ERJ Systems Flashcards
(325 cards)
1
Q
Describe the IDG (Electrical)
A
Each engine has an IDG monitored and control control unit (GCU). When an engine starts, the IDG will automatically come online, powering the respective AC bus. The previous power source is disconnected from the AC bus. For automatic Operation of the electrical system the IDG must be auto position. OFF- the generator line contactor opens, tripping off line and de exciting the selected IDG. When the oil pressure drops below 140 psi plus or -25 psi or the IDG oil temperature reaches 335°F plus or -10 Fahrenheit the EICAS message IDG 1 (2) OIL is displayed with an amber LED near the IDG knob on the overhead panel, this LED indicates which IDG must be disconnected and extinguishes after the IDG disconnects. Manual IDG disconnection by turning knob to the DISC position and hold it for one second. Do not hold the position for more than 3 seconds. Automatic IDG disconnection occurs when manual disconnection is not performed an IDG oil temperature reaches 366°F. In both cases the disconnection is mechanical and the flight crew cannot reconnect the IDG. MX must do it.
2
Q
What bus does the IDG power?
A
The respective of AC bus.
3
Q
What is the difference between off and DISC on either IDG selector?
A
Off turns associated IDG off. DISC mechanically disconnects the IDG. A reset by maintenance is required to reconnect.
4
Q
The IDGs provide what type of electrical power?
A
AC
5
Q
The OFF selection on the IDG selector mechanically disconnects it from the associated engine.
A
False.
6
Q
Name the sources of AC power.
A
IDGs, APU, GPU, RAT.
7
Q
Describe the APU generator. Electrical.
A
Before engine start, when the APU becomes available the APU generator automatically connects to the AC bus ties disconnecting the AC GPU. During the APU starting cycle, battery two is isolated from the network to power the APU start bus exclusively. In flight the APU can replace an IDG source with no operational degradation.
8
Q
The APU generator automatic connects to what bus (s) ?
A
AC bus ties
9
Q
Battery 2 is isolated from
Network for what purpose?
A
To power the APU start bus.
10
Q
When should Crew start the APU during normal operations?
A
10 minutes prior to push back or as necessary for passenger, comfort
11
Q
Describe the AC GPU.
A
Once the AC GPU is connected to the airplane and power quality requirements in voltage, amperage and frequency are with an acceptable limits an available light illuminates on the GPU button. The AC GPU has priority over the batteries to power the electrical system. Pushing the AC GPU button in connects external power to the AC bus tie, according to AC source priority. The AVAIL light extinguishers and an IN USE light illuminated.
12
Q
Which bus tie does the AC GPU connect to?
A
AC BUS Tie
13
Q
Describe when the APU is started how it affects AC GPU plugged in.
A
When the APU is started the system operational logic automatically isolates the GPU from the AC Bus Tie. The IN USE light extinguishes and the AVAIL illuminates on the GPU button. Before disconnecting the AC GPU from the airplane, you must push out the AC GPU push button, even with the In USE light already extinguished.
14
Q
How can ground staff connect the GPU without the Pilot’s?
A
Ground staff can connect the GPU directly to the AC/DC GND SVC buses for ground maintenance and Flight preparation by pushing their respective button located on the front ramp panel or on the flight attendant panel on the Forward right galley. 
15
Q
Described inverter. Electrical.
A
A static inverter, AC/DC inverter, comverts 28 V DC power from batteries to 115 V AC power to supply the standby AC bus when AC power source is not available.
16
Q
What bus does inverter power?
A
Standby AC bus
17
Q
What purpose does an inverter serve?
A
AC standby buss is powered from a DC buss through an inverter. So an inverter allows for this process to occur and engine starts can be done with only DC power.
18
Q
Describe the RAT. Electrical.
A
The RAT is an AC electrical device installed in the airplane note section which converts the kinetic energy of airflow across the turbine into AC power. The electrical power produce is rated at 15 kVA, 115 V AC, 400 Hz, three phase. The RAT electrical power drives the AC motor driven pump (ACMP 3A) for primary flight control tasks. These include highlift system actuation and power for essential avionics, communication and battery charging. No altitude restriction for RAT deployment in flight. 130 kts required to ensure the RAT continues supplying AC/DC ESS busses. At speeds below this, the rat may only supply the AC essential bus, and the batteries will automatically provide electrical power to the dc ess bus, and the standby AC bus through the static inverter. As airspeed decreases, low shedding occurs and the AC EAS BUS is no longer powered.
19
Q
Described the RAT electrical process.
A
AC power sources are not powering AC buses. Rat automatically used ploys and supplies power to the AC essential bus. DC ESS BUSES are poweres through the ESS TRU. To avoid total loss of power during this eight seconds., Batteries are used as back up to power the DC ESS buses and the STANDBY AC bus. 130 kts ensures the RAT continues supplying AC/DC ESS buses. Speed below this; The RAT may only supply the AC ESS bus, and the batteries will automatically provide electrical power to the DC ESS buses and the standby AC bus through the static inverter, AC/DC inverter. As airspeed decreases, load shedding occurs in the AC essential bus is no longer powered.
20
Q
Briefly explain the purpose of the R a T.
A
Tomorrow fied power to the AC central blustering electrical emergency. The AC essential bus has; AC FUEL pump 2A, AMP? 3A, SF-ACE 1 FLAP CH 1 ac feed, SF-ACE 2 SLAT CH 2 ac feed.
21
Q
What EICAS message would indicate that the RAT has not deployed during an electrical emergency?
A
AOM 2 445 warning batt discharging
22
Q
What AC busses are energized during an electrical emergency before the RAT deploys? After the RAT deploys? What items are on the AC standby bus? AC essential bus? Refresh by looking on schematics AOM 2 435.
A
- A 2 435. Ac bus 1, ac bus 2, ac ess bus and ac stby bus.
- ac ess bus and ac stby bus.
- AC STBY BUS: ENG 1 Exciter 1A. ENG 2 Exciter 2A.
- AC ESS BUS: AC FUEL pump 2A, AMP? 3A, SF-ACE 1 FLAP CH 1 ac feed, SF-ACE 2 SLAT CH 2 ac feed.
23
Q
What will cause the rat to deploy automatically? What speed is needed ensure the rat continues to provide electrical power?
A
- Loss of AC power.
- 130 kts.
24
Q
In case of total AC power loss in flight…
A
The RAT should automatically deploy and provide limited AC power.
25
What does the AC electrical system consist of?
2 IDGs, APU, RAT, Static inverter (ac/dc inverter).
26
Understand the AC power priority. Outside, inside, outside, cross side.
27
What type of circuit breakers does that even 75 have? How do I access them?
Thermal and electronic. On the side panel and in the MCU.
28
What purposes and inverter serve?
AC standby bus is powered through a DC bus by inverter. So inverter allows for this process. Engine starts can be made with only DC power.
29
On the ground, an engine can be started without AC power.
True.
30
The DC electrical power consists of what?
Three transformer, rectifier units. TRUS. Two batteries.
31
What on the ground can be used to start the APU?
DC GPU
32
What are the TRUs function?
The TRUS, rated at 300 a, are used as primarily source of DC electrical system, converting AC power from the AC buses into DC power.
33
What is the total DC power available?
TRU 1, TRU 2, TRU 3. BATT 1, BATT 2. DC GPU.
34
How do you the TRUS work?
3TRUS convert 115 VAC power into 28 VDC. Each TRU works in isolation. If one of them fails, the buses are automatically powered by the remaining TRUS, as long as the DC bus ties toggle switch is selected to auto.
35
What does TRU one provide?
DC power to DC bus one, DC ESS bus, one, DC ground service bus, hot battery bus one and battery one charging.
36
What does TRU 2provide?
DC power to DC bus two, DC essential BUS 2, hot battery bus 2 and battery 2 charging.
37
TRU ESS provides DC power to?
DC ESS BUS 3.
38
What purposes does a transformer rectifier unit serve?
Convert AC power to DC power. Each works on isolation so if one feels the other is automatically picking up the load.
39
The TRUS convert DC to AC power
FALSE
40
What is the minimum voltage for battery one and battery to during this evening and power of checklist?
22.5 V.
41
The hot battery bus power certain items on the airplane is powered down. What items are powered select all that apply? A) pressure refuel panel. B) engine fire fighting. C) cabin overhead lighting. D, navigation lights.
A,b
42
How did the batteries charge?
Any AC source, including the AC, GPU and the RAT via the TRUS
43
Electronic circuit breakers, protect load distribution to the following systems.
1. AMS
2. electrical
3 fuel
4 hydraulic
5 anti-ice
6 lighting,
7 oxygen
8 engine, ignition and starting
9 water
10 APU
11 fire protection
44
Where are electronic circuit breakers located?
Electronic circuit breakers are located inside the SPDAs, in the electronic bays.
45
Where are the thermal circuit breakers located?
On the cockpit side, wall panels and others inside the ICCs in the electronic bays
46
How can you reach remote CBs?
The CB function key on the MCU.
47
What is the SBDA?
From the electrical buses, the power is directed to the airplane systems and components through the SBDA. The SBDA works as circuit breaker or relay interfacing The electrical buses with the airplane systems and components.
48
What is a MAU?
Airplane systems that require a complex logic for the normal operation are connected to the MAUS, which have the ability to process various inputs and define either on/off or open/close status for a specific system.
49
What are two main components on the DC hot that bus one and two that we as pilots care about?
Batt 1:
Courtesy/service lights at
FWD DC ceiling lights, engine one oil level indication, engine 1A fire extinguish, engine 2A fire extinguisher, engine fuel shut off valvE one, hydraulic system shut off valve one.
BATT 2
CMC, engine 1B fire extinguish, engine, two oil level indication, engine 2b fire extinguisher, engine fuel shut off valve 2, hydraulic system shut off valve 2, panel refuel three, water and waste management system controller power three.
50
Understand AC power priority. On side, inside, outside, cross side.
The source priority order for powering, the airplane is; Respective IDG, APU generator, GPU on the ground without a few, opposite IDG. AOM 2 401
AC BUS one and AC bus 2 determine their own AC source independently in order of on side, inside, outside, cross side.
Respective IDG: on side.
APU generator: inside
GPU without APU: outside
Opposite IDG cross side.
51
Electrical system abnormal operation. What happens if one AC power source fails? AOM 2 431
If one of the AC power sources failed, both AC electrical networks are automatically connected by bus tie contactors. BTCS. One AC power source of sufficient to supply the whole system, without significant degradation or additional workload. Load shed: Spda commands load shedding of Galleys and right windshield heat. When possible it restores these.
52
What happened with the TRU failure?
Case of a true failure, the respective DC passes automatically power connected to the DC electrical network through both essential tie contactors and DC tie contactor according to the system logic.
53
What happens if there’s a total loss of AC power?
The rat is automatically deployed and it powers all essential buses.
54
What EICAS message would indicate RAT has NOT deployed during an electrical emergency.
Aom 2 445 WARNING BATT DISCHARGING
55
What type of engine does the ERJ have? AOM 2 451
To wing mounted General Electric CF 34–8 E engines pretties power to the airplane. The engine is high bypass and dual rotor turban fully integrated with a nacelle and thrust reverse. The N one and into rotors are mechanically and independently operated. The engine is controlled via duel channel FADEC system, providing flexible engine operation and reduced workload. Engine indications and alert or displayed on the engine indications and crew alerting system (EICAS).
Two GE CF-34-8E5 High Bypass, 2 spool, axial flow turbo fan engines
N1= Single stage fan and 4 stage LO turbine
N2= 10 stage compressor and 2 stage HP turbine
56
When will engine thrust modes automatically change?
They are listed to automatically change per the AOM descriptions below for…Take off reserve (TO-1 RSV, TO-2 RSV, TO-3 RSV) and Idle. AOM 2 479-482. Look this up for a complete answer.
57
What is ATTCS? AOM 2 475-477
ATTCS Is controlled by the full authority, digital electronic control, FADEC. Automatic takeoff thrust control system. the ATTCS is controlled by FADEC It is available on take off and go around.
Takeoff: the ATTCS Can we slept in on our offer take off. By default it will be slapped it on. The selection is made on the MCD you take off data set menu page and the indication is displayed on the EICAS as follows: ATTCS white armed green engaged.
The engagement only happens in the thrust Lefors reach the toga set position. Around in-flight the attics is automatically armed anytime the thrust rate mode is go around, making the garage possible whenever activation criteria is met.
58
When will ATTCS engage? A2 pge 477
The ATTCS Automatically commands RSV whenever it is engaged, thrust levers are at TOGA, position and one of the following conditions occurs:
1. Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%
2. One engine failure during takeoff
3. One engine failure during go around
4. Windshear detection
The RSV Mode is manually activated by moving the thrust levers to MAX position whenever that a TTCS is engaged. Whenever that a TTCS is activated, the green, ATT,CS indication on the EICAS disappears, and the cyan thrust mode will be displayed with an additional RSV indication. 
59
Engine: Recite starter limitations.
60
Recite engine abnormal start memory items. Also, what are the seven reasons for aborting start?
Affected engine: start/stops selector, Stop.
1. No positive oil pressure indication within ? Seconds after N2 speed starts to increase.
2. During engine start with a tail wind when a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cut out, 50% N2. In this case, the airplane is repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
3. No ITT indication within 30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow (no light off)
4. ITT exceeds start limit, 815°C, hot
5. Oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits.
6. N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed, hunt start
7. An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement
61
FADEC will automatically abort an engine start in the event that______
A2 483 . FADEC provides injured and start production on the ground as follows. Hung start, hot start, no light off.
62
When will CLB thrust be automatically set on the EICAS? CRZ? GA? RSV? AOM 2
CLB- During aircraft power up, if selected take off thrust is lower than CLB1CLB2 mode becomes a default until the next airplane power down/ power up
CRZ- Maximum N1 that can be used in cruise flight. Occurs in level out at final altitude.
GA- activated in flight when landing gear and flaps down by pressing TOGA.
RSV- takeoff- ATTCS is triggered and TO-x RSV with maximum N1 is activated.
63
What is the difference between T01 and TO2 thrust settings?
A2 482. TO 1 is a higher of the two thrusts available.
64
What is the difference between CLB one and sCLB 2 thrust settings?
CLB 1 is the higher thrust rating than CLB 2.
65
When FADEC automatically aborts engine start why must we still conduct the memory item?
Switch logic, protect engine wear and damage.
66
What learning scenario would you need thrust reverse?
Contaminated runway.
67
The thrust levers command the FADEC electronically. True or false.
True. Thrust levers digitally command, the FADEC, and set engine in N1.
68
What condition would warrant the use of MAX thrust? A. short field takeoff b the windshear escape maneuver c stall recovery.
Short field takeoff
69
What is the primary means to set the engine thrust? A) N1 gauge B) N2 gauge C) FADEC auto selects all thrust setting in toga detent D) itt
n1 gauge Is the primary gauge used to set thrust
70
ATTCS is required to be on for takeoff. True or false.
True
71
When the thrust reversers are open, a green REV icon appears on the EICAS between the N1 and ITT gauges. True or false.
True.
72
What is the first start Attempt time limitation? Engine.
90 seconds.
73
What is the minimum oil pressure after engine start?
Green (25 psi)
74
Before each flight, the engine oil is checked in, must be indicating ____to fly.
Green, not amber.
75
Cross bleed starts require what range of psi?
40-45.
76
To extend engine light, the engine stress is changed based on fees of flight. What change is this? And what phase is a flight?
Full authority digital engine control, FADEC, automatically manages a thrust mode- TO, CLB, CRZ, GA
77
Automatic take off thrust control system, ATTCS, is a FADEC feature that will automatically increase thrust during a takeoff or go around when thrust levers are in tea TOGA and:
-an engine failure detected, or
-N1difference between engines of 15% or more, or
- Windshear is detected
78
What is N1?
N1 Is the speed of the shaft with the fan, low pressure compressors, and low pressure turbines.N1 Is the primary gauge used to set thrust. 
79
What does a cyan chevron show on the N1 gauge?
Target N1 at TOGA thrust.
80
What does the green line show on the N1 gauge?
The green line shows the target N1 at MAX thrust.
81
Describe with the meaning of a high bypass engine is?
Since the engines are high bypass, most of the air that enters the engine is accelerated by the fan, then flows out of the engine, bypassing the core.
82
For normal operations what is the highest thrust use?
TOGA
83
When is MAX thrust use?
Stall Recoveries, windshear, escape maneuvers, or as needed for single engine operations.
84
What does interstage turbine temperature, ITT, measure?
Measures engine temperature, and the maximum ITT is shown by red tick mark.
85
What is N2?
N2 is the speed of the shaft, linking the high-pressure compressors and turbines of the engine (the core of the engine.)
86
Are there N1 and N2 shafts combined or separate?
The N1 and N2 shafts rotate independently and are N OT mechanically connected.
87
Cross bleed starts require a minimum of what psi?
40 psi. Slowly increase the thrust of the operative engine to get at least 40 psi.
88
What is a potential threat with FADEC on a crossbleed start?
Beware of the potential threat of FADEC swapping from 10th stage high pressure bleed air to 6th stage low pressure bleed air automatically. This could result from moving the thrust levers too quickly and too far forward. If this happens a hot start could occur.
89
On the ground thrust should be limited to what N1 as much as possible?
40%
90
What does stop on the engine selector do?
