euclid Flashcards
(496 cards)
1
Q
red color in biosafety indicates
A
stop / danger / fire protection equipment
2
Q
accepted ‘biohazard label color
A
fluorescent orange
3
Q
hazardous chemicals should be labeled as poisonous, corrosive, or _
A
carcinogenic
4
Q
all biological wastes except _ must be placed in a container with biohazard symbol
A
urine
5
Q
empty urine containers can be discarded as _
A
nonbiologically hazardous waste
6
Q
disinfectant for equipment & countertop surfaces
A
1:10 bleach
7
Q
best way to break the chain of infection
A
handwashing
8
Q
when hands are not visibly soiled, _
A
apply sanitizer
9
Q
when hands are visibly soiled,
A
wash hands with soap & water
10
Q
most important part of the handwashing procedure
A
friction
11
Q
handwashing song
A
happy birthday 2x (1 to 2 mins)
12
Q
correct way of combining acid and water
A
add acid to water
13
Q
Benedict’s reagent splashes on eyes, what to do
A
flush eyes with plenty of water (15 mins)
14
Q
what reference material will you consult after accidentally spilling a hazardous chemical
A
MSDS
15
Q
to determine the chemical characteristics of sodium azide, an employee would consult _
A
MSDS
16
Q
MSDS stands for _
A
Material Safety Data Sheet
17
Q
MSDS must be reviewed and updated every _
A
3 years
18
Q
work related hazard that includes strain due to repeated positions
A
ergonomic hazard
19
Q
a hazard due to extremely low temperature
A
cryogenic hazard
20
Q
what hazard include fire/explosion, asphyxiation, pressure buildup, tissue damage similar to burns
A
liquid nitrogen hazards
21
Q
centrifuges, refrigerators, autoclaves, homogenizers and glasswares are examples of _
A
mechanical hazards
22
Q
centrifuge accidents or improper removal of rubber stoppers from test tubes may produce _
A
aerosols
23
Q
grinding, mincing, vortexing, _ , and preparation of direct smears are known to produce _
A
centrifuging, aerosols
24
Q
it is required that all electrical equipment is grounded in a _ to avoid electric shock
A
three-pronged plug
25
flammable chemicals should be stored in _ in a remote area
explosion-proof refrigerator
26
functional unit of the kidney
nephron
27
each kidney has approximately how many nephrons
1 to 1.5 million
28
part of the nephron that resembles a 'sieve'
glomerulus
29
MW of plasma substances that can be filtered by the glomeruli
< 70,000 Da
30
reference method for measuring glomerular filtration rate
inulin
31
analyte(s) used to identify unknown body fluid as urine
urea & creatinine
32
if the voided sample prior to collection period is included in the 24-hour sample, clearance will be _; what to do
falsely high, repeat the collection
33
the greatest source of error in any clearance procedure is the use of _
improperly timed urine specimens
34
blood vessel that supplies blood to the kidneys
renal artery (unfiltered blood)
35
normal renal blood flow
1200 mL/min
36
normal renal plasma flow
600 mL/min
37
normal glomerular filtration rate
120 mL/min
38
the fluid leaving the glomerulus normally has a specific gravity of _
1.010
39
65% of reabsorption occurs at what part of the nephron
PCT
40
substances reabsorbed in the PCT include
SWAGU
salts, water, amino acids, glucose & urea
41
passive reabsorption of water takes place in all parts of the nephron except the _
ascending loop of henle
42
countercurrent mechanism is a selective urine concentration process in the _
ascending and descending loops of henle
43
a high level of _ inceases permeability of DCT and CD, resulting in (increased / decreased) water reabsorption, & a (low / high) volume concentrated
ADH; increased, low
44
region of the kidney with the highest solute concentration
loop of henle (bottom part)
45
effect of high ADH on the walls of DCT and CD
increases permeability to water
46
major compositions of urine (3)
water, urea, sodium chloride
47
major organic substance in urine
urea
48
major inorganic substance in urine
chloride > Na > K
49
patient is deprived of fluid for 24 hours, then urine SG is measured
Fishberg test
50
comparison of day & night urine in terms of volume & SG
Mosenthal test
51
more preferred and accurate method of determining the renal concentrating ability
osmolality
52
urine pH in renal tubular acidosis
alkaline
53
most commonly used specimen for routine urine screening
random urine
54
most ideal specimen for routine screening, pregnancy testing, and crystal identification
first morning urine
55
why is 1st morning urine is the most ideal specimen in urinalysis
most concentrated
56
the test requested most commonly on a catheterized specimen is _
bacterial culture
57
urine specimen for urobilinogen determination
afternoon specimen (2-4 pm)
58
preferred specimen for measuring urine creatinine
24-hour urine
59
when do changes in physical, chemical & microscopic characteristics of urine begin
as soon as urine is voided
60
urine specimens should be tested within _
2 hours
61
urine should be examined within _ because bacterial contamination will cause _ of urine
2 hours, alkalinization
62
what will disintegrate in an alkaline hypotonic urine
casts
63
least affected urine parameter in an unpreserved urine specimen
protein
64
most routinely used method of urine preservation
refrigeration
65
an excellent preservative for routine testing as it does not interfere w/ anything except pH
boric acid
66
chemical preservative for urine albumin
boric acid
67
unlabeled urine specimen received in the laboratory; what will you do
reject the specimen
68
UA is done first, then 3 hours later, urine is sent for culture; the specimen should be _
rejected
69
method of preservation if urine is not processed immediately for culture
refrigeration (up to 24 hours)
70
specimen for urine culture (out-patient)
midstream clean-catch
71
purpose of the 2nd container used in the three-glass collection
control for UTI
72
urine volume produced in polyuria
> 2,000 mL/day
73
diorder associated with polyuria
DM > DI
74
single parameter used to differentiate DM and DI
SG
75
urine volume produced in oliguria
< 500 (or 400) mL/day
76
complete cessation of urine flow
anuria (<100 mL/day)
77
definition of nocturia
>500 mL urine at night
78
for urine clarity determination, thoroughly mix the specimen then view through _
newspaper print
79
for urine color determination, look down through the container against a _
white background
80
major pigment in urine (yellow)
urochrome
81
excess urobilin in urine causes what color
yellow-orange / orange-brown
82
white foamy bubbles in urine indicates the presence of _
albumin (protein)
83
urine that produces a yellow foam when shaken contains _
bilirubin, pyridium
84
recent consumption of B-complex vitamins or carotene can make the urine appear _
dark yellow
85
phenol in urine produces what color
green (when oxidized)
86
cloudy/smoky red urine
hematuria
87
clear red urine
hemoglobin > myoglobin
88
causes of tea-colored urine
bilirubin and myoglobin
89
portwine or red urine
porphyria
90
homogentisic acid, melanin, and methemoglobin all cause what urien color
black > brown
91
normal urine odor
aromatic > fragrant > distinct > faint
92
large numbers of coliforms in urine will produce _
foul > ammoniacal odor, nitrite (+)
93
rancid butter urine odor
tyrosinemia
94
sulfur urine odor
cystinuria / cystinosis
95
significance of rotting fish (galunggong) urine odor
trimethylaminuria
96
significance of cabbage urine odor
methionine malabsorption
97
significance of fruity urine odor
DM (ketones)
98
asparagus urine odor is caused by ingestion of _
asparagus (methylmercaptan)
99
ingestion of onions, garlic & asparagus, UTI
pungent urine odor
100
cause of menthol-like urine odor
phenol-containing medications
101
a peculiar amount of odorless urine can be seen in _
acute tubular necrosis
102
blot the _ of the strip on a disposable absorbent pad
edge
103
store with _ in an opaque, tightly closed container
desiccant
104
store reagent strips in a _
cool dry area
105
when reading the color reaction, urine reagent strips should be held at what position
horizontal
106
urine for chemistry testing should be shaken well for detection of _
RBCs and WBCs
107
normal pH range of random urine
4.5-8.0
108
pH range of a first morning urine
5.0-6.0
109
a fruit that can cause acidic urine and is used as a home remedy for bladder infections
cranberry
110
a vegetarian individual will produce urine that is _
alkaline
111
normal daily protein excretion
<150 mg/day
112
a protein that originate from the urinary tract itself
uromodulin (THP)
113
increased filtration of APRs leads to what category of proteinuria?
pre-renal
114
it has an indicator that changes color with the pH being constant
protein reagent strip
115
reason behind protein error of indicators
protein accepts H+ from indicator
116
the protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to _
albumin
117
negative reagent strip for protein and positive SSA test indicates _
proteins other than albumin
118
Bence-Jones protein coagulates at _, then dissolves at _
40-60C (50-60C), 100C
119
Bence-Jones protein is seen in
multiple myeloma
120
normal value for albumin excretion rate (AER)
0-20 ug/min (0-30 mg/day)
121
AER in microalbuminuria
20-200 ug/min (30-300 mg/day)
122
AER in clinical albuminuria
>200 ug/min (>300 mg/day)
123
purpose of determining the albumin:creatinine ratio
to detect microalbuminuria
124
principle of Micral test strip
enzyme immunoassay
125
pre-eclampsia produces (+) reaction with what reagent parameter
protein
126
patient preparation for detecting orthostatic proteinuria
empty bladder before going to bed
127
increased pressure on the _ when in vertical position is believed to account for orthostatic proteinuria
renal vein
128
a nonspecific test for reducing sugars
Clinitest (copper reduction test)
129
copper sulfate is used to determine what ability of glucose
reducing / reduction
130
cause of false-positive copper reduction test fo urine sugars (Benedict's test)
ascorbic acid, uric acid
131
causes of false-negative copper reduction test for urine sugars (Benedict's test)
pass-thru phenomenon / detergents
132
to prevent pass-through phenomenon, use how many drops of urine
2 drops
133
Rubner's test detects what sugar(s)
lactose and glucose
134
the glucose in the reagent strip reaction breaks down as
gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide
135
if glucose reagent strip is 4+, what other parameter(s) should be checked
ketones > protein
136
patient is on a starvation diet, what can be found in urine
ketones
137
ketones are formed due to what mechanism
increased incomplete fat metabolism
138
the ketone reagent strip primarily detects what ketone
acetoacetic acid / diacetic acid
139
ketone body not detected by reagent strip
beta-hydroxybutyrate (BHA) (78%)
140
percentage of acetoacetic acid in the ketone bodies
20%
141
ketone body detected when glycine is included in the reagent strip
acetone (2%)
142
in what condition may urinary ketone tests underestimate ketoacidosis
acidosis (BHA is produced)
143
effect of bacteria on ketones
false-decrease
144
toxic to the renal tubular epithelium
myoglobin > hemoglobin
145
after a boxing match, the boxer's urine appeared red; this is due to _
myoglobin
146
a person suffering from crush injuries will manifest _ in urine
myoglobinuria
147
drug that causes rhabdomyolysis leading to myoglobinuria
statin (cholesterol-lowering drug)
148
test to differentiate hemoglobin an myoglobin
Blondheim's test
149
a red precipitate in urine is formed after adding ammonium sulfate; what is present
hemoglobin
150
a red supernatant in urine is formed after adding ammonium sulfate; what is present
myoglobin
151
urine specimen handling for bilirubin testing
wrap the specimen in foil
152
bilirubin reagent strip detects what bilirubin fraction
conjugated (direct, B2)
153
positive Ictotest result
blue to purple color after 60 secs
154
parameter reported in Ehrlich units
urobilinogen
155
convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units
0.4 EU (conversion factor: 1)
156
differentiates urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, other Ehrlich-reactive compounds
Watson-Schwartz test
157
soluble in (extracted by) both chloroform and butanol
urobilinogen
158
insoluble in (not extracted by) both chloroform and butanol
porphobilinogen
159
soluble in (extracted by) butanol, insoluble (not extracted by) chloroform
other Ehrlic reactive compounds
160
pateint preparation prior to testing urinary nitrite
eat vegetables the night before
161
bacteria that produces positive nitrite reagent strip (Greiss reaction)
E.coli (gram-negative bacilli)
162
what is responsible for pink color reaction in the nitrite reagent pad
Azo dye reacting w/ aromatic compound
163
all leukocytes contain esterase enzyme except
lymphocytes
164
nitrite should NOT interfere with the reagent strip test for _
leukocytes
165
relationship of urine SG to urine volume
inversely proportional
166
urine SG is equal to 1.010 (glomerular filtrate SG)
isosthenuria
167
urine SG > 1.010
