Erics Stealthy Skyhawk Flashcards
(109 cards)
1
Q
What is a negative effect of pressurising aircraft?
How can we increase the safe life?
A
It has EFFECTS on the FATIGUE LIFE of an aircraft;
With each PRESSURISATION CYCLE the a/c will initially STRETCH placing SKIN under TENSION and FASTENERS under SHEAR stress, followed by DEPRESSURISATION back to NORMAL;
INCREASE its life by LIMITING the cruise ALTITUDE, flying WITHIN the ENVELOPE, AVOIDING TURBULENT AIR and HEAVY LANDINGS to REDUCE SKIN TENSILE STRESS
2
Q
What are the structural members of the semi monocoque fuselage?
Describe each one?
A
LONGERONS: LONGITUDINAL structural members;
BULKHEADS: SOLID structures 90° to the LONGERONS;
SKIN: Takes SOME of LOAD, rest is TRANSFERRED to LONGERONS, STRINGERS, FORMERS and BULKHEADS
FORMERS: Similar to BULKHEADS but HOLLOW to MAINTAIN FUSELAGE SHAPE
STRINGERS: LIGHTWEIGHT versions of LONGERONS to take SOME LOAD and TRANSFER rest to FORMERS, some BUILT INTO SKIN
3
Q
What are the advantages of semi monocoque skins?
A
STREAMLINE and COMPLEX FUSELAGE SHAPES;
COLLECTIVE COMPONENTS make up the STRENGTH so if there is DAMAGE to 1 COMPONENT it will NOT COMPLETELY COLLAPSE
4
Q
What the advantage of a non metallic construction material?
When a structure is metal what precautions are used to counter this disadvantage?
A
ABSENCE of CORROSION;
REGULAR WASHING;
HANGARING aircraft if in IDLE for a LONG TIME;
AVOID DAMAGING PAINTED SURFACES;
Treating INTERNAL STRUCTURES with MOISTURE EXCLUDING COMPOUNDS
5
Q
What contaminant is most hazardous to metals?
What does it do?
A
MERCURY;
DRAMATIC and INSTANT REACTION which will lead DESTRUCTION of STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY of aircraft structure
6
Q
What is corrosion?
How is it removed?
What aircraft components are affected by it?
A
LOSS of METAL from a SURFACE by CHEMICAL or ELECTROCHEMICAL REACTION; Usually EASILY REMOVED by MECHANICAL ACTION; ANY METAL; CONTROL CABLES; SKIN/STRUCTURAL MEMBERS; ENGINE COMPONENTS; PROPELLERS; ELECTRICAL SYTEMS
7
Q
Can engines tolerate water?
A
Most can TOLERATE DISSOLVED WATER;
FREE WATER/LARGE SLUGS can cause ENGINE DAMAGE and FAILURE;
FREE WATER will FREEZE and could BLOCK FILTERS and IMPEDE FLOW;
Can facilitate CORROSION and MICROBIAL;
WATER DENSER than FUEL so COLLECTS at BOTTOM of TANK so must be DRAINED
8
Q
What are the 4 types of gas turbine fuels?
A
TURBO FUEL A (AVTUR 40);
TURBO FUEL A-1 (AVTUR 50);
TURBO FUEL B (AVTAG or WIDE CUT)
TURBO FUEL 5
9
Q
What are the main characteristics of jet A fuel?
A
CIVIL AVIATION KEROSENE;
Essentially NO GASOLINE BLEND;
PRIMARY fuel for COMMERCIAL and GENERAL AVIATION in US;
Generally NO MILITARY USE
10
Q
What are the main characteristics of jet A-1?
A
LOW TEMPERATURE with LOWER FREEZING POINT than JET A;
Most COMMON FUEL in NZ;
Used MOST by INTERNATIONAL AIRLINES
11
Q
What are the main characteristics of jet B?
A
30% KEROSENE 70% GASOLINE WIDE CUT FUEL;
VERY LOW FREEZING POINT and LOW FLASH POINT;
PRIMARY in MILITARY similar to JP-4
12
Q
What are the main characteristics turbo fuel 5?
A
HIGH FLASH POINT MILITARY fuel;
Used in NAVAL AIRCRAFT CARRIERS
13
Q
What are jet fuels comprised of?
What are the characteristics of it?
What is the colour of it?
A
LIQUID HYDROCARBONS similar to kerosene;
MIXES FREELY with OXYGEN at COMBUSTION FLOW RATES and COLD TEMPERATURES;
OXIDES which are FORMED in COMBUSTION are GASES which keeps SOLID PARTICLES MINIMUM to avoid EROSION;
NOT COLOUR coded, have NATURAL STRAW COLOUR
14
Q
What does mixing gasoline in jet fuels do at altitude?
A
It may become TOO VISCOUS
15
Q
What are the identification for jet A, A-1, and B?
A
JET A: BLACK LABEL, 1 BLACK STRIPE, JET A in WHITE;
JET A-1: BLACK LABEL, 2 GREY STRIPES, JET A-1 in WHITE;
JET B: BLACK LABEL, 3 YELLOW STRIPES, JET B in WHITE
16
Q
What are jet fuel identifiers?
A
TYPE NUMBERS and have NO RELATION to the FUELS PERFORMANCE in the aircraft ENGINE
17
Q
What are the different types of fuel tanks?
Describe each one?
A
RIGID TYPE: METAL tanks usually made of ALUMINIUM ALLOY with WELDED JOINTS sometimes COVERED with a SHOCK RESISTANT RUBBER COATING that is SELF SEALING;
BLADDER TYPE: THIN FABRIC impregnated with NEOPRENE/similar that is IMPERVIOUS to FUEL may also be SELF SEALING;
INTEGRAL TYPE: USED in LARGE AIRCRAFT to REDUCE WEIGHT, structure SEALED in CONSTRUCTION, includes BAFFLES to PREVENT SURGING during ALTITUDE CHANGE, PRESSURISED to provide POSITIVE HEAD to system PUMP, VENTING SYSTEM to PREVENT CAVITATION
18
Q
What are the 7 features of all fuel systems?
Describe each one?
A
FILLER CAP: Used for an ENTRY to ADD FUEL, keeps out CONTAMINANTS;
EXPANSION SPACE: ADDITIONAL SPACE for fuel to EXPAND to when the tanks are FULL and the fuels HEATS UP
VENTS: Allows air to FLOW IN and OUT when it EXPANDS/USED UP to PREVENT CAVITATION and EXPANSION STRESSES;
BAFFLES: PREVENT FUEL SURGING with ALTITUDE CHANGE and INCREASES STRENGTH;
SUMPS and DRAINS: The LOWEST point of every tank, allows IMPURITIES to ACCUMULATE in such a way that SAMPLES can be COLLECTED, INSPECTED, and TOTALLY DRAINED from this point
FUEL QUANTITY DETECTOR:
STRAINERS and FILTERS:
19
Q
What is the purpose of sumps and drains?
How does it work?
A
Allows SAMPLES to be COLLECTED, INSPECTED and and TOTALLY DRAINED OFF;
DRAIN VALVE has POPPET, which, when DECOMPRESSED allows FUEL to flow OUT and when RELEASED, SEALS again
20
Q
What is the main purpose of sampling fuel?
What other precautions are there to avoid this?
Why may this be more important in AVTUR or AVGAS?
A
To REMOVE any WATER DEPOSITS;
REFUELLING at the END of DAY to PREVENT CONDENSATION processes, including STANDPIPE into DESIGN
AVTUR is MORE HYDROSCOPIC than AVGAS
21
Q
What are the types of fuel quantity indicators?
A
SIGHT GLASS;
FLOAT type;
ELECTRIC type;
ELECTRONIC type
22
Q
How does the sight glass indicator work?
A
A CLEAR GLASS or PLASTIC TUBE is OPEN to the fuel TANK that FILLS with fuel to the SAME LEVEL as the fuel in the tank;
CALIBRATED in GALLONS or FRACTIONS of a tank
23
Q
How does the float type indicator work?
A
Utilises a FLOAT with an INDICATING ROD attached to it. As the float MOVES up and down WITH the FUEL LEVEL in the tank, the portion of the ROD that EXTENDS through the fuel cap INDICATES the QUANTITY of fuel in the tank
24
Q
How does the electric type indicator work?
A
Operates with DIRECT CURRENT and use VARIABLE RESISTANCE in a circuit to drive a RATIOMETER-TYPE indicator through the MOVEMENT of a FLOAT in the tank which moves a CONNECTING ARM to the WIPER on a variable resistor in the tank;
CHANGES to the CURRENT flowing through the RESISTOR change the current of one of the COILS in the indicator;
This ALTERS the MAGNETIC FIELD which indicates the quantity
25
How does the electronic type indicator work?
Utilises a BRIDGE CIRCUIT which measures the CAPACITANCE of the tank units through fixed CAPACITORS that measure the DIELECTRIC CONSTANT (amount of fuel/air between the plates) then the CIRCUIT DRIVES INDICATOR
A REFERENCE CAPACITOR is used to account for differences in TEMPERATURE
26
What is a drip gauge used to measure?
The amount of fuel in a tank
27
What is the functions of an auxiliary pump?
Provides FUEL for STARTING at the REQUIRED PRESSURE to the CARBURETTOR or to the FUEL METERING UNIT of FUEL INJECTION system;
Supplies FUEL if the ENGINE DRIVEN (MECHANICAL) PUMP FAILS ie REDUNDANCY;
PURGES the FUEL LINES of any VAPOUR to REDUCE possibility of VAPOUR LOCK;
CROSS FEEDING;
FUEL JETTISON
28
What are the types of auxiliary pumps?
| How are they powered?
VANE type;
CENTRIFUGAL type;
ELECTRICALLY DRIVEN
29
What are the features of a auxiliary pump?
PRESSURE RELIEF VALVE;
BYPASS VALVE;
Often SUBMERSIBLE type allowing them to be INSTALLED IN FUEL TANK
30
What is the purpose of a cross feed system?
| What is the keyword?
FLEXIBILITY;
To be able to DRAW FUEL from ANY TANK to ANY ENGINE;
If one ENGINE FAILS the FUEL from that ENGINES TANK can be SUPPLIED to OTHER ENGINES;
Used to CORRECT IMBALANCE of FUEL/WEIGHT between wings as a result of UNEQUAL FUEL BURN due to DIFFERENT ENGINE TBO AGES, HEATERS using ONLY 1 SIDE, FUEL LEAKS or SINGLE ENGINE TRAINING OPERATIONS
31
What is vapour lock?
| What is an example?
