the ability of a material to oppose the flow of ions through it

A

Resistance

213
Q

What is Ohm’s law?

A

Resistance = voltage / current

214
Q

_____ current is characterized by a constant flow of electrons from the anode [positive electrode] to the cathode [negative electrode] for a period of greater than one second without interruption.

A

Direct

215
Q

______ current is characterized by polarity that continuously changes from positive to negative with the change in direction of current flow

A

Alternating

216
Q

Constant flow = _____ current

A

Direct

217
Q

Bidirectional/biphasic flow = ______ current

A

Alternating

218
Q

Direct current is often used with ________

A

Iontophoresis

219
Q

The frequency of cycles of alternating current is measured in ______ or _____

A

Cycles per second, hertz

220
Q

Alternating current is most frequently in modulated form as ____ or time-modulated

A

Burst

221
Q

______ current is characterized by non-continuous flow of direct or alternating current

A

Pulsatile

222
Q

A _____ is a discrete electrical event separated from other pulses by a period of time in which no electrical activity exists

A

Pulse

223
Q

___phasic pulsed current has 1 phase for each pulse

A

Mono

224
Q

___phasic pulsed current has 2 phases for each pulse

A

Bi

225
Q

Characteristics of electrical current based on SMALL electrodes

A

Inc current density
Inc impedance
Dec current flow

226
Q

Characteristics of electrical current based on LARGE electrodes

A

Dec current density
Dec impedance
Inc current flow

227
Q

_____ = magnitude of current

A

Amplitude

228
Q

_______ = amount of time it takes for one phase of pulse

A

Phase duration

229
Q

_____ = time it takes for current to move from 0 to peak intensity within each phase

A

Rise time

230
Q

_____ = the # of pulses delivered through each channel per second

A

Frequency

231
Q

Another term related to FREQUENCY

A

Rate
Pulses per second
Hertz

232
Q

What are the 3 types of catheters?

A

External - males
Foley - females
Suprapubic

233
Q

An _______ catheter is applied over shaft of penis and is held in place by padded strap or adhesive tape

A

External

234
Q

A _____ catheter is an indwelling urinary tract catheter that has a balloon attachment at the indwelling end

A

Foley

235
Q

A _______ catheter is an indwelling urinary catheter that’s surgically inserted directly into patient’s bladder

A

Suprapubic

236
Q

What relevant information should you include when documenting therapeutic modalities?

A

Body part to be treated
Modality used
Treatment duration
Parameters
Patient response
Outcome measure

237
Q

BNR values should range between __ and ___

A

2:1, 8:1

238
Q

Most devices BNR values fall in the __ or __ range

A

5:1, 6:1

239
Q

What frequency is used for DEEPER tissue?

A

1MHz

240
Q

What frequency is used for SUPERFICIAL tissue?

A

3MHz

241
Q

______ ultrasound generates constant ultrasound waves producing thermal effects at higher intensities and non thermal effects at lower intensities

A

Continuous

242
Q

Continuous ultrasound = ____% duty cycle

A

100

243
Q

Pulsed ultrasound = ____% duty cycle

A

20

244
Q

32-79 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Acute inflammation of distal extremities

245
Q

79-92 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Exercise

246
Q

92 - 96 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Wound care, spasticity

247
Q

96-98 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Cardiopulmonary compromise
Treatment of burns

248
Q

99-104 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Pain management

249
Q

104 - 110 deg F is used for what purpose?

A

Chronic rheumatoid or osteoarthritis
Increased ROM

250
Q

Which hydrotherapy tank is used for distal extremities?

A

Extremity tank

251
Q

Which hydrotherapy tank is used for larger parts of extremities and permits long sitting with water up to midthoracic level?

A

Lowboy tank

252
Q

Which hydrotherapy tank is used for larger parts of extremities and trunk?

A

Highboy tank

253
Q

Which hydrotherapy tank is used for full-body immersion?

A

Hubbard tank

254
Q

What are the risks of hydrotherapy?

A

Falls
Fainting
Burns
Drowning
Electrical safety

PTA BOARDS (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions