Ethical Pronciples

Question 1

The most common nosocomial infection is:

Answer 1

urinary tract infection

Question 2

These microorganisms occur as yeasts or molds and can infect the skin, nail beds, and scalp.

Answer 2

Fungi

Question 3

Which of the following are involved in the cycle of infection?
(1) Reservoir
(2) Susceptible host
(3) Mode of transmission

Answer 3

1, 2 And 3

Question 4

Failing to disinfect the x-ray table or vertical Bucky between patients spreads microorganisms via the ________ route.

Answer 4

fomite

Question 5

When taking a radiograph of a patient with a contagious disease, the “dirty” radiographer:

Answer 5

positions the patient

Question 6

Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted:

Answer 6

Within a hospital

Question 7

A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The radiographer must follow Standard Precautions and must don:

Answer 7

a particulate respirator

Question 8

Which of the following is considered to be a form of medical asepsis?

Answer 8

Hand washing

Question 9

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by.

Answer 9

HIV virus

Question 10

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against HIV is a solution of:

Answer 10

1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water

Question 11

Which of the following is an airborne-transmitted pathogen encountered in the health care environment.

Answer 11

Tuberculosis

Question 12

The practice of isolating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients is called:

Answer 12

transmission-based precautions

Question 13

Which of the following methods of sterilization is a new and safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive items in hospitals?

Answer 13

Gas plasma technology

Question 14

Which type of hepatitis should all health care workers be vaccinated against?

Answer 14

Hepatitis B

Question 15

Which of the following may be transmitted via airborne means?
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Rubeola
(3) Varicella

Answer 15

1,2 &3

Question 16

Health care workers occupationally-infected with HIV have been infected most commonly as the result of:

Answer 16

needle stick injuries

Question 17

According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions, what should be the first step before entering the room of a patient who is under protective precautions?

Answer 17

Perform hand hygiene

Question 18

Standard Precautions are defined as:

Answer 18

protective guidelines used to protect against disease transmission

Question 19

Medical asepsis is defined as the total destruction of all pathogens and their spores by chemical means.

Answer 19

False

Question 20

Which of the following are practices or procedures of medical asepsis?
(1) Hand hygiene
(2) Proper disposal of contaminated items
(3) Environmental control

Answer 20

1,2 & 3

Question 21

How often should the x-ray table be cleaned?

Answer 21

After every procedure

Question 22

Contaminated needles and syringes should be discarded in:

Answer 22

special puncture-proof biohazard containers

Question 23

The complete removal of all pathogens and spores from equipment used for invasive procedures defines:

Answer 23

surgical asepsis

Question 24

Which of the following is a true statement about moist heat sterilization?

Answer 24

It is the most efficient and convenient method.

Question 25

The proper method to cleanse the skin for an invasive radiographic procedure is to swab with a sterile antiseptic solution:

Answer 25

in a circular motion from the inside to the outside

Question 26

When opening a sterile kit or package, in which direction is the outermost flap opened?

Answer 26

Away from the body

Question 27

When donning complete sterile attire, which of the following should be put on first, after hand hygiene is complete?

Answer 27

Hair and shoe covers

Question 28

What is the proper method to remove sterile gloves after changing a sterile dressing?

Answer 28

Grasp the outside of the first glove and turn inside out as you remove it.

Question 29

When donning complete sterile attire, which of the following should be put on first, before performing a surgical scrub as hand hygiene?

Answer 29

Hair and shoe covers

Question 30

Which of the following is required when imaging a patient in contact isolation while in the radiology department?
(1) Particulate respirators
(2) Gloves
(3) Gown

Answer 30

2, 3

Question 31

The Center for Disease Control (CDC) most recently recommended which agent(s) for routine decontamination of hands not visibly soiled?

Answer 31

Waterless antiseptic agent

Question 32

What is the best method of interrupting the mode of transmission of organisms?

Answer 32

Using infection prevention and control measures

Question 33

What is the best protection against transmission of bloodborne pathogens?

Answer 33

Adhere to Universal Precautions

Question 34

What is the first action necessary during a decontamination procedure?

Answer 34

Wear clean gloves

Question 35

What is the purpose of an exposure control plan for bloodborne pathogens?

Answer 35

Eliminate or minimize employee exposure

Question 36

When caring for a client who has Hepatitis A, which type of precautions should the nurse use?

Answer 36

Contact precautions

Question 37

Which is the major cause of occupational HIV transmission?

Answer 37

Hypodermic needle

Question 38

Which list contains only body fluids that are important potential sources of HIV, HBV, and HCV infections?

Answer 38

Blood or body fluids containing blod or semen

Question 39

Which of the following incidents is considered an occupational exposure to a bloodborne pathogen?

Answer 39

Respiratory therapist experiences a contaminated needle punture

Question 40

Which of the following is a bloodborne disease?

Answer 40

Hepatitis C

Question 41

Which of the following is a major source of Hepatitis B (HBV)?

Answer 41

Chronic carriers

Question 42

Which of the following is considered a contaminated sharp?

Answer 42

Hypodermic needle

Question 43

Which of the following is the best policy regarding disposal of sharps?

Answer 43

Never recap

Question 44

Which of the following is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States?

Answer 44

HCV

Question 45

Which of the following should the healthcare professional consider to be of greatest priority when implementing infection control measures?

Answer 45

Minimize transmission of orgainisms from reservoir to client

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true regarding CDC guidlines for immunization against HBV (Hep B)?

Answer 46

Recommended for those who come into contact with blood or other potentially infectious body fluids on the job

Question 47

Which regulation has OSHA developed for preventing bloodborne infections?

Answer 47

Universal precautions

Question 48

You are planning to work today as a healthcare professional in a howpital setting. When assessing yourself for signs of non-intact skin, which finding concerns you the most?

Answer 48

Burns on both hands

Question 49

You must use personal protective equipment in which of the following situations?

Answer 49

Performing an oral exam of teeth

Question 50

What is nonverbal communication?

Answer 50

The use of non-vocal means; i.e., using gestures and facial expressions to send messages.

Question 51

The tone and volume of your voice are factors of:

Answer 51

Verbal communications

Question 52

Which of the following must be used carefully in communications in order to avoid misunderstandings?
(1) appropriate grammar
(2) direct eye contact
(3) humor

Answer 52

2 &3

Question 53

Factors that affect nonverbal communications include:

Answer 53

Body language and appearance

Question 54

Which of the following imaging scenarios would present a language barrier to communications?

Answer 54

A chest x-ray on a patient who does not speak the same language as you

Question 55

Which of the following would be the best option to inform an adult patient that you have to perform an acute abdominal series?

Answer 55

“I’m going to take some x-rays on your abdomen. I’ll need you to stand for one and lie on your back on the table for another.”

Question 56

Which of the following would be the best practice when imaging a patient who is sedated?

Answer 56

Explain the procedure in the same voice tone and manner as you would if the patient were conscious.

Question 57

What is empathy?

Answer 57

The ability to understand and perceive the emotions of others

Question 58

Which of the following is an undesirable communications trait that is defined as an expression of anger and hostility towards others?

Answer 58

Aggression

Question 59

Which of the following are key attitudes in professional communications?
(1) expressing a balance of sympathy and empathy
(2) treating others with respect and kindness
(3) being a good role model

Answer 59

1, 2 and 3

Question 60

Which of the following expressions generally have a negative effect on one’s professional attitude?

Answer 60

Rudeness

Question 61

Pet names, such as “Honey,” are generally most offensive to:

Answer 61

Geriatric patients

Question 62

Which age group is likely to become combative when afraid?

Answer 62

Toddlers and preschool age

Question 63

Which feedback and listening skill entails verbally expressing the main idea of the message back to the communicator?

Answer 63

Restate

Question 64

What is the purpose of using the “3Rs” during interpersonal communications?

Answer 64

To build rapport and convey listening and understanding

Responding, restating, and reflecting

Question 65

How is observation used in interpersonal communications?

Answer 65

To check for congruency between the patient’s verbal responses and nonverbal cues

Question 66

It is acceptable and professional to answer a patient’s questions regarding what you see in the images.

Answer 66

False

Question 67

Determining the chief complaint is usually:

Answer 67

The first step in obtaining a patient history.

Question 68

Having a strong religious belief when dealing with loss can often result in:

Answer 68

Increased comfort

Question 69

Which stage of grief is characterized by a recognition of the new reality and the ability to reconnect with others?

Answer 69

Acceptance

Question 70

The principle in medical ethics stating that the information a patient reveals to a health care provider is private and has limits on how and when it can be disclosed to a third party defines:

Answer 70

Confidentiality

Question 71

What is the purpose of HIPAA?

Answer 71

To standardize the exchange of electronic information and protect confidentiality.

Question 72

With which of the following personnel would it be appropriate to discuss a patient’s case?
(1) radiologist
(2) attending nurse
(3) referring physician

Answer 72

1, 2, and 3

Question 73

All of the following might be the cause of a fire in a health care facility except:

Answer 73

Grounded electrical plug

Question 74

Which of the following are reasons to use immobilization?
(1) Increase radiation protection
(2) Improve image quality
(3) Reduce risk of imaging motion

Answer 74

1,2,3

Question 75

Which type of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?

Answer 75

Class C

Question 76

Which of the following is an important consideration when transferring patients who have IV infusions?

Answer 76

Keep the bag or bottle 18 to 20 inches above the insertion site.

Question 77

Chemicals that are stored improperly are of greatest concern as a potential source of fire in imaging departments.

Answer 77

False

Question 78

Which of the following immobilization techniques is most appropriate to aid an elderly patient in keeping their feet inverted for an AP projection of the pelvis?

Answer 78

Sandbags placed on outside of feet

Question 79

Which of the following might cause a safety hazard?

Answer 79

An unsecured extension cord crossing a hallway floor

Question 80

The patient is positioned lying on their left side with the right knee flexed and resting on the table in front of the left leg. Which term describes this position?