FUEL VAPORISES in HIGH POINT of in FEED LINES of FUEL SYSTEM PREVENTS LIQUID FLOW passed the point;
CAUSED by EXCESSIVE HEAT or LOW PRESSURE or COMBINATION;
When SHUTTING DOWN, there is NO AIRFLOW or active COOLING SYSTEM as WATER is LOCKED in causing TEMPERATURE to INCREASE and HEAT FUEL LINES;
HOT START with BOOST PUMP OFF
32
What are the effects of vapour lock?
| What can be done when vapour lock is experienced on ground?
```
ENGINE will suffer from FUEL STARVATION;
BOOST PUMP ON;
MAGS OFF;
FULL THROTTLE and MIXTURE RICH;
WIND ENGINE for a FEW SECONDS;
CHECK EXTERNALLY for FUEL FLOW to CARB;
DRAIN;
LEAVE ENGINE to SIT for 10 MINUTES;
NORMAL HOT START
```
33
What are the advantages of hydraulic systems over mechanical systems?
LIGHT for POWER OUTPUT;
MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE through DIFFERENT SIZE PISTONS;
EASE of INSTALLATION;
SIMPLIFICATION of INSPECTION;
MINIMUM MAINTENANCE requirements due to LESS MOVING parts;
CHEAPER due to LESS MAINTENANCE costs;
TRANSFER FORCE long DISTANCES;
Can use FLEXIBLE PIPES to TRANSFER PRESSURE
Almost 100% EFFICIENT
34
What is the function of a hydraulic system accumulator?
DAMPEN PRESSURE SURGES in the hydraulic system CAUSED by ACTUATION of a unit and the EFFORT of the PUMP to MAINTAIN PRESSURE at a PRESET level;
AID or SUPPLEMENT the POWER PUMP when SEVERAL units are OPERATING at ONCE by SUPPLYING extra power from its ACCUMULATED or STORED power;
STORE POWER for the LIMITED OPERATION of a hydraulic unit when the PUMP is NOT OPERATING;
SUPPLY FLUID under PRESSURE to COMPENSATE for small internal or external (not desired) LEAKS that would CAUSE the system to CYCLE CONTINUOUSLY by action of the PRESSURE SWITCHES continually KICKING IN
35
What is the principle of operation of a hydraulic accumulator?
2 CHAMBERS, 1 with AIR/NITROGEN and one with HYDRAULIC FLUID divided by DIAPHRAGM, BLADDER or PISTON;
COMPRESSED AIR/NITROGEN CHAMBER is CHARGED to LEVEL LOWER than OPERATING PRESSURE (Accumulator preload);
Once the HYDRAULIC FLUID PRESSURE EXCEEDS the accumulator PRELOAD the air/nitrogen will COMPRESS and the RESISTANCE will act as a SPRING to provide RESERVE HYDRAULIC PRESSURE;
The charged accumulator may also SUPPLY fluid PRESSURE to actuate a component(s) briefly in case of PUMP FAILURE
36
How can you tell in an accumulator has a leak?
When system is OFF the PRESSURE GAUGE NOT reading PRELOAD PRESSURE;
When SHUTTING DOWN, the PRESSURE will IMMEDIATELY drop, it should BE GRADUAL as ACCUMULATOR provides PRESSURE
37
What checks can be done on an accumulator during the preflight?
CHECKING for LEAKS;
| CHECKING PRESSURE GAUGE itself
38
What is the purpose of a pressure regulator?
Where are they positioned?
What do they do to a constant delivery type pump?
MANAGE the OUTPUT of the PUMP to MAINTAIN PRESSURE;
PERMITS PUMP to TURN WITHOUT RESISTANCE when pressure is NORMAL;
Located so that PUMP OUTPUT can get INTO PRESSURE CIRCUIT ONLY passing through REGULATOR;
Turns it to a VARIABLE DELIVERY TYPE PUMP
39
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve?
| How can they be operated?
BACKS UP the PRESSURE REGULATOR;
LIMITS the PRESSURE EXERTED on a CONFINED FLUID;
PREVENTS RUPTURE or FAILURE of components under excessive PRESSURE and HIGH TEMPERATURE;
MANUAL, ELECTRIC, MECHANICAL, HYDRAULIC or a COMBINATION
40
What are the types of valves?
| Briefly describe each one?
RELIEF: SAFETY valves that are usually SPRING LOADED which will OPEN if PRESSURE EXCEEDS PREDETERMINED LEVEL;
CHECK: NON-RETURN valves, fitted to PREVENT REVERSE FLOW within the system usually through the use of a BALL and SPRING which TRAP PRESSURE in the lines BETWEEN the VALVE and ACTUATOR to generally HOLD the ACTUATOR at selected POSITION, this acts to COUNTER any UPSTREAM LEAKS;
BYPASS: A valve which provides an ALTERNATIVE PATH around a component if it is NOT REQUIRED or the PRESSURE becomes TOO LARGE;
SELECTOR: A VALVE is used to CONTROL the DIRECTION of movement of the pressurised FLUID to the SELECTED ACTUATING FUNCTION;
Can be ROTATING PLUG, POPPET TYPE or an OPEN CENTRE ROTATING PLUG;
SEQUENCING: VALVES that cause FUNCTIONS to operate in a CERTAIN ORDER. Most commonly known through the WHEEL well DOORS and the LANDING GEAR;
SHUTTLE: A VALVE that allows FLOW from an OUTLET port FROM either of 2 INLET ports while BLOCKING FLOW to the OTHER if original PRESSURE DROPS below a certain THRESHOLD
41
What is the purpose of an actuator?
| What are the types?