Commands the FADEC to shut down the engine. Thrust levers must be in the idle position.
91
What does start on the engine selector do?
Initiates engine start procedure. Fuel is automatically introduced at 20% N2 as long as the ITT is less than 120°C. Run. Normal position for engine operation.
92
Describe the free selections for the ignition selector knob.
1. OFF: Deactivates, ignition and inhibits fuel flow on the ground. The FADEC ignores OFF inflight.
2. AUTO: FADEC turns the ignition ON when Engine start attempt with at least 7% N2, one igniter. Automatic re ignition, both igniters.
3. OVRD: Enables FADEC to continuously activate BOTH igniters.
93
What did the thrust levers do?
They digitally command, the FADEC and set engine N1. 
94
How does thrust reverse work?
The engines are equipped with thrust reversers, which direct bypass air sideways and slightly forward. In flight the triggers are locked down to help prevent an effort and thrust reverser deployment. 
95
How can we tell the thrust reversers are working?
When the thrust reversers are commanded open, and Amber REV appears on the EICAS between the N1 and ITT gauges. When the reverses are fully open, REV turns green. Reverse thrust is used on landing as needed, for example, short runway and definitely on a contaminated runway.
96
A 2 p 461. All the inputs required by the FADEC for the takeoff N1 computations are made through what?
T/O DATASET MENU, on MCDU
97
What does the engine fuel system provide?
The engine fuel system provides a fuel pressure station, filtering, heat exchange and operational, bleed valves and variable geometric actuators.
98
Explain how the engine fuel pump works.
Fuel supplied by the airplane fuel tanks, flows to the engine fuel pumps. Upon exiting the tanks, the fuel flows through the low pressure pump and then divides into two paths. One flows through the high pressure fuel pump and returns to the fuel tank as motor flow.
The second flows through the fuel/oil heat exchanger to the future. Once filtered, the flow leaves, the FMU and passes through the high pressure fuel pump, before returning to the FM you. 
99
What is the fuel/oil heat exchanger?
The fuel cooled oil cooler Maintain soil temperature within an acceptable range and heats the engine fuel to prevent freezing.
100
What is the fuel metering unit?
The FMU, controlled by the SADEC, meters, and distributes the proper amount of fuel for combustion to the injectors under all operating conditions. The FMU controls the shut off valve used during all normal shut downs, and provides over speed protection. AOM, volume two, page 463.
101
Engine. What is the variable geometry actuator?
Variable, geometry, actuator consist of two field trip and actuators controlled by the FADC via FMU. The purpose of the actuators is to optimize the position of the compressor staters as a function of corrected in to revive optimum compressor efficiency.
102
What are the fuel injectors?
The fuel injectors atomized the fuel from the FM you and direct it into a combustion chamber.
103
What is a general description of the lubrication system of the engine?
A2 465. Each engine has an independent lubrication system. The oil system lubricates and cools the turbine engine, main shaft, bearings and accessory gearbox. Oil is pressurized in a lubrication pump, and then passes through the filter, the fuel oil heat exchanger, and is then divided into several circuits to lubricate the engine. The main components are the oil tank, oil, pump, oil filter.
104
Describe the starting and ignition systems.
The engine starting system consist of, air, turbine, starter and starter control valve. The pneumatic system provides bleeder to the ETS to rotate the rotor, sweet and start the engine. The FADEC opens the starter control valve, providing bleeder from the APL, a ground source, or the opposite engine. The AirTrain starter is a turbine that it’s smaller is the engine to a self-sustaining RPM level. The FADEC closes the SCV with us or cut up speed is reach. A2 467.
Ignition system. The ignition system provides an electrical spark for the fuel combustion during ground, in-flight, start attempts, and for automatic relate. The FATEC energizes one igniter for on ground engine starts, and both igniter is for inflate engine starts. When the ignition selector knob is placed on the override position, both igniters on each engine or energize.
Starter operation, the engine starter is controlled via the engine start selector knob on the power plant control panel. Four on ground starts the SCV opens providing leader to the ATF stand crease, rotor, speed for engine start. 
105
Describe generally the engine control system.
The engine control system, performs, engine, control and thrust management, provides information to the carpet, maintenance reporting an engine condition monitoring. The engine control system consist of the feedback, fresh liver, T2, and anyone sensors. The FADEC uses input from the airplane and engine to monitor and manage the engine control system. The thrust lever receives inputs of the desire trust from the pilots or from the auto throttle. The tea to censor monitors engine, inlet air temperature for use in FADEC control calculations. The end one sensor provide fan speed data for the FA DEC, an airplane vibration monitoring system.
106
Describe FADEC.
The FADC is the main component of the engine control system. It’s functions include, engine, protection, control of the requested, and max in one, control of the Att CS. The FDC has to it in a cold, but isolated channels. One operates as the Incontrol channel and the other as a standby. The standby channel constantly processes all the data, and is always ready to take control of the engine in case the actor channel fails. The FADC in control channel switched on every inch of her.
107
Engine thrust ratings. AOM, volume two page 477.
The FDC calculates the maximum and one for each thrust rate mode adjusted for attitude, temperature and airspeed, and displays both digital and analogical readings on the N1 indicator. The thrust rate modes of the following. Take off, take off one take off to take off three. Take off reserve, take off one reserve, take off to reserve, take off three reserve. Go around. Go around reserve. Maximum continuous stress. Maximum climb, climb, one, climb too. Maximum cruise CRZ. Idle.
108
AOM to page 481. Describe FADEC, engine protection.
The FAADEC provides interest her protection on the ground as follows, hung start, hot start, no light off. Over speed protection, whenever they’re into reaches 102% the FADEC automatically commands an engine shut down. In the event of three consecutive over speed detection events within 30 seconds the FADC will not relate the engine. Over temperature protection, the FAADEC controls the ITT limits for engine start and throughout engine operation. ATT limit is very little according to the engine operation phase. ITT over limit protection, during engine start if the Att reaches its limit the FADEC automatically shuts off if your flow aborting the start sequence. In this case, the start control valve is not automatically close. Pilot intervention is needed to close SCV by selecting a start stop switch to stop. Engine start, HIIT prevention, temp route to Att control the engine ground starts to FADEC will not allow fuel flow if Att is above 100 and Drew 20°C. In this case, when the pilot sets the start stops left her to start the shower control valve is committed open but the fuel flow only starts when Att drops below 120°C. 
109
What are the areas of the aircraft that have fire protection? Hey. Engines V. Lavatory, trash, cans. See Carl compartments de Main passenger cabin. EAP you. Select all that apply.
110
The fire protection system provides fire detection and extinguishing for what
Engines, a few, cargo, compartments, lavatories. In addition, portable fire extinguishers are located in the cockpit in cabin.
111
An event of a fire protection system component failure what will you see
I cast caution message will be displayed and fire on that system can no longer be detected
112
If a fired is detected. What happens
EICAS warning message will appear. The appropriate handle/button will illuminate. Master warning light will slash. triple chime in fire bell will sound.
113
Is inch and one fire is detected. What happens
The handle lights up. When pulled three valves close. Fuel shut off valves, hydraulic shut off valve
114
How many engine fire sting wishing bottles are there?
There are 2 inch and fire extinguishing bottles. Bottle and bottle be. Both can be used in one engine or one in each. We can discharge the Helen bottles into the engines to fight in the engine fire, even when the aircraft is powered down.
115
When the engine fire extinguishing bottle is discharged siren handle illumination______
May be lost. In this case, if the CAS message is still active the fire condition persists.
116
If a fire is detected in the Ford cargo bin, what visual overhead panel do you have?
Ford cargo button illuminates red.
117
When the Ford cargo button illuminates read what happens
The air circulation fan is turned off. Heirate fire extinguishing bottle is armed. The Ford cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve is commanded close.
118
When the Ford cargo extinguisher button is pressed, what happens?
It’s a Sturgis, both the high and low rate Halo on fire extinguishers (in flight. When button is illuminated.)
119
If the Ford cargo button is not illuminated, what do you have to do?
Press to arm, press to discharge.
120
On the ground, pressing the Ford cargo fire extinguisher button once does what?
If the light has an illuminated, and it is armed, or if you have pressed it, wants to arm it, because the light did not come on… On the ground one press only the high rate Halen bottle discharges. It will require an additional trust to discharge a little rate, hairline bottle. So it would take three fast as a discharge, both bottles if the button didn’t initially illuminate on the ground.
121
There are—- Hey lawn fire extinguisher bottle shared between the forward and aft cargo base. Can they be used to fight a fire in Beaufort and aft? 
Two. They can be used to fight a fire in either the Ford or ass, but not both.
122
Press and hold the fire detection system test button to test what?
Smoke, engine, and a few fire detection systems.
123
Holding the fire detection system, test button does what?