Answer 80

Sims

Question 81

You discover the mobile unit emitting a slow, steady stream of smelly smoke. You remove all patients from the hallway and imaging department. What should you do next?

Answer 81

Report the fire using the appropriate method and procedure.

Question 82

After your patient changes into a gown and places his belongings in the garment bag provided by the facility, he lays the bag on a countertop in the x-ray room. Which of the following would be the best response?

Answer 82

Ask the patient to give the bag to his wife for safe keeping.

Question 83

A sweeping motion is the most effective way to use a fire extinguisher.

Answer 83

True

Question 84

Stability of the body is greatest when the line of gravity:

Answer 84

Bisects the base of support

Question 85

Which of the following defines orthostatic hypotension?

Answer 85

A slight drop in blood pressure that occurs with changes in body position from recumbent to upright

Question 86

Which of the following describes the best method to lift and carry an object?

Answer 86

Use a wide base of support and carry the object close to the center of gravity.

Question 87

Which of the following is a method to reduce strain and injury for a radiographer who works trauma frequently?

Answer 87

Take care not to overextend reach when moving equipment and patients.

Question 88

The study of the human body in motion defines:

Answer 88

Kinesiology

Question 89

Which type of transfer is required for patients who are immobile and when there is not sufficient personnel available to assist?

Answer 89

Hydraulic lift

Question 90

Which of the following items in the imaging department would be regulated by OSHA?

Answer 90

Location of eye wash stations

Question 91

All of the following medications might increase the risk of falls except for:

Answer 91

Antihyperlipidemics

Question 92

An accidental spill of a radioactive nuclide occurs in the nuclear medicine lab. Which of the following would be the best practice?

Answer 92

Stay at least 6 feet away from the contaminated area.

Question 93

Ms. Cassie Fletcher, age 63, was admitted to the hospital this morning for some tests to determine what is causing her liver enzymes to be elevated. She is brought to radiology in a wheelchair for an abdominal ultrasound exam. Upon assessment, Ms. Fletcher states she is quite active and other than wearing bifocals and these “silly tests” she has no other health concerns and takes no medications. Which of the following would be the safest transfer method to move her from her wheelchair onto the stretcher for the scan?

Answer 93

Standby assist

Question 94

Which of the following should be performed first before transferring an inpatient?

Answer 94

Checking the patient chart at the nurses’ station

Question 95

Which of the following are safety rules regarding patient transfer?
(1) Check all equipment to be used for transfer for proper operation.
(2) Maintain awareness of orthostatic hypotension.
(3) Use good body mechanics.

Answer 95

1, 2, and 3

Question 96

Which of the following might be used to increase comfort when the patient is positioned prone? (1) Placing a support under the flexed knees (2) Placing a radiolucent pad on the table (3) Resting the flexed arms and hands on the table near the head

Answer 96

2 and 3 only

Question 97

Which safety rule is used when a stretcher is in motion and the patient is fully conscious?

Answer 97

The stretcher side rails should be upright and locked.

Question 98

Identify the safety device that would be used with the position depicted in the diagram below.

Answer 98

Shoulder supports

Question 99

Which of the following are rules of electrical safety?
(1) Regular inspection of equipment for worn wiring
(2) Turning off the power source prior to repairs
(3) Using qualified electricians for repairs

Answer 99

1, 2, and 3

Question 100

Which of the following are common immobilization tools for use with pediatric patients? (1) Velcro band (2) Bookends (3) Plexiglass

Answer 100

1, 2, and 3

Question 101

Which of the following are purposes of incident reporting? (1) Identifying potential hazards (2) Helping determine legal liability (3) Assigning blame

Answer 101

1 and 2 only

Question 102

Which of the following injuries are common in imaging professionals?
(1) Repetitive stress injuries
(2) Shoulder strains
(3) Lower back strains

Answer 102

1,2,3

Question 103

Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?

Answer 103

Jaundice skin color

Question 104

A creatinine level above the normal range is a significant indication of:

Answer 104

Impaired renal function

Question 105

A fast heartbeat, usually defined as faster than 100 beats per minute, is termed:

Answer 105

Tachycardia

Question 106

Which of the following are essential components of a patient history?
(1) Previous surgeries
(2) Alleviating factors
(3) Duration of problem

Answer 106

1, 2, and 3

Question 107

What is the normal oral temperature for adults?

Answer 107

98.6 °F

Question 108

Presence of fever, hypertension, and hematuria are all symptoms specific to:

Answer 108

The urinary system

Question 109

What does the diastolic number of a blood pressure measurement measure?

Answer 109

Arterial pressure during relaxation of the heart

Question 110

Which of the following is an example of a closed question that would be relevant to obtaining a patient history for a foot x-ray examination?

Answer 110

Did your doctor tell you why you need your foot x-rayed?”

Question 111

Which of the following tools is used to measure pulse rate?

Answer 111

Palpation of surface artery and second hand on a watch

Question 112

What does abbreviation PRN (prn) mean?

Answer 112

As needed or as necessary

Question 113

Normal systolic blood pressure range for adults is:

Answer 113

110-120 mm Hg

Question 114

Which temperature reading would constitute fever?