hypersthenuria
168
urine SG < 1.010
hyposthenuria
169
formula for actual SG
actual SG = decimal portion of given SG x dilution factor
170
if urine specimen yielded an SG reading of 1.014 after using 1:4 dilution, the actual SG is
1.056
14 x 4 = 56
171
urine volume requirement for urinometry
10-15 mL (12mL)
172
used to calibrate a urinometer to base (1.000)
distilled water
173
instrument based on refractive index
total solids meter (refractometer)
174
refractive index is a comparison of _
light velocity in air to light velocity in solution
175
urine volume needed by the refractometer (Rf)
1 or 2 drops
176
specific gravity of (triple) distilled water (QC - refractomer, perform 1st)
1.000
177
SG of 3% sodium chloride
1.015 +/- 0.001
178
SG of 5% sodium chloride
1.022 +/- 0.001
179
SG of 7% sodium chloride
1.035 +/- 0.001
180
SG of 9% sucrose
1.034 +/- 0.001
181
SG of potassium sulfate solution (QC - urinometer)
1.015 +/- 0.001
182
_ for every 3C that the specimen temperature is ABOVE calibration temperature (urinometer)
+0.001
183
_ for every 3C that the specimen temperature is BELOW calibration temperature (urinometer)
-0.001
184
correction factor in urinometer/Rf for every 1 g/dL of glucose present in urine
-0.004
185
correction factor in urinometer/Rf for every 1 g/dL of protein present in urine
-0.003
186
temperature correction factor when using refractometer
none
187
reading of distilled water using refractometer is 1.002; what should you do
adjust set screw to 1.000
188
11th pad in the reagent strip
ascorbic acid
189
specimen used for Addis count/quantitating sediment constituents
12-hour urine
190
preservative for Addis count urine specimens; excellent sediment preservative
formalin
191
normal values for Addis count
RBCs: 0-500,000
WBCs & ECs: 0-1,800,000
hyaline casts: 0-5,000
192
primary components of the microscope lens system (3)
oculars, objectives, adjustment knobs
193
components of the microscope illumination system (3)
light source, condenser, diaphragms
194
components of the microscope body (3)
base, body tube, nosepiece
195
they perform the initial magnification of object on the mechanical stage
objectives
196
objective used for preliminary assessment (screening) of the urine sediment
10x (LPO)
197
magnification power of ocular lens
10x
198
part of microscpe used to focus LPO and SO
coarse adjustment knob
199
part of microscope used to focus HPO and OIO
fine adjustment knob
200
passage of light through the microscope
light source > diaphragm (field > aperture) > condenser > stage > objectives > oculars
201
precisely focuses & centers the light path and spreading the light uniformly over the field of view
Kohler illumination
202
after Kohler illumination is set in a microscope, _ should NOT be used to adjust light intensity
condenser (adjust rheostat instead)
203
a type of microscope that forms a HALO around the specimen
phase contrast
204
microscope for identifying hyaline/mixed cellular casts and mucus threads
phase contrast
205
to convert a brightfield into a darkfield microscope, what should be replaced
condenser
206
to convert a brightfield into a polarizing microscope, what should be installed
2 polarizing filters
207
microscope that produces 3D image and layer-by-layer imaging of the specimen
interference contrast
208
Nomarski and Hoffman are examples of _
interference contrast
209
it can be adapted for Hoffman and Nomarski microscopes
Brightfield microscopes
210
optical surfaces of the microscope should be cleaned with _
lens paper
211
used to remove dust on the optical surface of the microscope
camel-hair brush
212
clean any contaminated lens immediately with _
commercial lens cleaner
213
if lens cleaning solution is not available, what can be used as an alternative
alcohol-based solution
214
nuclear details in cells in urine can be enhanced by adding _
toluidine blue, acetic acid
215
supravital stain that differentiates WBCs from RTE cells
toluidine blue
216
lipid stains can stain triglycerides and neutral fats, but not _
cholesterol
217
color produced by neutral fats using Sudan III stain
orange-red
218
preferred stain for urinary eosinophils
Hansel stain
219
stain for hemosiderin in urine
Prussian blue
220
221
stain used in automated UA to visualize WBC, mitochondria, nuclear & cell membrane
Carbocyanine (green)
222
stain used in automated UA to visualize DNA elements
Phenathridine (orange)
223
RBCs in hypotonic urine will _