CONVERTS HYDRAULIC PRESSURE into MECHANICAL MOVEMENT to do USEFUL WORK;
LINEAR actuator/JACK; SINGLE, DOUBLE, TANDEM, 3 PORT DOUBLE, SERVO;
ROTARY actuator/HYDRAULIC MOTOR: PISTON, VANE, RACK+PINION
42
What are the ideal characteristics of hydraulic fluids?
LOW VISCOSITY;
CHEMICAL STABILITY;
HIGH FLASH POINT;
HIGH FIRE POINT
43
What are the different types of fluid?
| What are their colours?
Vegetable based: BLUE
Mineral based: RED
Synthetic: LIGHT PURPLE
44
What are the characteristics of vegetable based fluids?
```
Used in OLDER AIRCRAFT;
CASTER OIL and ALCOHOL;
HIGHLY FLAMMABLE;
NATURAL RUBBER SEALS;
Can cause CORROSION and FORM SLUDGE
```
45
What are the characteristics of mineral based fluids?
```
Widely used in GENERAL AVIATION;
PETROLEUM DERIVED;
FLAMMABLE;
NEOPRENE RUBBER (SYNTHETIC) SEALS;
GOOD LUBRICATING;
CHEMICAL PREVENT FOAMING and CORROSION;
LITTLE VISCOSITY CHANGE with TEMPERATURE
```
46
What are the characteristics of synthetic fluids?
```
Used in CIVIL TRANSPORT;
NON-PETROLEUM PHOSPHATE ESTER BASE;
VERY HIGH FLASH POINT;
Will NOT SUPPORT COMBUSTION/NOT FLAMMABLE
Most common make is SKYDROL
ETHYLENE PROPYLENE (SYNTHETIC) SEALS;
Withstand HIGHER PRESSURE and TEMPERATURES;
ATTACKS certain PLASTICS
```
47
What are fuel and hydraulic filter measurements given in?
MICRONS
48
What are the requirements of retractable undercarriage?
PROTECTION from INADVERTENT RETRACTION on the GROUND;
SUPPORT AIRCRAFT on ground at MAX ALL UP WEIGHT;
ABSORB LANDING LOADS;
Provide SHOCK ABSORPTION moving on ground;
Withstand SIDE LOADS;
MINIMUM rolling FRICTION;
MINIMUM DRAG in AIR;
MINIMUM WEIGHT for STRENGTH;
TRACTION for BRAKING;
49
What are the additional features of a large aircraft undercarriage?
MECHANICAL UPLOCKS/LATCHES;
OVER CENTERING CAMS or STRUTS;
SAFETY LOCK on COCKPIT UNDERCARRIAGE LEVER;
ELECTRIC INDICATOR to show each LEG POSITION;
COCKPIT WARMING SYSTEM;
EMERGENCY LOWERING SYSTEM
50
What is the principle of operation of the nose wheel steering on a large aircraft?
What does a follow up system do?
COCKPIT CONTROLLED through a SMALL STEERING WHEEL (TILLER);
This ACTIVATES a HYDRAULIC ACTUATOR through either CABLES/PULLEYS, ELECTRICAL SERVOS and SYNCHROS or DIGITAL DATA TRANSMISSION (fly by wire);
STOPS WHEEL from SPINNING all the way ROUND
51
What are the components of the bogie undercarriage system?
```
PIVOT TRUNNION;
TRUNNION BEAM;
UPPER SIDE BRACE;
LOWER SIDE BRACE;
DRAG BRACE;
SHOCK STRUT UPPER OUTER CYLINDER;
LOWER INNER CYLINDER;
TORQUE ARMS;
PIVOT FORK and SHAFT;
PIVOT BEAM (TUBULAR H MEMBER);
POSITIONER;
AXLE;
EQUALISER;
INDEPENDENTLY ROTATING WHEELS
```
52
What is the purpose of each component of the bogie undercarriage system?
PIVOT TRUNNION: ANCHOR UNDERCARRIAGE to aircraft STRUCTURE;
TRUNNION BEAM: Allows gear to PIVOT as it is EXTENDED/RETRACTED;
UPPER and LOWER SIDE BRACE: SUPPORTS gear LATERALLY against crosswind. Contains KNUCKLE which is to be BROKEN to RETRACT and FOLD gear;
DRAG BRACE: BRACES in the FORE-AFT AXIS;
SHOCK STRUT (UPPER and LOWER CYLINDER): OLEO STRUT that DAMPENS any SHOCK;
TORQUE ARMS: MAINTAIN FORE-AFT ALIGNMENT of UNDERCARRIAGE;
PIVOT FORK and SHAFT: PIVOTS, PIVOT BEAM to the BOTTOM of MAIN STRUT;
PIVOT BEAM (H MEMBER): Runs in FORE-AFT AXIS and has the 4 AXLES and 4 WHEELS ATTACHED;
POSITIONER: HYDRAULIC RAM that will PUSH the PIVOT BEAM into position SET by EQUALISER;
EQUALISER: PREVENT the ANGLE of the PIVOT BEAM being MORE than it should be and SETS ANGLE of PIVOT BEAM to SPIN up WHEELS
53
What is an anti skid unit?
| What is the purpose of it?