Answer 114

102 °F (oral)

Question 115

Which of the following lab values are evaluated prior to invasive imaging procedures?
(1) Platelets
(2) PTT
(3) WBC

Answer 115

1&2

Question 116

Which of the following may be used to assess a patient in pain?
(1) Descriptive terms
(2) Pulse oximetry
(3) A scale of 1-10

Answer 116

1&3

Question 117

What is the normal reference range for INR?

Answer 117

The reference range for INR is 2.0-3.0. INR is used to evaluate clotting ability

Question 118

A patient has a pulse oximetry reading of 102 beats/min and 89% oxygen saturation. What conditions are indicated by these readings?

Answer 118

Hypoxia and tachycardia

Question 119

The normal hemoglobin range for adult females is:

Answer 119

12-16 g/dl

Question 120

Your requisition states that you are to obtain PA and lateral chest projections on your patient. The patient history states “SOB.” What does this acronym stand for?

Answer 120

Short of breath

Question 121

While obtaining a patient history, the patient complains of pain. Which of the following would be the best response?

Answer 121

Would you point to where it hurts the most, please?”

Question 122

Iodine is listed as one of the more common drugs to which allergic reactions occur.

Answer 122

True

Question 123

All of the following patient factors can be observed except:

Answer 123

Heart rate

Question 124

As compared to the oral route, the normal body temperature measures slightly lower when obtained rectally.

Answer 124

False

Question 125

Where might you search an inpatient’s chart for information on a patient’s ability to stand for an imaging procedure?

Answer 125

Nurses’ notes on activities

Question 126

Which of the following arteries may be palpated to obtain a pulse?
(1) Femoral
(2) Carotid
(3) Pedal

Answer 126

1, 2,3

Question 127

Mr. Tonymon, a 48-year-old with pain during urination, is scheduled for an excretory urogram. Prior to beginning the procedure, you check his lab values and notice his creatinine level is 2.8 mg/dl. Which of the following statements is true?

Answer 127

This is a high creatinine level for an adult male

Question 128

Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?

Answer 128

Jaundice skin color

Question 129

A creatinine level above the normal range is a significant indication of:

Answer 129

Impaired renal function

Question 130

Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?

Answer 130

Jaundice skin color

Question 131

A fast heartbeat, usually defined as faster than 100 beats per minute, is termed:

Answer 131

Tachycardia

Question 132

Which of the following are essential components of a patient history?
(1) Previous surgeries
(2) Alleviating factors
(3) Duration of problem

Answer 132

1, 2, and 3

Question 133

What is the normal oral temperature for adults?

Answer 133

98.6 °F

Question 134

Which of the following substances is classified as a radiolucent contrast medium?

Answer 134

Air

Question 135

Which of the following contrast agents produce light (white) areas in the radiographic image?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Barium sulfate
(3) lodine-based

Answer 135

• 2 and 3 only

Question 136

Which radiolucent contrast agent is often preferred because it is more readily absorbed by the body?

Answer 136

Carbon dioxide

Question 137

With the exception of emergency patients, which of the following patients should have priority in the scheduling of imaging procedures?

Answer 137

Patients with diabetes

Question 138

An outpatient is scheduled for a CT of the abdomen without contrast, a fiberoptic colonoscopy exam, and a barium enema (BE to be performed on the same day. Which of the following is the correct sequencing of these exams?

Answer 138

• CT, fiberoptic colonoscopy, BE

Question 139

Which of the following is the most common contrast administration technique for an excretory urogram?

Answer 139

Intravenous

Question 140

After images have been obtained during an excretory urogram, the patient is often required to:

Answer 140

Void into a special strainer

Question 141

Which of the following might be patient preparation for contrast studies of the urinary system?

Answer 141

Bowel cleansing

Question 142

All of the following are common vessels used for venipuncture except:

Answer 142

Femoral vein

Question 143

Which of the following statements is true regarding post-procedure care of a patient who has undergone a T-tube cholangiogram?

Answer 143

The patient is encouraged to increase fluid intake.

Question 144

Contrast studies of the biliary system require the patient to be NPO for several hours prior to the procedure.

Answer 144

True

Question 145

If air is injected during the administration of contrast into the biliary system, there is the possibility:

Answer 145

The air bubbles will simulate stones.

Question 146

If air is injected during the administration of contrast into the biliary system, there is the possibility:

Answer 146

The air bubbles will simulate stones.

Question 147

What is a cathartic?

Answer 147

A drug that stimulates emptying of the bowels

Question 148

Which of the following should be included during the patient education for contrast procedures of the Gl tract?
(1) Details of administration route
(2) Thorough patient history
(3) Cleansing enemas

Answer 148

1 and 2 only

Question 149

If a perforation of the Gl tract is suspected, what type of contrast agent is usually used?