swell / hemolyze (ghost cell)
224
RBCs in hypertonic urine _
shrink or crenate
225
RBCs in glomerular membrane damage or bleeding appear as _
dysmorphic
226
dysmorphic RBCs are associated with what condition
glumerulonephritis
227
when blood is negative but RBCs were reported on microscopy, what to do
recheck sediment & look for budding yeasts
228
uniform blue color on blood reagent pad, 8 ghost cells seen/HPF, this indicates
hematuria (RBCs are lysed)
229
positive for blood reagent strip, 0-1 RBC/hpf, what indication
hemoglobinuria > myoglobinuria
230
term that indicates presene of WBCs in urine
pyuria/leukocyturia
231
these are WBCs seen in hypotonic urine
glitter cells
232
glitter cells are seen in urine with _
low SG (hypotonic)
233
normal value for urinary eosinophils
1% or less
234
the percentage of eosinophils in _ cells is determined
100 to 500 cells
235
if eosinophils in urine are >1%, this is associated with what condition
acute interstitial nephritis
236
largest cell in the urine sediment; most common contaminant from female patiens not doing MSCC
squamous epithelial cell
237
epithelial cell variant associated with bacterial vaginosis / G. vaginalis
clue cell
238
epithelial cell known as the "bladder cell"
transitional epithelial cell
239
these cells originate from the lining of renal pelvis, calyces, ureters, & bladder, and from upper portion of male urethra
urothelial cells
240
shapes of transitional epithelial cell (4)
spherical, pear, polyhedral, caudate
241
most clinically significal epithelial cell
RTE cell
242
clinically significant squamous epithelial cell
clue cell
243
epithelial cell in urine with eccentric nucleus
RTE cell
244
shape of PCT RTE cells (4)
oblongm cigar, rectangular, columnar
245
shape of DCT RTE cells (2)
round or oval
246
shape of CD RTE cells (3)
polygonal, cuboidal, columnar
247
number of RTE cells per HPF indicative of tubular injury
>2 per HPF
248
oval fat bodies are derived from what cell
RTE cell
249
highly refractile RTE cell
oval fat body
250
oval fat bodies are seen in what condition
nephrotic syndrome
251
RTE cell variant seen in acute tubular necrosis
bubble cell
252
RTE cell inclusion that are formed after prolonged hemoglobinuria
hemosiderin granules
253
(+) glucose; round cells insoluble in dilute acetic acid, what is present
moniliasis (yeast)
254
to consider as significant for yeast infection, yeast cells should be accompanied by
WBC
255
most frequently encountered parasite in urine; (+) leukocyte esterase
Trichomonas vaginalis
256
whn not moving, Trichomonas is more difficult to identify; observe for the presence of _
undulating membrane
257
mistaken for non-motile Trichomonas vaginalis in urine
RTE cell / WBC/ TEC
258
most common fecal contaminant in urine
Enterobius vermicularis
259
most common urine contaminant in female patients
squamous epithelial cells
260
might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed
casts
261
objective used for detecting cast
LPO
262
objective used for identifying cast
HPO
263
total magnification for reporting casts
100x (LPO x ocular lens magnification)
264
how to better visualize hyaline casts using brightfield microscopy
use subdued light
265
major component of urinary casts
uromodulin (THP)
266
other protein component of urinary casts
albumin > immunoglobulins
267
order of casts degeneration
hyaline > cellular > coarse > fine > waxy
268
most commonly seen broad casts are
granular and waxy
269
cylindruria can occur following
strenous exercise
270
RBC casts can be easily identified due to its _
orange-red color
271
final degenerative form of all cast types; seen in chronic renal failure
waxy cast
272
aka renal failure cast
broad cast
273
as a mold of the DCT, the presence of broad casts indicates _ of the tubular walls
destruction (widening)
274
factors favoring the formation of crystals (3)
pH
solute concentration
temperature
275
pink sediment in urine
amorphous urates
276
what to do in a refrigerated specimen containing pink precipitates before testing
warm urine at 60C
277
white precipitate in urine
amorphous phosphates & carbonates
278
envelope or pyramid-shaped, octahedral, square with an "X" crystal
calcium oxalate dihydrate
279
common form of calcium oxalate crystals
dihydrate / weddelite
280
calcium oxalate crystals are also associated with foods high in oxalic acid such as _
tomatoes and asparagus, and ascorbic acid
281
amorphous urates + acetic acid = ?