Test all fire button/handles illuminate red. Master, warning, light illuminates. triple chime, and fire bell oral warning sound. 5E I,CAS fire messages appear.ENG 1, ENG 2, APU, CARGO AFT, CARGO FWD. FIRE Illuminate inside both the Att gauges. 
124
What button illuminates is fire detected in the aft cargo van?
Aft, cargo illuminates read in the high rate. Fire extinguisher bottle is armed. It is the same issue with arming and deploying as the four cargo bin.
125
What button illuminates if an APU fires detected?
AP fasting shirt button. If the EM ER stop push button is not pressed, the APU fire extinguisher light will illuminate one minute after the fires detected.
126
If you fire extinguisher button is illuminated, and the EMER stop but push button is pressed. When press what happens?
If you feel shut off valve closes, if you Halen, fire extinguisher, discharges, turns off the red striped bar on the APUEMER stop push button.
127
APU emergency stop button, what are the colors?
The top half illuminates, right of the APU far is detected. The bottom, half illuminates white when pressed.
128
The APU feels shut off valve, will automatically close if a fire has been detected for___while on the ground only.
10 seconds. This will also have another fire extinguisher test button is pressed for 10 seconds for a longer.
129
Fire protection, system provides EICAS messages for
Engines, APU, cargo, compartments, lavatories. The laboratories have smoke detectors and fire extinguishers built into the trash cans. If the trashcan reaches a certain temperature, Halen is automatically discharge.
130
If smoke is a text, Anita lavatory what happens?
The master warning, lights illuminate. The EICAS warning message LAV smoke is displayed. In the laboratory with a smoke has been detected. An alarm sounds and a smoke detector. Light comes on. A flashing orange light on the respective attendant lights, panel, rainbow lights, illuminates.
131
What shows are the engine fires detected?
SIRE is displayed in the respective ITT gauge. triple chime/fire bell all warnings are sounded. Fire handle illuminates.
132
Engine fire detection is on what busses?
Dc essential bus 1 and 3.
133
Engine fire extinguisher is on what buses
Hot bath bus 1 and hott batt bus 2
134
Pull the fire handle and it does what?
AOM 2. following shutoff valves close;
135
What’s the fire handle has been pulled the extinguisher bottles could be operated. Rotating the fire handle, blank, discharges, extinguisher bottle a into the associate engine.
Counter clockwise.
136
What’s the fire handle has been pulled the extinguisher bottles could be operated. Rotating the fire handle, blank, discharges, extinguisher bottle B into the associate engine.
Clockwise
137
A pew, fire protection system consist of
AP far detection, if you fire extinguisher and continuous built in Tesla, detect internal fault.
138
What bus is the APU fire detection on? What bus is the APU fire extinguisher on?
DC Central bus one, MAU, one, and MAU 3 DC essential bus two. A few fire extinguishers on DC Central bus too.
139
The AP far detection system is comprised of two doctor loops. Wanna fire condition is detected the signal goes to the MAU, which generates associated blank and alarms
EICAS
140
What does the fire extinguishing system comprised of?
One pushbutton, one fire extinguisher bottle.
141
When the fire extinguisher button is pressed the system…
Discharge is the APU fire bottle. Shuts down the app. You through the app. USADEC. Closes the app. Use fuel shut off valve. Displays and I Cass advisory message a few APU FIREX BTL DISCH.
142
Each kind of compartment has an independent smoke detection system. The four cargo compartment has blank smoke detectors. The Acado compartment has blank smoke detectors. The system is monitored by periodic bill and test generating the associate alarms and ICA ass messages after school detention for Department, the air circulation fan in the fork and Carmen automatically turns off and the ventilation outfit oval closes.
A2 501. Three, two.
143
Why is there a ventilation system in the four cargo?
Live animals.
144
After fire smoke detector in the Ford cargo compartment, the following actions are automatically committed by the system…
Air circulation fan is turned off, the high rate fire extinguisher bottle is armed and the Ford cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve is cabana closed.
145
Are after smoke or fire us a text and ask her apartment the following actions automatically committed by the system…
Hi rate, fire extinguisher bottle is armed.
146
The cargo fire extinguishing system is comprised of? Where is it located?
One highway extinguishing bottle and one low rate extinguisher bottle. Both extinguisher bottles are installed in the center avionics day and used in either Ford or ask compartment.
147
Oh, explain what happens when you press the cargo compartment button for fire extinguishing…
The higher rate sections, your bottles discharge immediately into the stuff to Carbone bartend. Yeah I see a S status message CRGSIREXHIDICH display. One minute later, the second a fire extinguisher bottle discharge is automatic, Liana or juice, flow rate, and the agent remains in his left a cargo component for 75 minutes for airplane with 60 minute version time allowed.
148
What happens if you immediately press the associate cargo fire a push button before the one minute.?
Immediately discharge is the low rate extinguisher bottle. In case of fire on the ground, the low right fire extinguisher bottle is not automatically discharge. The flight crew must push the cargo fire extinguisher push button. Once again, they discharged her a bottle. After discharge event, when the airplane is on the ground, the message, CRG forward or aft fire system fail may display on the high cost.
149
Cargo compartment fire, extinguishing system how does pushing a button in flight versus on the ground change?
In-flight push the bottle once the higher rate bottle. Discharges, the low rate bottle automatically discharge after one minute. On ground push the bottle once hire a bottle discharges. You have to push the bottle one more time for the bottle to discharge flow rate.
150
Cargo compartment, fire, extinguishing system. Non-annunciated fire extinguishing. The system can be used even without a cargo smoke warning. In this case, the high rate bottles arms by pushing the respective cargo fire extinguisher button, and is indicated by the red button light and associated EIC ass message. The button is pushed again within the next two minutes, the high rate bottle is discharged. At this time the low rate bottle is armed. In case of flight crew does not push the button within the next two minutes, the system is reset, and the high rate bottle will not discharge. Can you think of a time when Carlos I may not be annunciated? 
151
What does a lavatory smoke detection system consist of?
One smoke detector sensor installed on each lavatory ceiling. If a smoke is detected in either lavatory… The master warning, lights illuminate. The eye cast warning message laugh smoke is displayed. In the lavatory where the smoke has been detected an alarm sound at the smoke detector light comes on. It’s flashing orange light on the respective a tenant light panel illuminate. Rainbow lights. When the temperature inside the waste container, sees a certain limit the system automatically just discharges extinguisher agent. It requires inflation can suppress the fire by using a portable fire charger.
152
What do the flight controls consist of?
Elevator, rudder, ailerons, spoilers.
153
Out of the flight controls all of them or fly by wire, except which one?
Ailerons
154
What does the electric PBIT test?
Test, electrical components of the FBW fly by wire system.
155
When does the electric PBIT test automatically perform?
When a sea power is established, and it takes three minutes.
156
How can the electric PDAT test be interrupted?
Hydraulic pump, turned on, flight control mode, buttons cycled, AC power interrupted.
157
After a successful electric peed at test how many hours is it good for? When would the captain perform the electric PBIT test?
50 hours. The first flight of the day test.
158
Hydraulic PBIT test what? Test, hydraulic components of the FBW.
159
When will the hydraulic key be a T test auto perform?
All three hydraulic systems, pressurized, one minute.
160
How can the hydraulic PBIT test be interrupted?
It can be interrupted any flight control surface moved.
161
How long is the hydraulic PBIT test good for when it’s successful? When does the captain do the hydraulic TBIT test?
50 hours, the same as the electric PBIT test. Captain does it on their originating flow.
162
The elevator has how many actuators? Do you actually owners. Each powered by two different hydraulic systems. The actuators alternate to provide even wear. Usually every other day. You can see which hydraulic actuator is being used by looking at the systems flight control some Gnostic page.
163
The slats and flaps have protection. What is the protection?
SKU protection for asymmetric slap slap movement. Strike protection. Stops slot and slap. Extension in force is too great
164
On the overhead panel under flight control mode if you push in the elevator button what happens?
Goes into direct mode and loss of higher levels.
165
On the overhead panel flight control mode. If the elevator button is not pushed in what does this mean?
Normal mode, higher levels. AOA limiting with elevator offset helps prevent stall. Press, compensation, helps prevent pinching moment with rust change. Elevator control, scheduling with airspeed. Less deflection at higher speed. Configuration change compensation, more stable in pitch when using speed breaks.
166
On the overhead panel flight control mode. What does it mean if you push the writer in.
Direct mode and higher levels are lost.
167
On the overhead panel flight control mode, if the rotor button is pushed out what does this mean?
Normal mode. higher levels of authority. Rudder flight authority, yaw damper and turn coordination, via AFCS (auto pilot)
168
On the overhead panel, the flight control mode section if the spoiler button is pushed in what does this mean?
Direct mode, loss of higher level functions. Ground spoilers not available, even if the spoiler levers actuated.