Answer 149

Water-soluble, iodinated

Question 150

All of the following are common post-procedure patient care for a BE except:

Answer 150

Cleansing enemas

Question 151

The radiographic examination of the veins following administration of a contrast medium is termed:

Answer 151

Venography

Question 152

Which of the following procedures commonly are single-contrast studies that use a water-soluble, iodinated medium to demonstrate the anatomy of interest?
(1) Venography
(2) Arteriography
(3) Myelography

Answer 152

• 1, 2, and 3

Question 153

All of the following imaging modalities have reduced the number of radiographic contrast procedures except:

Answer 153

Nuclear medicine

Question 154

Besides the type of contrast agent used, a common feature of myelography and arteriography is the:

Answer 154

Application of strict sterile technique for contrast administration

Question 155

Which of the following is a high-flow method of oxygen administration that does not allow the patient to breathe in their exhaled air?

Answer 155

Nonrebreathing mask

Question 156

A surgical opening into the trachea used to treat obstructive respiratory diseases and provide a mechanism for breathing is a(n):

Answer 156

Tracheostomy

Question 157

While performing a mobile chest procedure, you notice the patient’s oxygen tubing is lying across the patient’s right lung. Which of the following is the best action?

Answer 157

Move the oxygen tubing out of the lung field to prevent image artifacts.

Question 158

Which of the following are uses for suction?
(1) As treatment for a bleeding ulcer
(2) To remove blood from a trauma patient’s airway
(3) To clear an ill patient’s airway of mucus or vomitus

Answer 158

1,2, and 3

Question 159

All of the following are true regarding suction administration except:

Answer 159

Sterile gloves should be donned prior to administering suction.

Question 160

A patient on continuous suction is transported to the imaging department with the tube clamped and secured. Which of the following is the next step to provide the best patient care?

Answer 160

Unclamp the tube and connect it to the receptacle for the duration of the imaging procedure.

Question 161

A patient has an NG tube that has been clamped and pinned to his gown. While positioning for a radiograph, you notice the NG tube is in the collimated field. Which of the following is the best option?

Answer 161

Gently unpin the tube and secure it out of the collimated field to avoid causing an artifact.

Question 162

Which of the following tubes is used for temporary feeding?

Answer 162

Dobbhoff

Question 163

Which term denotes blood collected in the pleural space?

Answer 163

Hemothorax

Question 164

Which of the following might be treated with a chest tube?
(1) Empyema
(2) Upper respiratory obstructive disease
(3) Atelectasis

Answer 164

1 and 3 only

Question 165

Where would a chest tube be placed to treat a pneumothorax?

Answer 165

• In the superior, anterior chest wall

Question 166

Which of the following terms is the proper medical term for a chest tube insertion?

Answer 166

Thoracostomy

Question 167

A sterile procedure in which a tube is placed directly into the renal pelvis to drain urine from the kidney is called a:

Answer 167

Nephrostomy

Question 168

Which type of tube used for tissue drainage is secured to the body with a sterile pin?

Answer 168

Penrose

Question 169

Which type of CV line is used for dialysis?

Answer 169

Raaf

Question 170

Which of the following is a rare complication associated with insertion of CV lines?

Answer 170

Cardiac tamponade

Question 171

All of the following can be verified through imaging after a CV line insertion except:

Answer 171

Infection at insertion site

Question 172

Which of the following veins may be used for CV line insertion?
(1) Femoral
(2) Subclavian
(3) Jugular

Answer 172

• 1, 2, and 3

Question 173

Which of the following is a type of CV line used for parenteral feeding?

Answer 173

Hickman

Question 174

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oxygen administration via a simple mask?

Answer 174

Masks interfere with talking and eating and impede patient movement.

Question 175

Which of the following would be found on a crash cart, used for treatment of respiratory emergencies?

Answer 175

Endotracheal tube

Question 176

A patient is brought into the ED on a spine immobilizer and with a cervical collar. The patient states her feet slipped out from under her in the mud and she landed on her behind. Which of the following questions would be the best to assess this patient further?

Answer 176

Do you feel any tingling or numbness in your arms or legs?

Question 177

What is atelectasis?

Answer 177

• A collapsed lung

Question 178

Which of the following drugs is commonly found on an emergency crash cart and is a respiratory stimulant?

Answer 178

Atropine

Question 179

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of an airway obstruction?

Answer 179

• Facial congestion and inability to speak

Question 180

Which of the following is a common imaging modality in cases of abdominal trauma?

Answer 180

Ст

Question 181

Which of the following is commonly used to treat an asthma attack?

Answer 181

© A rescue inhaler containing a bronchodilator medication

Question 182

All of the following increase the risk of respiratory emergency except:

Answer 182

Sinus infection

Question 183

Which of the following statements is true regarding performing the technique to clear an airway obstruction on a conscious patient?

Answer 183

The rescuer stands behind the patient and wraps their arms around to deliver the thrusts upward at the midline of the abdomen.

Question 184

The best method to handle a patient’s limb when there is a suspicion of fracture is to:

Answer 184

Obtain help to support the limb at the joints both proximal and distal to the injury to reduce the risk of exacerbation.

Question 185

Which type of seizure is characterized by body jerks and shaking?

Answer 185

Tonic-clonic

Question 186

What is the purpose of emergency codes?