A system which COMPARES the SPEED of the AIRCRAFT WITH the ROTATIONAL SPEED of each main WHEEL;
If the SPEED of any WHEEL is too SLOW for the existing AIRCRAFT SPEED, the BRAKE on that wheel (or wheels) is RELEASED momentarily to allow the WHEEL SPEED to INCREASE and PREVENT the wheel from SKIDDING
54
What are the components of the anti skid system?
| What is the principle of operation?
WHEEL SPEED SENSOR: A STATOR in the wheel AXLE with a coil around it connected to a CONTROLLED DC source so that when ENERGISED the STATOR becomes ELECTROMAGNET. Inside the STATOR is a ROTOR that rotates at the SPEED of WHEEL. As the FIELD CHANGES a VARIABLE FREQUENCY is induced in coil which is directly PROPORTIONAL to SPEED of WHEEL;
CONTROL UNIT: COMPARATIVE CIRCUITS are used to determine if any of the signals INDICATE a SKID is IMMINENT or OCCURRING on a PARTICULAR wheel. Then SIGNALS are sent to the CONTROL VALVE;
CONTROL VALVE: Receives SIGNAL and RELIEVES or ADDS hydraulic PRESSURE to that brake to achieve OPTIMUM BRAKING
55
What protection systems are built into the anti-skid system for touchdown and wheel braking abilities?
A WEIGHT on the wheels SWITCH will NOT let BRAKES be APPLIED during touchdown UNTIL SQUAT SWITCH is activated;
There are SENSORS on each WHEEL PAIR and ADJACENT WHEELS that DETECT if there is a 25% DIFFERENCE between wheel ROTATION and if so, it will REDUCE PRESSURE on the SLOWER WHEEL
56
What is the most common method used for primary braking in modern commercial aircraft?
HYDRAULICALLY operated actuation
57
What is the principle of operation of power brakes?
| What are the back up systems?
BRAKE PEDALS are CONNECTED to BRAKE CONTROL VALVES which REGULATE PRESSURE passed to wheel BRAKE UNIT in PROPORTION to FORCE applied after passing through PRESSURE REDUCER;
CHECK VALVE and ACCUMULATOR HOLD PRESSURE in the event of HYDRAULICS FAILURE;
Usually an EMERGENCY bottle of COMPRESSED AIR/NITROGEN to PRESSURISE fluid aswell
58
How are aircraft segmented brake rotors installed on the wheel hub?
HUB KEY that ENGAGE and DRIVE the TANGS on the ROTATING BRAKE DISCS
59
What is the purpose and operating principle of the radio altimeter?
To INDICATE ACTUAL HEIGHT above ground;
FM used to MEASURE TIME taken for a RADIO WAVE to travel to the SURFACE directly below aircraft and RETURN;
OPERATES in the 4200-4400MHz where a KNOWN SIGNAL is TRANSMITTED and then VARIED from the START SIGNAL to START + 60MHz then back to START which completes 1 CYCLE of MODULATION;
The REFLECTED SIGNALS reach the aircraft when it is EMITTING DIFFERENT FREQUENCY therefore the TIME can be CALCULATED by (DIFFERENCE in FREQUENCY)/(RATE of CHANGE of FREQUENCY)
60
What are the limitations of the radio altimeter?
DEPENDANT on SURFACE REFLECTIVITY: BEST is WATER, WORST is DRY, FINE LOOSE DIRT;
Most ALTIMETERS have a LOSS of LOCK due to REFLECTIVITY at 2000-2500ft, either because of STEEP BANK, or nature of TERRAIN;
Most have CAPABILITY of reading DOWN to 20ft and ACCURACY of +/-2ft or 2% up to 500ft
61
Why have central warning systems been implemented?
| How do they get the crews attention?
COCKPIT LIMITATIONS meant many CONTROL PANELS are OUT of IMMEDIATE view and WARNING LIGHTS on these panels are INEFFECTIVE so CENTRAL ones are REQUIRED;
Through AURAL, VISUAL and TACTILE ALERTS
62
What is the purpose of the master warning system?
ALERT CREW of OPERATION PROBLEM or SYSTEM MALFUNCTION using VISUAL, AURAL and TACTILE METHODS
63
How can alerts be inhibited?
Why might alerts be inhibited?
Are there any alerts that cannot be inhibited through pressing buttons?
PRESSING the MASTER LIGHT (WARNING or CAUTION);
To PREVENT DISTRACTION during CRITICAL PHASES of FLIGHT;
FIRE BELL and MASTER WARNING are INHIBITED from LIFTOFF to 400ft or 20 seconds AFTER LIFTOFF and MASTER CAUTION LIGHT usually INHIBITED from 80kts to 400ft;
ALERT MESSAGES INHIBITED during engine START, SHUTDOWN, PREFLIGHT and POST FLIGHT;
During TACTILE ALERTS, the UNSAFE condition must be CORRECTED or further TACTILE ACTION TAKES OVER (STALL)
64
What are the central warning system of airbus and Boeing?
AIRBUS: ELECTRONIC CENTRALISED AIRCRAFT MONITORING (ECAM);
BOEING: ENGINE INDICATING and CREW ALERTING SYSTEM (EICAS)
65
What are the 3 ways alerts can be communicated?
VISUAL
66
What are the inputs of the microburst windshear warning systems?