169
On the overhead panel, flight control mode. Spoiler button pushed out. Places elevators in normal mode. What are the higher functions?
Roll, spoiler, scheduling with air, speed and speed break deployment. Allows for more precise, low-speed, roll control. Ground spoilers, automatic deployment, deployed, automatically on landing, stowed, if dresses added for go round.
170
On the overhead panel, stall warning, what do the two shaker cut out button to do?
Pushed in striped. Cuts out the shaker. Pushed out, dark. Shaker channel, active, the shaker activates when you’re nearing stalling AOA.
171
What are the pilot indications that you’re entering a stall?
The shaker will activate when pitched to the PLI (pitch limit indicator) and/or when airspeed indicates in the LSA, low speed, awareness, region.
172
Is operation with the PLI’s continuously displayed OK?
No, it is prohibited. Momentary displays of the PLI are OK though.
173
What does the fly by wire components consist of?
Control yolk sends information to the AC E, the AC E to the FCM, which the FCM returns information to the AC E, and then the ACE sends the information to the PCU.
174
Describe flyby wire, control.
Control. The pilot controls have sensors that send position signals to the AC E.
175
The AC E, actuator control, electronics, do what?
The ACE connects the control column electronically to the control surface. It provides direct analog control.
176
What do the FCM, flight control module, do?
The FCMS provide software base assistance to the AC ES. They provide the higher level function available with normal mode, such as AOA limiting.
177
What provides FBW components with normal mode?
FCM, flight control mode. Higher level function, such as AOA limiting.
178
What does the PCU, power control unit do?
The PCUS hydraulically actuate control surfaces.
179
Left Alaron/MF spoilers. Left side of the control wheel. What does this function
In addition to Aileon deflection, the multifunction spoilers Also deflect to assist in role control. The FCM which provides the higher level function, determine spoiler dissection based on the airspeed.
180
What does the pitch trim switch do
Terms airplane by moving the horizontal stabilizer.
181
Moving the pitch trim switch for more than three seconds does what? Who has the ultimate pitch trim authority?
Limited to three seconds, then an oral trim as it is. Just have to switch his actuated for more than seven seconds this which is disabled. The captains terms which has priority over the first officers
182
Right air Laurent. MF spoilers. Work same as the left.
183
Tell me about it rudder.
Left and right ruddee. Each rudder controls single rudder surface. There are 2 PCUs,power control unit, But only one operates at a time. Alternate on system power up.
184
What is the speed brake lever to?
Big break, lever symmetrically decoys, the multi function panels. All multi function, spoiler panels, deploy at the same angle in response to the speed brake lever position. Like all flight controls except the air on the speed breaks are fly by wire. Speed, brake lever, spoiler panels are on the far outside of the wing near the wing tip. The inner two spoilers are ground spoilers and are not deploy wispy, brake lever. 
185
Speed. Brakes will automatically retract it?
Air speed slower than 180 kn or thrust near TOGA, 70° TLA, or flaps to or greater.
186
What is the trim panel allowfor?
The trim panel allows for trim at all three axis of Flight. May not trim commands omega-3 limited three seconds
187
Does the roll trim switch do?
The roll trim switch commands or roll trim actuator motor and physically move control will left and right. The role trim can be interrupted by the Att trim this button on the yoke.
188
What does the pitch scream switch do?
Terms the airplane by moving a horizontal stabilizer. Making three seconds. The captains chairs, which has priority over the first officers. Stabilizer trim, priority. Back ups, which is shown on the panel. Captain. First officer. SCM auto term commands.
189
What does the yaw trim knob do?
The left or right. Your trim is not automatically accomplish on auto pilot is on. Ultimately I see an S. Just left.
190
Pitch trim system one and two cutout, pressing does what?
When press, disables pitch, trim channels, one and two. I love another picture run away after pressing a hole in the AP trimmed this button repression sure the picture.
191
The slat and flap levers let’s go. Simultaneously. How many slack boards do we have? How many flatbreads do we have?
Slight inboard. Slight outboard. Flap inboard. Flap outboard.
192
What flat settings are take off? What flap settings landing?
Slaps one, two and four are take off. Flats five and FULL are landing.
193
Tell me about the Aileron system. And what happens if the airline disconnect handles food.
Taylor and system is divided. Captain controls the left or on the first officer controls and write a letter on. During normal operations to control columns are connected. There is a left control people in the right control people. Is LVR Jim the alarm disconnect handles polled, and the free control column is then identified in that part becomes to pilot
194
Tell me about the elevator controls? Tell me what happens when the elevator disconnect.
The elevator controls are divided. The captain controls the left elevator, and the first officer controls are right elevator. During normal connections, control columns are connected. Elevators jam. The elevator is disconnected by being pulled. The freak control column is that identified and Pilot becomes the pilot flying.
195
What do the primary flight control system consist of?
Ailerons and the multi function rule spoilers for roll access control. Elevators for pitch access control. Rudder for yaw access control.
196
What does a secondary flight control system consist of?
Horizontal stabilizer. Flaps and slats the multifunction spoiler when used as a speed breaks or ground spoilers. Dedicated ground spoilers.
197
Generally describe how the flight control system operates
AOM page 519. Hydraulic actuators control their respective flight control services. These are referred to as power control units or PCU. The ailerons are commanded by conventional control cables that are run from each control will back to a pair of Hydro mechanical actuators.
Elevators, runners, roll spoilers, as well as all secondary flight control systems, including the horizontal stabilizer, flaps and slots, ground spoilers and speed brakes, are controlled electronically using fly by wire technology.
The primary flight control electronics include two complementary parts. The primary actuator control electronics, PACE. The flight control module FCM. Primary actuator control electronics and or flight control modules are employed to operate the respective electro hydraulic or electromechanical actuators.
198
The pitch trim switch on the yolk. What does it do?
Trims the airplane with the auto pilot is not engaged. The actuation of only half the switch does not command the horizontal stabilizer. If half the switches continue to be activated for more than five seconds, the switch is automatically deactivated. Manual pitch trim switch commands are limited to three seconds. If you hit the trim switch while the auto pay is engaged, causes auto pilot to disengage.
199
 On the control will the a P/trim DISC button does what when pressed?
When press, disconnect the auto pilot and stops any active trim command. Pitch, role, and yeah. If rest more than 11 seconds, the pitch trim fail caution I cast message appears. When released, the trim tempo, Billary, pitch, roll, yacht is restored. When the pitch trim system cut out button is pushed in this button is no longer functioning. 
200
What happens if you pick up the slap and leave it at the intermediate position?
Intermediate positions are not enabled. If the lever is left at an intermediate position, flaps and slats remain in the last selected position. Position floor is gated for normal. Go around and take off. Position five is used for landing.
201
When you pull the speed brake lever what happened?
Symmetrically deploy the multifunction panels. All multifunction spoiler panels deploy at the same angle, responsive speed, brake lever position.
202
What happens when you hit the pitch trim system one cut out button? Guestroom system to cut out button?
 Disables the HS-ACE channel 1 and the PITCH TRIM DISC function on the captains LH AP/Trim disc button.
Disables the HS-ACE channel 2 and the PITCH TRIM DISC function on the FO’s rh AP/Trim disc button.
203
Pulling the elevator disconnect handle, does what?
Isolates the Captain and First officers control column for elevator control.
204
Pulling the Elron disconnect handle, does what?
Isolates the Captain and officers control wheel for aileron control.
205
Describe the fly by wire system.
Fly by wire is an electronic system designed to operate. The flight controls replacing the control cables of a conventional airplane. It is composed of nine actuator control, electronics, a CES, and for flight control modules, FCM’s.

206
Name the actuator control electronics, AC, ES, and flight control modules FCM’s.
3 primary-ACEs (P-ACE)
2 Slat/Flap ACEs (SF-ACE)
1 Horizontal stabilizer ACE (Hs-ACE)
3 spoiler ACEs (S-ACE)
4 Flight Control Modules (fcm)
207
Where are the three primary ACES located?
To install in the Ford electronics bay and one installed in the after electronics bay. Each PACE has two channels one is active and the other is standby. The P- ACE control rudder and elevator surfaces.
208
Where is the two slat flap ACES located?
They are located in the middle of Tronics bay. Each SFACE has two channels, one channel for flap, and one channel for slat. SSACE controls the flat and flap surface. 
209
Where is the ONE horizontal stabilizer actuator control electronics store?
The HSACE is installed in the aft electronics bay. It controls the horizontal stabilizer surface. The HSACE has two channels that operate an active and standby configuration. The active channel changes daily. As long as one channels, operational, automatic and manual, trim, via LH, Rh, and backup pitch trim switches are available.
210
Where are the three spoiler actuator control electronics located?