Answer 186

• To facilitate communications in emergencies without alarming the public

Question 187

The acronym FAST is used to designate symptoms of:

Answer 187

Stroke

Question 188

What is the medical term for a nosebleed?

Answer 188

Epistaxis

Question 189

Stroke is caused by two types of conditions in the brain, which are:

Answer 189

Ischemia or hemorrhage

Question 190

Which type of diabetic emergency occurs due to excessively high blood sugar?

Answer 190

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 191

Which of the following medications is commonly ordered by the physician when a patient has a moderate (intermediate) reaction to contrast media?

Answer 191

Benadryl

Question 192

Crushing chest pain that radiates down the left arm is the cardinal symptom of:

Answer 192

MI

Question 193

Which of the following may exhibit symptoms of nausea and/or vomiting?

Answer 193

Head injuries

Question 194

What is an acute myocardial infarction?

Answer 194

© Heart attack

Question 195

Which of the following must be constantly assessed when imaging a patient who has suffered chest trauma?

Answer 195

Respirations and level of consciousness

Question 196

Angina pectoris is characterized by symptoms of:

Answer 196

Burning or tingling sensation in the chest

Question 197

Pallor is:

Answer 197

Paleness or a lack of skin color

Question 198

Initiation of CPR is usually the first response to:

Answer 198

Cardiac arrest

Question 199

What is shock?

Answer 199

A general term used to describe a life-threatening condition that occurs due to a marked decline in oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and an accumulation of metabolic by-products in the system

Question 200

Dyspnea, cyanosis, confusion, and drowsiness are all symptoms of:

Answer 200

Respiratory failure

Question 201

Which type of shock may result from a cardiac tamponade?

Answer 201

Cardiogenic

Question 202

A patient experiences vomiting after a contrast media injection. This reaction is classified as:

Answer 202

Mild

Question 203

A patient suffers a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which type of shock is of concern?

Answer 203

Neurogenic

Question 204

A patient, suspected of having a head injury, does not open her eyes or respond verbally to cues, and the motor response is flaccid. The Glasgow Coma Scale for this patient would be:

Answer 204

3

Question 205

Pallor, tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased blood pressure are symptoms of:

Answer 205

Shock

Question 206

Free air located in the thoracic cavity is termed:

Answer 206

Pneumothorax

Question 207

Which level is used to designate the most extensive emergency services that are available?

Answer 207

Level I

Question 208

Which of the following are symptoms of a head injury?
(1) Pallor
(2) Bradycardia
(3) Irritability

Answer 208

2 & 3

Question 209

Burns that cause blisters and swelling are usually classified as:

Answer 209

Second-degree

Question 210

The medical term for dizziness is:

Answer 210

Vertigo

Question 211

When a patient has an open wound, images should be obtained:

Answer 211

D) With the sterile dressing in place to avoid contamination.

Question 212

Which branch of law addresses wrongs committed against the state?

Answer 212

Criminal

Question 213

The body of written laws developed and defined by the legislature is:

Answer 213

Statutory law

Question 214

All of the following sensitive patient information is to only be released by the health information department of the health care facility except for:

Answer 214

Radiologists’ dictation reports on imaging procedures

Question 215

Which of the following might be a penalty for a violation of an administrative law?
(1) License suspension
(2) License revocation
(3) Community service

Answer 215

• 1 and 2 only

Question 216

Which of the following are exceptions to confidentiality and may be reported without patient consent?
(1) Certain wounds
(2) Automobile accidents
(3) Birth defects

Answer 216

• 1, 2, and 3

Question 217

A technologist is overheard calling a patient a “cranky, crazy old coot” by one of the patient’s family members. This statement might result in a(n)…
tort claim of …

Answer 217

quasi-intentional; slander

Question 218

A threat to harm another is termed:

Answer 218

Assault

Question 219

All of the following are criteria used for the legal use of patient restraints except fort

Answer 219

Restraints should be left in place until the patient is released from the care of the health care team.

Question 220

All of the following procedures would require a signed informed consent except for:

Answer 220

Emergency chest tube placement to treat a collapsed lung for a victim of a car accident

Question 221

Which of the following must occur to claim negligence?
(1) A breach of the duty of reasonable care
(2) A resultant injury from the duty breach
(3) Proof of intent to injure

Answer 221

1 &2

Question 222

Documentation of informed consent on the proper forms with the required signatures is:

Answer 222

One of the ways to reduce legal liability.

Question 223

A patient is left alone on an imaging table while the technologist checks image quality. The patient feels nauseous, so he turns to vomit and rolls off of the table. Which of the following might result from this situation?

Answer 223

Negligence

Question 224

Which of the following legal doctrines are often applied together when a clinician is negligent while under the supervision of a physician?
(1) Respondeat superior
(2) Res ipsa loquitur
(3) Doctrine of borrowed servant

Answer 224

• 1 and 3 only

Question 225

The phase of the lawsuit that involves the case being brought before a judge and/or a jury for a decision is termed the …
phase.

Answer 225

Trial

Question 226

You are a trauma radiographer for a major medical center. One of the emergency physicians that you often work with has just received news that the family of a patient who died in the ER last week has filed a lawsuit against the entire hospital. Which legal doctrine did the family use as the basis for their claim?