```
PITOT SOURCE;
STATIC SOURCE;
RADIO ALTIMETER;
VERTICAL GYRO;
ANGLE of ATTACK TRANSDUCER;
FLAP POSITION
```
67
What are the inputs of the central processing unit of the GPWS?
```
RADALT with FAILURE SIGNAL;
ASI/MACH;
ADC (VSI/ALT);
ILS GLIDE PATH deviation;
GPS;
FLAP POSITION;
GEAR POSITION
```
68
What are the outputs of the central processing unit of the GPWS?
What else will the CPU display?
```
MASTER WARNING;
VISUAL WARNING;
AURAL WARNING;
ECAM/EICAS;
COMPUTER FAILURE/ANY FAILURE that occurs in the INPUT SIGNALS
```
69
What are the different modes of GPWS?
What do they mean?
What are their envelopes?
1: EXCESSIVE RATE of DESCENT with respect to TERRAIN 50ft - 2450ft;
2A: EXCESSIVE RATE of TERRAIN CLOSURE (NOT LANDING CONFIG) 50ft - 1800ft;
2B: EXCESSIVE RATE of TERRAIN CLOSURE (LANDING CONFIG) 220ft - 790ft;
3: NEGATIVE RATE of CLIMB AFTER T/O or GO AROUND 50ft - 700ft;
4A: UNSAFE TERRAIN CLEARANCE GEAR UP 50ft - 500ft;
4B: UNSAFE TERRAIN CLEARANCE FLAPS UP 50ft - 500ft;
5: EXCESSIVE DOWNWARD DEPARTURE from ILS glideslope 100ft - 500ft;
6: DESCENT BELOW MINIMUMS
70
What are the alerts and warnings associated with each mode of GPWS?
1: SINK RATE “WHOOP WHOLP - PULL UP” + FLASHING LIGHT
2A: TERRAIN TERRAIN “WHOOP WHOLP - PULL UP” + FLASHING LIGHT
2B: TERRAIN TERRAIN “WHOOP WHOLP - PULL UP” + FLASHING LIGHT
3: DON’T SINK;
4A: TOO LOW - GEAR “WHOOP WHOLP - PULL UP” + FLASHING LIGHT
4B: TOO LOW - FLAPS “TOO LOW - TERRAIN”
5: GLIDE SLOPE
6: MINIMUMS
71
What must a EGPWS have?
A EGPWS COMPUTER;
Input from VERTICAL SPEED SENSOR;
A PACIFICATION DEVICE
72
What is the purpose of ACAS?
PROVIDES ALERT information of CONFLICTING TRAFFIC and WARNS of impeding COLLISION
73
What is the principle of operation of the ACAS?
AUTOMATIC COMMUNICATION between aircraft EQUIPPED with appropriate SSR TRANSPONDER;
Each TRANSPONDER INTERROGATES all OTHER aircraft TRANSPONDERS within a PREDETERMINED RANGE on the 1030MHz FREQUENCY SEVERAL times A SECOND;
The ACAS will determine if there is a THREAT based on CLOSING RATE, BEARING and RANGE and GIVES INDICATION and ALERTS to CREW
74
What will occur if one aircraft is equipped with TCAS II and conflicting traffic is only equipped with mode C transponder?
The aircraft with TCAS II will receive VERTICAL CONFLICT RESOLUTIONS and the MODE C aircraft will get PASSIVE INDICATIONS
75
Why is there 2 aerials required for TCAS systems?
One is for AIRSPACE ABOVE, one is for AIRSPACE BELOW to COVER all airspace
76
What is the difference between TCAS I, II, and III?
TCAS I: Gives BEARING and ALTITUDE of other aircraft to 40nm, generates TRAFFIC ADVISORIES, NO RESOLUTION, MODE S NOT REQUIRED;
TCAS II: Gives TRAFFIC ADVISORIES and DIRECT VOCALISED INSTRUCTIONS and VISUAL DISPLAY INDICATIONS (VERTICAL RESOLUTION ADVISORIES)
TCAS III: Gives TRAFFIC ADVISORIES and DIRECT VOCALISED INSTRUCTIONS and VISUAL DISPLAY INDICATIONS (VERTICAL and HORIZONTAL RESOLUTION ADVISORIES)
77
What is a ring laser gyro?
| What is the advantage over normal gyros?
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A SOLID STATE device known as RATE SENSOR;
NO MOVING PARTS;
NO GIMBAL LOCK;
NO FRICTION;
NO REAL DRIFT;
NO PRECESSION;
COMPACT and LIGHT WEIGHT
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78
What does ADS-B stand for?
What is it?
What is the main disadvantage?
AUTOMATIC DEPENDANT SURVEILLANCE BROADCAST;
ATC DATA LINK SYSTEM;
RETROFITTING will be COSTLY
79
What is the principle of operation of the ring laser gyro?
TUBES filled with HELIUM and NEON gas and EMF applied to produce LASER/COHERENT LIGHT (same frequency and phase);
Light travels through 2 TUBES in OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS around triangle with 2 MIRRORS and 1 PARTIALLY TRANSPARENT MIRROR with STEADY state OSCILLATIONS;
ROTATION of RLG will EXTEND/REDUCE length that the laser must travel which will change from the PURE FREQUENCY;
The CHANGE will produce a DIFFERENT FRINGE PATTERN which can be COUNTED to to MEASURE DIFFERENCE in FREQUENCY using a PHOTOCELL DETECTOR;
This allows RATE of ROTATION to be KNOWN and sent to IRS COMPUTER
For a given path there is INTEGRAL NUMBER if WAVES, if a path is EXTENDED there are LESS CYCLES and FREQUENCY DECREASES
80
What are the limitations of the ring laser gyro?