The S-ACE Resides within the FCMS and is used to control the multifunction spoilers. Each FSM controls one pair of multifunction spoiler. FSM1, FCM three and FCM Four have wiring to control spoilers. FCM two does not control any spoiler pair.
211
Give a brief description of the flight control modules.
The FCMS provide software base assistance to the PACE and is required for normal mode. Operation of the flight control system. The FCM units are connected to the PAC via the controller area network bus, can bus, Providing digital inputs to the PACE, which are combined with Pilot inputs. This is used to augment pilot inputs for different airspeeds and provides other high-level functions such as angle of attack limiting to the PACE units. FCM one and two are located in the modular avionics units one, MAU one, and FCM three and four are located in the modular avionics unit three, MAU3.
212
Describe normal mode.
The flight control module provides software based airspeed gain schedules and control limits to the PACE, as well as high-level functions such as. Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed. Autothrust compensation with elevator. Angle of attack limiting with elevator offset. Rudder, airspeed, gain, scheduling and stroke limiting. Your damper and turn coordination via a FCS. Rutter flight authority. Roll spoiler, scheduling with air speed and speed. Break deployment. Configuration change compensation with horizontal Stabilizer due to speed breaks actuation. 
213
Describe direct mode.
The FCM is removed from the control loop and control limits. Default to values set by hardware in the PACE. Direct mode of operation is primarily the result of loss of data from all FCM, no airspeed, input, or multiple ACE failures. Operations defaulted to fixed control laws configuration. Control input provided by Captain and First officers sensors it sent directly to the surface.
214
What is the purpose of the PBIT?
The power of built-in test reduces a flight control system X position to lay in fault, ensuring the system components remain capable of executing their functions. The pivot is provided for both electrical and hydraulic systems. The pivot expires after 50 hours elapsed time since the last successful peeve it once the PBIT is expired,FLT CTRL bIT expired EICAS CAUTION Message displays until next successful. If expires in flight EICAS shows on the ground.
215
C print out for EBIT & HBIT. Fly by wire back up battery. What does the back of battery do?
In case of extremely improbable failure, that would render complete loss of normal, an emergency electrical power to the SBW, the backup power system, I know, Pilot intervention, keeps the appropriate number of elevator and writer actuators operating for at least 15 minutes.
216
How was the pitch access controlled? By means of electrohydraulic, commanded, elevators, and in electromechanical horizontal stabilizer.
217
Scribe. The elevator control system. Pilots inputs to the elevators are through the cockpit control, columns in normal or direct mode. The elevators can be automatically control through the FCM via the auto pilot.
A total of 4PACE channels are used to independently control each of the four PCUs, Providing the analog elevator control functions implemented in the P E A C E units.
218
Describe, stabilizer, trim, manual, trim.
The metal trim is committed through switches installed on the control wheels horse back up switch located on the main pedestal. The HSACE receives a command from the controls or the back up switches, and then controls and electro surfer motor couple to the HSA.
219
Stabilizer, trim, priority logic. The HS, AC E response to all trim commands with the following priority…
Backup switches, LH patch, trim switch Captain, Rh pitch, trim switch first officer, FCM auto trim command.
220
Auto pilot trim. The auto pilot sends command to the HSACE, that controls an electrical servo motor coupled to the HSA when the autopilot is engaged.
Auto pilot trim function will be active only F… Auto pilot engage. Configuration trims operational. Manual electric trim is not active. On site. Auto pilot channel is priority. In case of an electrical failure followed by a rapid deployment. The trim, functional operating at a low rate for either manual trimmer, auto pilot trim.
221
I don’t electrical merge and see only the HSACE, channel 2 is operational at low rate. And lots of airspeed daughter from the SFCM also result in low rate operation of the horizontal stabilizer, providing structural protection for the surface.
222
How was the Alaron controlled?
Aileron controls accomplished through conventional cable system which transmits control an auto pilot inputs to the ailerons power control unit. The power control units are driven by the following hydraulic systems… Hydraulic system two left and right inboard PCU. Hydraulic system three left and right out for PCU.
223
For aileron control, multifunction spoilers, yaw control, slats and flaps. Look at AOM to print outs.
224
The PFD displays what?
Air data, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed. IRS, data pitch, bank, flip, scared. Radio altimeter. Also, displays navigation, communication, and automation information.
225
Indicated air speed. And what does the speed trend white bar predict? What does green dot do.
The white bar predicts where the earths we will be in 10 seconds. Green dot indicates at least one point 3G over shaker speed. Green dot compensates freaking figuration at ice. It is used for drift down, ideal flap, extension, speed, and minimum maneuvering speed. Green dad can be referenced as minimum flying speed.
226
What symbol is the pitch bank?
Pitch bank is the black aircraft and shows pitch bank relative to Rison source data is IRS.
227
What symbol is the green aircraft? FTA, flight path angle. Shows the current flight path with reference to Verizon. For example, of flying an approach the 3° glide slope. The FTA will show 3° below the high rising.
228
Acceleration pointer what does it do as far as airspeed
Shows changes and acceleration. If the green Chevron is below the airplane, the airplane is slowing. If it’s above the airplane, the airplane is accelerating.
229
Speed air tape shows difference between actual and suck at airspeed. In this example. The actual airspeed is higher than the selected so the bar is above the wing.
230
Indicated altitude on the right side of the PFD. The altitude train vector. The white bar indicates where the altitude is predicted in six seconds.
231
Low speed awareness, tape shows what? Amber? Red? Pitch limit indicators?
Amber caution range. Read stick, shaker, activation, speed, 3 to 7% above aerodynamic stall. Pitch limit indicators PLI… Show the pitch at which the shaker will activate color coded green OK for normal Flight amber caution, red shaker activation.
232
What does a radar altimeter show?
Displays current height above terrain. If one radar altimeter’s loss in a dual insulation, the remaining radar altimeter provides the radio altitude information for both PFTs. In this case, the radio altitude read out as shown and amber and I cast message is posted indicating the failed system. There are only displays when within 2500 feet AGL. Always used for situational Werness approach class and cat to approaches.
233
When setting the altimeter settings, what is verified on the originating flow for the Captain?
Altimeters are verified, is set to die in. Inches not HPA. Hecto pascals.
234
The wind display on the MFD shows what?
Displays the wind direction and speed relative to the aircraft. Use for for dissent planning if there’s a strong town consider beginning to sent earlier by decreasing the sun angle.
235
What is SAT?
Celtic air temperature. Temperature of the air around the airplane as if one were standing still.
236
What is TAT?
Total air temperature. Temperature of the air experience by the moving airplane. The airplane move through the air. It is compressed and heated. TT is about 20° above SAT at mock .8.
237
What is TAS?
True airspeed. Speed at which an airplane is moving relative to the air that surrounds it. TAT is used for aircraft icing awareness. TAS a cruise could be compared to the release for performance awareness.
238
On the reversionary panel. Displays on MFD.
Auto. If the PF D, or EICAS fail the failed screen is displayed on the MFD. It’s both fail. The PFD has priority. PFD displays the PFD on the MFD. MFD displays MFD on the MFD. EIC ass displays that I Cass on the MFD. At least one TFD in one EIC ass must be displayed in the cockpit. This now will not allow selection if a PFD or EICS would not be to Slate.
239
What are the ADS components?
Air data, smart, probes, total air, temperature, probes, air data applications.
240
Ads reversion button.
When pressed changes the idea source. If an abnormal source is selected a white striped bar illuminates inside the switch. Air data systems, one, two, and three are used to display information on the PFTs. The captains PFD defaults to ATS one. The FO’s PFD defaults to ATS too. Add three as a dedicated back up. If the captains fails, it goes to add three back up and then cross side adds to the FO.
241
IRS reversion button. The initial reference system provides attitude COM, Ma, Roland pitch, and heading information to the PFD. The airplane is equipped with two IRS captains. IRS is one FO’s IRS is 2. If one is failed, perversion is automatic. If it fails reverse, press the button forcing it.
242
What does the HSI button do on the guidance panel.
Sucks for HSA to swim mode on the PFD. Compass, arc, or map. On the original clothes set to Columbus or ark.
243
What does the BRG button do on the guidance panel?
Cycles bearing needle display on the PFD. Press the display viewer, FMS, then off. Two bearing needles can be displayed at the same time. The source is listed on the side for example, FMS one or Vue are too. On originally close at Berry needles as desired.
244
What does the WX button do?
Adds weather radar display to the PFD. HSI must be in Matt mode. Because the MFD Candace way WX as well and it’s a large display. This function is really use.
245
What does the PRV button do on the guidance panel?
First press flex on site preview cyan. Second press Lex across a preview still cyan. Third press, dislikes, preview needles and they disappear. Confusing note… If one side is selected to cross I both sides turn Amber. At 150 miles from destination preview needles are automatically selected load 27.1. Verify the proper course but they’re pro shirt. Manually select review needles 25.5.