Answer 226

• The doctrine of corporate responsibility

Question 227

Which of the following will help prevent malpractice claims?

Answer 227

Being competent in your profession and compliant with all policies and procedures

Question 228

Which of the following means “let the master answer”?

Answer 228

Respondeat superior

Question 229

What does the acronym HIPAA mean?

Answer 229

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Question 230

Confidentiality is defined as:

Answer 230

The ethical principle or legal right that requires health care employees to hold secret all information relating to a patient, unless the patient gives consent permitting disclosure.

Question 231

A serious criminal offense is termed a:

Answer 231

Felony

Question 232

Violations of HIPAA rules for improper disclosure of private medical information can only be penalized with a fine of less than $1,000.

Answer 232

False

Question 233

It is an extremely busy day in the imaging department, so many registered technologists, including Natasha, are helping out in records, scheduling and transporting of patients. While passing by the temporarily unoccupied reception desk, Natasha hears the fax machine printing. She notes that document contains patient information. Natasha retrieves the page from the machine and puts into an envelope, stamps it as “confidential,” and places the envelope on the radiologist’s desk. Which of the following statements is true regarding Natasha’s actions?

Answer 233

• Natasha’s actions were appropriate since she took confidential information out of plain sight and delivered it to the intended recipient.

Question 234

Which of the following would be required when obtaining informed consent for an imaging procedure?
(1) Consent provided voluntarily without coercion
(2) A description of risks and benefits
(3) Signature of patient or authorized representative

Answer 234

1,2&3

Question 235

Implied consent may be used in place of informed consent for all of the following situations except when:

Answer 235

• The procedure is an FDA-approved treatment for the condition.

Question 236

A civil wrong in which liability is based on unreasonable conduct defines:

Answer 236

Tort

Question 237

What is the purpose of the Patient Care Partnership?

Answer 237

• To inform patients of their rights and responsibilities regarding their health care

Question 238

Which of the following would be included on the chart of a patient who had a lumbar myelogram procedure?
(1) Type of contrast
(2) Technical factors used
(3) Amount of contrast administered

Answer 238

1 &3

Question 239

Incident reports are valuable for:

Answer 239

Identifying high-risk or problem areas

Question 240

The belief that one race is superior over all others defines:

Answer 240

Racism

Question 241

Which of the following activities would help in the development of cultural competency?
(1) Making friends with a person from another country or race
(2) Attending a seminar about local immigrants’ native healing beliefs and practices
(3) Attending a holiday celebration native to another culture

Answer 241

1,2,3

Question 242

Which core value of human rights law provides for the right of persons with disability to have self-directed actions and behaviors?

Answer 242

Autonomy

Question 243

The belief that the norms and values of one culture are better and the only ones that are acceptable defines:

Answer 243

Ethnocentrism

Question 244

You overhear one of your co-workers, who does not appear to be of a different ethnicity, carrying on a conversation with a patient in another language. After both of your shifts end, you ask your co-worker to join you for coffee. During your conversation, you find out that his parents are first-generation immigrants to this country. Your invitation and conversation is an example of:

Answer 244

Dynamic cultural interaction

Question 245

Assimilation is defined as:

Answer 245

The process of giving up original cultural characteristics and identity to merge into another culture

Question 246

Which of the following are core values of human rights law?
(1) Equality
(2) Solidarity
(3) Autonomy

Answer 246

1,2,3

Question 247

Which of the following statements about personal bias is true?

Answer 247

Bias can interfere with quality of patient care.

Question 248

Patients from a particular culture might view health as a reward and illness as punishment. This would be an example of human diversity in the area of:

Answer 248

Views on health and illness

Question 249

Persons who are oriented by their culture to value traditions of the past might be very resistant to:

Answer 249

New technology or procedures

Question 250

Unique physical characteristics such as straight dark hair and almond-shaped eyes are an example of:

Answer 250

Genetic differences

Question 251

Which of the following ethnic groups have spirituality as a core value?
(1) African-American
(2) Native American
(3) U.S. mainstream

Answer 251

1,2

Question 252

One of the cafeteria workers suggests serving Chinese and Taiwanese cuisine and decorating the hospital with kites on the Double Ninth Day holiday.
The suggestion is ignored by the cafeteria supervisor who also criticizes the suggestion in a public manner. What is your impression of this supervisor?

Answer 252

Cultural competency is not being practiced at all levels in the facility.

Question 253

You are aware of several Mexican-American patients in the elderly assisted-living facility in which you work. Which of the following would be a good activity to help promote cultural competency in the facility?
(1) Invite a comedian to entertain the residents.
(2) Celebrate Cinco de Mayo.
(3) Invite a mariachi band to entertain the residents.

Answer 253

2,3

Question 254

You are a 32-year-old male radiographer whose next patient is Mrs. Dianne Denton, a 29-year-old female. Mrs. Denton is scheduled for a hysterosalpingogram, which is a contrast study of the uterus and uterine tubes. After you greet Mrs. Denton and explain the procedure, she hesitantly asks for you to leave the room during the procedure. Mrs. Denton’s response might be interpreted as:

Answer 254

Gender bias

Question 255

Dr. John Gregory is credited with:

Answer 255

The first English-language book written on biomedical ethics.