LASER LOCK: Very low RATE of ROTATION, FREQUENCY between 2 CONTRA ROTATING BEAMS can equal 0 due to SMALL amounts of ENERGY from 1 BEAM being SCATTERED into the OPPOSITE BEAM, causing SYNCHRONISED FREQUENCIES
81
What is the IRS/INS?
A SELF CONTAINED LONG-RANGE NAVIGATION system;
Provides CONTINUOUS and ACCURATE FIX of aircraft POSITION;
EMPLOYS GREAT CIRCLE NAVIGATION to provide ACCURATE STEERING commands to the AFDS
82
What are the features of the INS/IRS?
NO EXTERNAL NAVIGATION AIDS required;
AUTOMATIC SELF ALIGNMENT and CALIBRATION;
CONTINUOUS MONITORING of its OWN PERFORMANCE;
DATA can be INPUT for present POSITION, WAY POINTS and DESTINATION;
Can be CHECKED IN FLIGHT against GROUND BASED AIDS or GPS
83
What are the components of the INS/IRS?
CONTROL DISPLAY UNIT (CDU);
GYRO STABLE PLATFORM;
ACCELEROMETERS
84
What is the purpose and function of the CDU?
CONTROL DISPLAY UNIT: INTERFACE between CREW and INS/FMS and allows CREW to INPUT FLIGHT PLAN DATA;
Up to 3 CDUs on TRANSPORT AIRCRAFT as they will be SUPPORTING SAME number of INS COMPUTERS, 3 for REDUNDANCY;
MONITOR EACH OTHER for ACCURACY to ELIMINATE INTERNAL and HUMAN ERROR that may result FROM INCORRECT DATA LOADING
85
What is the purpose and function of the gyro stable platform?
PLATFORM HOUSES the ACCELEROMETERS, ISOLATING them from them VIBRATION, TURBULENCE and ALTITUDE CHANGES;
REMOTE VERTICAL GYROS keeps PLATFORM in AZIMUTH and TRUE NORTH maintaining ACCELEROMETERS in FIXED ORIENTATION;
GYROS DETECT PLATFORM MOTION and send SIGNALS to TORQUE MOTOR which ROTATES GIMBALS to KEEP PLATFORM ALIGNED with GLOBAL FRAME;
ALIGNMENT occurs during INITIAL SYNCHRONISATION/GYRO COMPASSING, must be COMPLETED BEFORE any flight DATA ENTERED
86
What is the purpose and function of the accelerometers?
DETERMINES CHANGES in VELOCITY and hence DISPLACEMENT and NEW POSITION;
STABLE PLATFORM can house 3 ACCELEROMETERS: 1 N/S movement, 1 E/W movement and 1 for VERTICAL movement (VERTICAL NOT REQUIRED with ALT DATA from ADC)
87
What is the relationship between the 3 computers of the INS/IRS to other systems?
COUPLED to AFDS to STEER and NAVIGATE the aircraft;
It is CONTROLLED through the CDU of the FMS;
Has INPUTS from ADC;
DISPLAYS INFORMATION on the EFIS or AHRS;
Also has RELATIONSHIP with GPS
88
What are the parameters flight data recorder?
MEASURES 48 - 300 PARAMETERS;
Small TRANSMITTERS are installed on FLIGHT CONTROLS, POWER LEVER QUADRANTS etc;
The INFORMATION from these TRANSMITTERS along with information from aircrafts CENTRAL COMPUTER and any ENGINE MANAGEMENT is SENT to ACQUISITION UNIT which FEEDS this INFO to RECORDER in DIGITAL FORM which then REQUIRES a DECODER UNIT to TRANSLATE it;
MINIMUM of 25 HOURS in NZ
89
What is the purpose of the cockpit voice recorder?
| What does it include?
To RECORD all COCKPIT CONSERVATIONS whether they are via INTERCOM or SPOKEN OPENLY (EXTERNALLY and INTERNALLY);
Records over itself EVERY 30-60 MINUTES, may be ERASED when WOW SWITCH is ACTIVATED;
Includes BOTH PILOTS, FLIGHT ATTENDANT (FA) and an AREA MICROPHONE, on FOUR SEPERATE CHANNELS;
90
What are the components of a modern cockpit voice recorder?
| How is it powered?
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AUDIO COMPRESSOR BOARD;
AIRCRAFT INTERFACE BOARD;
ACQUISITION PROCESSOR BOARD;
UNDERWATER LOCATOR BEACON;
POWERED by ESSENTIAL BUS and is ALWAYS powered whenever the MASTERS is TURNED ON
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91
What are the components of the cockpit voice recorder?
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RECORDER;
CONTROL PANEL;
CEILING MOUNTED MIRCO PHONE;
BACKUP BATTERY;
CIRCUIT BREAKER
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92
What is the purpose of altitude alerting systems?
To PREVENT ALTITUDE/CLEARANCE BUSTS for aircraft with HIGH CLIMB/DESCENT ABILITIES;
REMINDER of ASSIGNED ALTITUDE and gives VISUAL and AURAL ALERT to ANTICIPATE LEVEL OFF;
Must be installed in ALL IFR
93
What is the principle of operation of altitude alerting system?