246
What does the FPR button do
Displays a flight path reference line on the PFD with a number. When first press, the current flight path is selected. To change the FDR rotate the FDA knob. STR may be useful for visual approaches
247
What does the FMS button do?
Flex FMS as a navigation source AK magenta needles. If MFM ass is already salted and select the cross side FMS as a navigation source. Both Captain and First officer HSI needles turn Amber. On before I start flowing sure FMS selected as navigation source.
248
what does the v/l button do?
Sucks of you are or localize her as a navigation source. Green needles. If already selected then sucks. Cross side VLS navigation source. Both Captain and First officer HSI needles turn Amber. During a localizer Backcourse approach. Press to switch navigation source to L0 see prior to the FAS.
249
What is the i.e. SS, integrated electronic standby system instrument
Indicates airspeed, attitude, Pitchin bank, flip, skid, altitude, Islas, glideslope, and localizer.
250
What does the cage button do on the i.e. SS?
When Preston held for two seconds, resets, the attitude to zero, pitch in bank. On airplane power up that i.e. SS takes 90 seconds to initialize the aircraft remain stationary to allow for proper calibration.
251
On the chronometer clock. GPS synchronizers time and date with GPS data. It’s like GPS for normal use.
252
Standby. Compass displays magnetic heading. I’ll transplanting on VHF won the standby. Magnetic compass indication is not valid. There are two compass deviation cards one located near the standby compass and the other located by the captains reversionary panel. On the captains originating flow verify full of fluid check that both compass deviation cards are present.
253
Air data, smart Pro. A DSP. Composed of multifunction probes, air data computer. The 80 SPNTA,T will sense and transmit static pressure, total pressure, angle of attack in total air temperature to the air data system. The angle of a tax calculator, based on an interface between a static pressure and the smart probes.
254
Communications. On the MCU, you can change the frequency by selecting the frequency to be changed, and using the knob to change it. Or type the new frequency to the scratch pad and place it on the frequency that needs to be changed.
255
Come, one is for ATC and come to his non-ATC Suches company, ramp control and monitoring guard 121.5
256
For Ethel ms, auto tune hit the standby, STBY, lines, left, K, and then choose FMSAUTO on.
257
On the nav page..mcdu.. TCAS/Xpdr Allows options for tea Cass and transponder. Options include selecting XPDR one or two. Slept in really used XPDR modes TA/RA, TA, ALT-ON, ALT-OFF.
The transponder selected the same side that auto pilot and flight control system is selected too. This ensures altitude being maintained at the altitude being reported to ATC 80
258
Radio page on MCD you. The transponder frequency can be entered here. Simply take the transponder code on the scratch pad and light select XPDAR one. It is critical to insure. The adsb code is properly entered on the ACT TRE page under Flight id. Code must be entered exactly is listed on dispatch release with no spaces or additional characters
259
Oh, transponder mode selection. The transponder Mocaby cycle between standby STBY and the previously selected mode TA RA, in this example. In normal operations, a transponder selected to TARA prior to push back from the departure gate and return to standby after parking at the destinations.
260
When would you select iDEN T?
Press, iDEN T if requested by ATC to squawk, I didn’t.
261
Use the next button to scroll through Pages. There are two radio pages hidden next. Two of two showscom three. Come three is usually set to data a cars uses comm three to communicate.
262
It is possible to turn the radios with the PFD & CCD.
See page 20 of communication equipment CBT to use
263
The MCD was primarily used to tune radios. This is a secondary way, tuning the BFD with the CCD. Went both primary and secondary ways fail. The backup radio page can be used totune.com one, NAV one and transponder one.
264
There are three audio control panels. One for the captain, first officer, and observer Jumpseat are. Then CP is used to control audio to, and from. VHF, radio’s, NAV, radios, intercom, FAA, ramp, PA, oral warning, digital voice recorder.
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On the audio control panel the square button is the selective transmission channel. The round button is a receiving channel.
266
SATCOM control buttons not available.
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Pressing the square button select the PA system. While the PA is left at all other transmissions, for example, one are disabled. If using the hand mic to make a PA, this must be selected first.
268
Pressing the ID filter, button activated filter, that illuminates voice or VOR and ADF audio so identification can be heard. Most of us are identifier visually on the PFD. However, the PFD only displays the DME identifier. Flying approach using a separate navigate or do you need us featuring maybe use.
269
Emergency flight attendant call button. Cause the flattening impressed. The triple high low time sounds of the PA system. A red light and lemonade on the ceiling of the FAA station. Green bar inside the button flashes. If Push wins, flashing lights, turn to study green signify the hot Mike no need to push TTT communicate. The flight attendant can also make an emergency call the cop at the pilots here, triple Highlow, and the light inside the bar flashes.
270
How is the cabin calls the flight attendant different from an emergency?
A single… Hilow chime sound of the PA system. A green light is illuminated up at the ceiling of the FAA station. Green bar inside the button flashes.
271
Auto maskmicrophone switch. What happened with auto? What happened with mask?
Auto pushed in ellipses automatically select the mask microphone is the mass storage box stores are open. Mask pushed out, left the oxygen masks microphone for use with the auto mode sales. Oxygen that storage box stores must be closed and reset in order to enable hand or has a microphone balloons after using the oxygen mask microphone. Normally potion auto and check in the originating slow.
272
Back up volume control, button/knob
l Normal operation mode is pushed in. EKU key pushed out the stores VHF communications with a digital audio system failure. And pushed out, rotate enough to control volume. VHF one is the radio available for Captain ACT and CHF two is the radio available for first officer, ACP. Normally left breast and check initiating slow Sloan
273
If you can switch. TTT transmits from headset might whatever channels left it on the ACT. HOT center. I’ll ask you in case you between crewmembers and between remembers and rant personal. Off allows only audio assumption turns off
274
Voice and Flight data recorder Recorder.
The FDR records aircraft parameters. This data is used as needed for accident and incident investigation. What is your voice recorder automatically start recording audio information of power up and stores last 120 minutes of audio. The daughter quarter is also used for FOQA. FOQ a list for transit, possibly, and his daddy used to increase safety. FOQA, goddess anonymous is that two one5 order signed us a gate keeper. The gatekeeper may call pilot for more information about a certain event that is non punishing
275
Easy DR test when press starts the DVD our test.
The Tesla and simultaneously test all CBR and FDR functions. On our jeans were the captain prices in holes this button for a few seconds. Successful test as indicated by no FDR or CVREICAS messages.
276
The FMS is primary navigation system. How does the FMS determine airplane position?
IRS initial reference system. GPS. You are DME. The FMS displays information on the PFD, MFT, and NCD you. I am CDU is also used to control the FMS.
277
Position sensors on the math page of the MCU. They must constantly analyze each sensir and chooses the most accurate.
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Iris, one status. Therapy is quicker to IRS. The irises, a self-contained momentum determine pitch bank heading in position. Iris may take up to 17 minute Caroline, and can be a line on the ground or insight.
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GPS status. GPS is WAIS equipped and automatically predicts RA. I am for the route in destinations by ETA.
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Position sensors. You are teammates typically the least accurate and so is really use. Both GPS units sale or GMC or do you need to provide position information to the IRS and the FMS.
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 Two transponders. Transponder one is the default and since altitude information from side toward which the auto pilot/arrows pointing.
282
So IRS provides attitude information to the piety in navigation information to the FMS. The FPA the GREEN airplane, uses both IRS and ATS information.
283
MFT weather radar. Choosing SECT, sector, are used to scan from 60° either side of the nose to 30° but doubles this week free from 12 to 24 per minute. SGHT off. The radar is stabilized with the IRS. Slept in STA be off turns off stabilization.
284
MSD weather radar. VAR gain light gray allows a pilot to manually select gain.TGT Displays a green TGT in the weather control box. The TTT turns Amber if it sells the tattooed be on the zoom range Limited to 7.5°, either side of the nose and 200 miles.
285
MFT weather radar. RCT increases gain as well as detected in an attempt to see beyond with her. I can’t see beyond the paints a cyan area on the map.
286
Fuel. ERJ 175 has two in wing Fuel tanks. Each in general fuel tank is divided into a surge, Maine, and collector tank. Search tank collects any fuel that may enter the vent system during wing down and uncoordinated maneuvers. Main tank contains main storage for fuel. Collector tank where AC, DC, and ejector pumps are located and submerged.
287
What does the fuel ejector pump do? It is a primary pump used to transport fuel from the collector tank to the engine. It has no moving parts and relies on motor flow from the engine driven fuel pump. EDP. Pilots have no direct control of the ejector pump or the engine driven fuel pump. Both should operate with engines running.