uric acid
282
gold lemon-shaped crystals
uric acid
283
crystal associated with chemotherapy, leukemia, lymphoma or polycythemia vera
uric acid
284
shape of ammonium biurate crystals
thorny apples
285
forms of triple phosphate (4)
feathery, fern-leaf, coffin-lid, prism
286
other name for struvite
triple phosphate / magneisum ammonium phosphate
287
colorless, flat rectanglular plates or thin prisms often in rosette forms
calcium phosphate
288
other name for apatite
calcium phosphate
289
290
most abnormal crystals are found in what urinary pH
acidic / neutral
291
colorless hexagonal crystals
cystine
292
staircase pattern crystal with notch in one or more corners
cholesterol
293
notched crystals are seen in what condition
nephrotic syndrome (lipiduria)
294
bilirubin, tyrosine and leucine crystals are seen together in _
liver disease
295
crystal precipitated with tyrosine crystals if alcohol is added to urine
leucine
296
yellow-brown sheaves of wheat, rosettes, arrowheads, petals, needles
sulfonamide
297
colorless needles that tend to form bundles following refrigeration
ampicillin
298
cigarette butt urinary crystal
calcium sulfate
299
urinary artifact with dimple appearance; contamination from baby powder or powdered gloves
starch granules
300
pollen grains in urine are often mistaken for _
parasite ova
301
urinary elements exhibiting maltese cross formation
oval fat bodies > fatty casts, fat droplets, starch
302
lipid that produces maltese cross formation in oval fat bodies and fatty casts
cholesterol
303
UA results: pH 5.0, WBCs and struvite crystals present, what to do
repeat testing
304
it is used to screen infant blood sample for specific substances associated with IEMs
MS/MS (tandem mass spectrophotometry)
305
metabolic disorder that lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase
phenylketonuria
306
most common inborn error or metabolism (IEM) detected in the Philippines
MSUD
307
metabolic disorder where urine turns black after opening the container
melanuria
308
Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndromes are examples of disorders involving _
mucopolysaccharides
309
Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAB) is a screening test for _
mucopolysaccharides
310
positive result in the CTAB test
white turbidity
311
positive color in the MPS paper test
blue
312
normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when examined with UV lamp is seen in
lead poisoning
313
increased aminolevulinic acid (ALA) in urine is seen in _
lead poisoning
314
when testing urinary ALA, the specimen must be pre-treated with _
acetyl acetone
315
infant urine yielded negative glucose but positive Clinitest results, suspect for
galactosemia
316
deficient melanin production results in _
albinism
317
metabolite of serotonin
5-HIAA (hydroxyindoleacetic acid)
318
preservative for urine 5-HIAA (serotonin) testing
HCl > boric acid
319
serotonin-rich foods include (7)
bananas, pineapples, tomatoes, avocados
chocolates, plums, walnuts
320
findings in Henoch-Schonlein purpura include (2)
heavy proteinuria & hematuria with RBC casts
321
crystal seen in Fanconi syndrome
cystine
322
protein in urine seen microscopically in renal diseases
Tamm-Horsfall protein (cast)
323
precursor of acute glomerulonephritis
respiratory infection (S. pyogenes)
324
progressive, irreversible renal disease
chronic kidney disease (chronic renal failure, chronic glumerulonephritis)
325
renal disease with the greatest proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)
nephrotic syndrome
326
main caharacteristics of nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria and lipiduria
327
urine SG in acute tubular necrosis
1.010 (isosthenuric)
328
presence of WBCs, bacteria & casts is seen in _
acute pyelonephritis
329
presence of WBCs &bacteria and absence of casts is seen in _
cystitis
330
presence of WBCs & WBC casts and absence of bacteria is seen in _
acute interstitial nephritis
331
tumor markers for urinary bladder cancer
NMP, BTA
332
bacteria that can cause formation of struvite stones
urea-slitting bacteria (Proteus)
333
primary urinalysis finding in renal lithiasis