When does it give an alert in a climb?
What does it do when there is a deviation from pre set altitude?
ALERTING system LINKED by SYNCHROS or DATA BUSES to the AIR DATA SYSTEM and/or RADALT;
These give VISUAL and AURAL WARNINGS as selected ALTITUDE is APPROACHED;
Within 200ft of ASSIGNED ALTITUDE;
Gives an AUDIBLE WARNING and the ALT ALERT LIGHT illuminating
94
What is: CAS, EAS, Mach number, VMO, M(crit)?
CAS: CALIBRATED airspeed, CORRECTED for POSITION;
EAS: EQUIVALENT airspeed, CORRECTED for COMPRESSIBILITY;
MACH NUMBER: RATIO of the SPEED of AIRCRAFT to the SPEED of SOUND in the SAME ATMOSPHERIC CONDITIONS;
M CRIT:
VMO: MAXIMUM OPERATING SPEED (VNE)
95
What is the principle of operation of a Mach meter?
An AIR DATA INSTRUMENT which uses a ALTIMETER and ASI;
The CASE contains STATIC PRESSURE, the ALTIMETER CAPSULE contains a FACTORY SET PRESSURE, and the ASI CAPSULE is connected PITOT PORT;
The 2 FUNCTION NORMALLY but INTERACT through a SERIES of SHAFTS and LEVERS linked to an INDICATOR;
The INDICATOR is in COCKPIT and READS MACH NUMBER
96
What does FANS stand for?
FUTURE AIR NAVIGATION SYSTEM
97
What is the FMS?
| What is the function of the FMS?
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM: A PILOT -INTERACTIVE NAVIGATIONAL COMPUTING and DISPLAY system;
Assist in FLYING at MAXIMUM ECONOMY and SAFETY by providing FUEL EFFICIENCY and LATERAL/VERTICAL NAVIGATION guidance which REDUCES WORKLOAD at AIRPORTS
98
What does the FMS operate in conjunction with?
| How is data entered?
INS and/or GPS ACHIEVE LNAV and VNAV;
| ALPHANUMERIC KEYS
99
What is the principle of the ADC?
| What are the inputs of the ADC?
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AIR DATA COMPUTER takes RAW DATA and processes it INTO ELECTRICAL OUTPUTS to REPRESENT DATA;
STATIC PRESSURE;
PITOT PRESSURE;
ANGLE of ATTACK;
TOTAL TEMPERATURE
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100
What systems use the outputs of the ADC?
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PRIMARY FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS;
FLIGHT DIRECTOR/AFCS;
FMC;
GPWS/TAWS;
FDR;
CWP;
TRANSPONDER ALTITUDE ENCODER
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101
What are the outputs of the ADC?
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ALTITUDE;
VERTICAL SPEED;
CAS;
TAS;
MACH;
VMO;
ANGLE of ATTACK;
TAT;
SAT
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102
When does the aircraft display air data?
| Where is the ADC?
When the AVIONICS are SELECTED;
| In the AVIONICS BAY
103
How can crew test and edit the ADC?
By SELECTING TEST FUNCTION during PREFLIGHT;
| Crew CANNOT EDIT DATA in ADC such as REVISED VMO, must be done by a TECHNICIAN
104
What are the advantages of pneumatics over hydraulics?
ENDLESS supply of AIR;
COMPONENTS reasonably LIGHTWEIGHT and SIMPLE;
COMPRESSED AIR is LIGHTWEIGHT and NO RETURN REQUIRED;
Relatively FREE from PROBLEMS;
NO FIRE HAZARD, good DESIGN minimises EXPLOSION HAZARD;
Proper FILTERS minimise CONTAMINATION
105
What are the disadvantages of pneumatics compared to hydraulics?
AIR must be significantly COMPRESSED to ACTUATE heavy MECHANICAL DEVICE;
COMPRESSIBILITY of AIR leads to LAG in RESPONSE;
NOT suitable for PRECISE control operations;
DIFFICULTLY to provide AIR TIGHT SEALS and finding LEAKS
106
What are the 3 types of pneumatics used for?
LOW: VACUUM/PRESSURE GYRO instruments;
MEDIUM: ANTI ICE, CABIN PRESSURE, ENGINE START, AIRCON 50-150PSI;
HIGH: BACK UP landing GEAR and BRAKES 1000-3000PSI
107
Why is moisture removed in a pneumatics system?
| What is used to remove the moisture in a pneumatics system?
PREVENT REFRIGERATION EFFECT, where MOISTURE in compressed AIR FREEZES when function is ACTUATED and PRESSURE DROPS;
MOISTURE SEPARATOR: 98%;
DESICCANT: 2% Will be BLUE if NO MOISTURE
108
How can a pneumatic pressure actuate a hydraulic system as a backup?
SHUTTLE VALVE will ACTUATE, normally allowing hydraulic PRESSURE into the required ACTUATOR, but in event of HYDRAULIC FAILURE, will allow PNEUMATIC PRESSURE into the system to ACTUATE the JACK
109
What are the characteristics of the back up pneumatic system?
SHUTTLE VALVE directs either normal hydraulic system PRESSURE or EMERGENCY AIR PRESSURE into landing gear or brake actuator;
N2 move fluid through pnuedraulics