Question 256

What is the last step of Dowd’s problem-solving technique presented in Module 6, Section 5?

Answer 256

Analysis of the outcome

Question 257

Which of the following would be a violation of the Code of Ethics of our profession?

Answer 257

Talking about a friend’s imaging procedure to a mutual friend who is the cashier in the hospital gift shop

Question 258

Which historical figure in medical ethics is widely considered as the greatest American philosopher?

Answer 258

John Rawls

Question 259

Which core value is defined as a commitment to completion?

Answer 259

Promise keeping

Question 260

While working with patients, you tend to view each as uninformed, less educated, and child-like; therefore, you probably make ethical decisions based on the …
model.

Answer 260

Paternal/priestly

Question 261

Which of the following describes the work of Lawrence Kohlberg?

Answer 261

Developmental stages of moral reasoning

Question 262

Which of the following pairs were teacher and pupil who worked together in their contributions to ethics?

Answer 262

Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill

Question 263

Which of the seven principles of biomedical ethics deals with performance of good acts?

Answer 263

Beneficience

Question 264

Whistle-blowing is the term used to denote the act oft

Answer 264

Reporting ethical violations

Question 265

Which prima face duty and biomedical ethical principle deals with telling the truth?

Answer 265

Duty: Fidelity; Biomedical ethical principle: Veracity

Question 266

Parents must decide whether to put their child on a ventilator to keep her alive until she heals more. There is every reason to believe that the child will recover completely, but she requires the assistance of a ventilator for the time being. The parents’ religious beliefs are that life and death are to be left to God’s will, and death should not be delayed, nor life sustained, by technological means. If the parents decide against the use of a ventilator, then their decision is based on:

Answer 266

Deontology

Question 267

What is another name for the consequentialism ethical theory?

Answer 267

Teleology

Question 268

Criteria to assess the areas of clinical performance, quality performance, and professional performance are found in the:

Answer 268

ASRT Practice Standards

Question 269

A radiologist asks about a procedure in which an error in imaging was made. She is visibly upset. You realize that you performed the procedure, but you are afraid of the consequences. If you do not admit your error and take responsibility for it, you will be violating the core value of:

Answer 269

Accountability

Question 270

Which ethical decision-making theory is based solely on one’s beliefs and morals?

Answer 270

Deontology

Question 271

Which ethical decision-making model is defined as one in which the provider and patient interact as business partners, each with rights and responsibilities, in the agreement for care?

Answer 271

Contractual

Question 272

Which of the following laws protect persons who report ethical violations?
(1) First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution
(2) Occupational Health and Safety Act (OSHA)
(3) Consumer Assurance of Radiologic Excellence (CARE) Bill

Answer 272

1,2

Question 273

Which of the following ethical theories considers both the potential outcomes as well as personal beliefs in the decision-making process?

Answer 273

• Virtue ethics

Question 274

The process of sorting injured people into groups based on need for or likely benefit from immediate medical treatment defines:

Answer 274

Triage

Question 275

The term for a predetermined (usually written) choice made to inform the health care treatment wishes of the patient should he/she become incompetent is:

Answer 275

• Advance directive

Question 276

Which distribution allocation group considers who pays for the entire budget of health care services?

Answer 276

Macro-allocation

Question 277

Which distribution theory views health care as a basic right that is a social good rather than as a financial good?

Answer 277

Rights theory of justice

Question 278

All of the following organs can be transplanted except for the:

Answer 278

brain

Question 279

Which of the following are considered to be life-sustaining treatments?
(1) Feeding tube
(2) Ventilator
(3) Blood pressure maintenance drugs

Answer 279

1,2,3

Question 280

Patient effort is the distribution decision-making criterion based on the patient’s:

Answer 280

Willingness or ability to comply with medical advice

Question 281

Imaging professionals should only study the technology in the area in which they practice and are employed.

Answer 281

False

Question 282

During a code, a patient fails to respond to all resuscitation efforts. The ECG shows asystole. The patient is not making voluntary respiratory efforts.
The physician calls the code and declares the patient dead. Does this patient meet the legal definition of death?

Answer 282

Yes

Question 283

Which of the following issues in health care may create ethical dilemmas for imaging professionals?
(1) Reproduction assistance technology
(2) Fusion imaging
(3) Stem cell research

Answer 283

1,3

Question 284

A no-code order that would prohibit initiation of CPR on a patient who stops breathing is termed:

Answer 284

DNR

Question 285

Which of the following health care professionals is authorized to make a formal declaration of death?

Answer 285

Physician

Question 286

Which term applies to a patient who refuses treatment, despite the fact that doing so will lead to death?

Answer 286

Passive suicide

Question 287

Which of the following employees would be required to receive training according to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?
High school coach
Respiratory therapist
Computer programmer
Elementary school teacher

Answer 287

Respiratory Therapist