288
AC fuel pump. It is used to supply fuel to engine start. It serves as a back up to the main ejector pump. It’s supplies fuel to BOTH engines from a single fuel tank during crossfeed. This can be used to balance fuel.
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Fuel system. DC fuel pump is primarily used to supply fuel to the APU during start without AC power. Also can supply fuel to engine too, during a start without AC power. Operative during an electrical emergency and can be used to start the app you or engine two.
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Scavenge pumps.
Three scavenge ejector palms in each tank, maintain a level in the collector tank. For a total of six scavenged pumps. Iscavenge pumps are not showing on the synoptic.
291
Look at the fuel synoptic, and a few, crossfeed an engine fuel shut off valve.
The AP was normally closed and only open when the APU control knob is turned on. The cross feed valve is located between the engines and open for a fuel Crossfade. The engine shut off valves can only be closed when the fire handle is pulled.
292
DC fuel pump selector knob. What’s the difference between off, auto, on?
Off. Off. Auto. Automatically command to pump on when engine to her. APU is started and AC feel pumped. He was not available. On. Requires DC power, power during an electrical emergency. The DC pump draws fuel from the right tank only.
293
AC fuel pump to select or not. Draws fuel from the right tank only. Off. Off. What is auto?
Auto turns the pump on when. Engine two is starting or APU is starting or running without engine to running or crossfeed selected to load one or mean ejector pump to fails. On. Requires normal, AC power, also power during an electrical merge and see if the rat successfully deployed.
294
AC fuel pump one selector knob. Draws feel from the left tank only. Off. Off. Auto turned the pump on when engine one is starting or cross hits. Left her to low too or manage after pump. Fails. On requires normal AC power. It is not power during an electrical emergency.
295
Crossfield selector knob. For 800 pounds or more a feeling balance, a fuel and balance, causing message for display on EIC ass.
296
To balance fuel when the imbalance is 794 pounds or less select the low tank.
Low 1. Opens the Crossfade valve and automatically activates the right AC pump, AC pump, too, supplying, feel to be OTH engines from the right wing tank.
Off- for takeoff and landing
Low 2. Opposite low one. Pge 17 cbt
297
I feel quantity is shown on the EICAS. Feel quantity can be measured by three magnetic level indicator is on each wing. A maintenance task is recorded German fuel level using the ML eyes.
298
Individual and total fuel tank quantity. Individual fuel tank quantity turns amber when indicating below 1320 pounds in red one below 660 pounds. A total turns Amber when indicating at or below 2640 pounds and red went below 1320 pounds.
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Declare minimum fuel, when predicting to land with less than 45 minutes of fuel, which is 2250 pounds.
300
Declare emergency fuel in predicting to land with 30 minutes or less 1500 pounds.
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Re fueling. A single point pressure refuel in Deerfield panel is located under the right wing. All the airplane is being revealed a door fuel open message is on EICAS.
The power selection switch allows selecting power for refueling from the hot battery bust too. This enables feeling on the aircraft is empowered. Every feeling with engines running then only the crew may be on board. Passengers may be on board during refueling as long as the flight crew is in contact with the refilling personnel in inches must be off.
302
What hydraulic system powers out for brakes?
Hydraulic system one Paris outbreaks. All hydraulic systems are pressurized during taxi.
303
What hydraulic system, powers, landing gear, retraction extension
Hydraulic system too. If ADP to or engine to fails, the PTU, assassin landing gear extension, retraction attraction
304
Hydraulic system to powers and board breaks and no steering. All hydrostatic systems must be pressurize for taxi.
305
There is a dedicated emergency parking brake accumulator. It’s stores hydraulic pressure from system one and two for the soul use of emergency parking break. If hydraulic system one, and to become true pressurized, how many Pressure applications?
The accumulator provides enough pressure for six emergency parking brake applications.
306
Landing gear nose will steering an auto break. Indications are displayed on the EICAS. Prior to push back. What must the captain verified with the push back crew?
Steering off, brakes released, and that the nose gear towing light is green, which requires steering and brakes off.
307
EICAS. Steer off. Explain when steering is disconnected. Disconnected win?
Hydraulic system to becomes pressurized. Steering disconnect switches press do not need to hold switch. Wrappers, external steering disengage, twit, etc. disengage. Verify that steer off messages present prior to pushback and flake Trocheck.
308
What are the four colors of the landing gear position and what do they indicate on the EICS?
Green down and locked. Wiped up and locked. Amber cross hatched in transit. Red, square disagrees with lever position, disagreement.
309
On E!, I see aSR auto break status. Low medium high. After sitting auto breaking off, verify that the system is properly armed.
310
EICAS. The emergency parking brake accumulator pressure and brake temperature shown here.
311
EMERACCU, psi, as shown here. If the indications are green, then there should be adequate pressure for the emergency parking brake to work. I think indications are yellow accumulator can be recharged by turning on the a CMPS for hydraulic system, one and two.
312
EICAS the brake temperature shown here for the left and right inboard and outboard brakes. Make sure they are in with the green.
313
RTO. Automatically applies maximum breaking during a reject to take off. Recognizes rejected takeoff by? Wheel speed above 60 kn and thrust levers in idol, REV, Max REV. When does it release the brakes?
Releases the brakes win. Brake pedal pressures apply 20% or system faults below 60 kn or thrust levers greater than idol. Brake pedals Prestwood attempting to set RTO and it will snap back off. And if rent pushes back from the gate at the ground speed is greater than 6 kn RTO will disarm and snap off.
314
Describe auto breaking. Low, medium, high.
All auto brakes apply to seconds after weight on wheels. Low. Applies breaking to slow the airplane at about 2 kn per second or .12 Gs. Medium. Applies brakes to slow the airplane at about 4 kn per second or .24 Gs. Hi. Applies break to slow the airplane at about eight nights per second or .41 Gs. The brakes release under the same parameters of RTO. When brake pedal pressures apply 20% or system, faults or thrust lever greater than idol. Low is used for longer on Waze, medium is used for short and contaminated, runways, and high is rarely used. 
315
Emergency parking brake light is on and displayed on when the emergency parking brake is actuated and there’s hydraulic pressure on the brake line. Whenever the emergency parking brake is that like here to verify that has been actuated.
316
Down lock, release button. The aircraft has weight on wheels sensors, and the WOW sense on the ground. The landing gear lever is mechanically locked in the down position. Pressing the DN lock REL button overrides as protection allows Alani Carroll, ever to be moved regardless of the WOW sensors. Only press this as directed by the cure age or if the girl ever is locked down and get a retraction is needed to improve client performance to clear obstacles.
317
The guarded by and landing gear, warning, inhibit. If gear is not down and locked when the system to text and intentional in the airplane, the oral landing gear is an ounce. Pressing this button will shut the morning up.
318
How many ways can you alternately extend the landing gear?
Two.
319
What happens when you pull the alternate gear extension lever?
When pooled releases hydraulic pressure in the Lanegger lines and mechanically releases all landing gear up locks. The year extends via gravity and air dynamic forces. You may need to all the aircraft.
320
What’s a second way to extend the Landing gear?
Electrical override switch. Normal allows landing gear lever to extend and retract.
Gear down. Electronically bypasses the sensors and evaluation, computers and extensibility gear.
321
Water puddles. Allow for a break by wire and stare by wire. Break where is monitored by where pins for permit gear.
322
Rutter petals. The brake control modules and protection. What are the four protections?
Antiskid production. Prevents tires getting in maximizes break efficiency. Active at 10 not your greater wheel speed. Automatic wheel breaking. Stops the main gear during landing gear. Attraction. Touchdown protection. Prevents the airplane from touching down with brakes applied. On landing it only allows breaking after wheel speed is above 50 kn or three seconds after touchdown. Locked wheel protection. Prevents locked wheels by comparing inboard and outboard speed. Active above 30 kn.
323
No seal steering. The writer petals can stare 7° left and right. The steering must be engaged. To engage steering hydraulic system to you must be pressurized in the hand wheel steering Taylor must be pressed and release. Threader petals are used to steer on takeoff and landing and on straight or gentle turning taxiways. If a sharp turn is needed the handrail steering tiller is used
324
Steering disengage switch. When pressed disengages a nose wheel steering. It is possible to taxi using differential break, king and thrust. To reengage the steering, press the hand wheel steering requires hydraulic system to pressure there’s additional steering disengage toggle switch near the AC power receptacle ramp personnel with us get us during during pushback.
325
Hand wheel steering, Taylor. Press release to engage rotor steering. To use it must be pressed and held down. While it is pressed in hand wheel steering mode, the Rutter petals do not control steering upon releasing the tiller, the system revert strutter pedal steering mode. At slow speeds. It can come in and up to 76° of nose wheel steering. I speed increases the full scale. Deflection decreases. Hand wheel steering is used at low speed, control, and sharp turns. Free wheel steering is used during towing.