microscopic hematuria
334
urinary calculi are mist commonly formed from _
calcium
335
it may be form in the renal calyces, renal pelvis, ureters and urinary bladder
renal calculi
336
sputum collection method for unconscious/ventilated patients
tracheal aspiration
337
color of Charcot-Leyden crystals using Wright's stain
purple (or pink)
338
% population of lymphocytes in the bronchoalveolar lavage
1-15%
339
this cell in the bronchoalveolar lavage is elevated in cigarette smokers
neutrophil
340
sweat chloride of >70 mEq/L indicates _
cystic fibrosis
341
puncture site when performing CSF lumbar puncture
between 3rd & 4th, or 4th & 5th lumbar vertebrae
342
excess CSF should not be discarded and should be _
frozen
343
normal CSF appearance
crystal clear
344
added to CSF to increase cell yield prior to cytocentrifugation
30% albumin
345
diluent used for total cell count in the CSF
normal saline
346
diluent used for CSF WBC count
3% acetic acid (HAc) with methylene blue
347
subtract 1 WBC for every _ RBCs seen in the CSF
700
348
predominant normal cells in the CSF
lymphocytes & monocytes
349
predominant WBC type in the CSF of newborns
monocytes
350
normal value for CSF glucose
60-70% of plasma glucose
351
for an accurate evaluation of CSF glucose, what test must be run for comparison
blood glucose test
352
specimen for blood glucose should be drawn _ to spinal tap to allow time for equilibration
2 hours prior
353
normal value for CSF lactate
10-22 mg/dL
354
normal value for CSF protein in adults
15-45 mg/dL
355
most abundant CSF protein
albumin
356
2nd most abundant CSF protein
prealbumi
357
most routinely used techniques for measuring total CSF protein
turbidimetry and dye binding
358
concentration of TCA (& SSA) for CSF total protein determination
3%
359
IgG index indicative of immunoglobulin production within the CNS
> 0.70 (or 0.77)
360
analyte used to identify unknown body fluid as CSF
prealbumin/"tau" transferrin
361
in CSF electrophoresis by immunofixation or isoelectric focusing, what stain is used
silver stain
362
used to monitor the course of multiple sclerosis
myelin basic protein
363
indirect test for ammonia in the CSF
CSF glutamine
364
Limulis lysate test detects _
gram-negative endotoxin
365
increased neutrophils, high CSF protein, low CSF glucose, high CSF lactate
bacterial meningitis
366
increased lymphocytes, high CSF protein, normal CSF glucose and CSF lactate
viral meningitis
367
marker used to differentiate bacterial from non-bacterial (viral) meningitis
procalcitonin
368
pellicle or web-like clot formation is seen in what type of meningitis
tubercular meningitis
369
specimen(s) used in latex agglutination test for detection of Cryptococcus neoformans
serum and CSF
370
site of sperm maturation
epididymis
371
part of male reproductive system responsible for coagulation and liquefaction
prostate gland
372
ACP, citric acid, zinc and other proteolytic enzymes are produced by what gland
prostate gland
373
period of abstinence prior to semen collection
2-7 days
374
what part of the ejaculate should the patient collect for semen analysis
entire ejaculate
375
failure to document time a semen is collected primarily affects interpretation of _
viscosity
376
normal semen liquefaction time
30 to 60 mins after collection
377
cause of brown or red seminal fluid
blood
378
reference range for sperm concentration
>20 million sperms/mL
379
reference range for sperm count
>40 million sperms/ejaculate
380
primary purpose of diluting semen specimens before performing sperm concentration
to immobilize sperms
381
dilution used for sperm concentration determination
1:20
382
alternative diluent for semen dilution
cold tap water
383
when doing sperm concentration, the counts of both sides of hemocytometer should agree within _
10%
384
normal % sperm motility within 1 hour
>50%
385
the nucleus (genetic material) of a sperm is located at the _
head
386
part of a sperm cell responsible for egg penetration
acrosomal cap / acrosome
387
abnormalities in the sperm head morphology are associated with _
poor ovum penetration
388
abnormalities in the sperm tail are associated with _
poor motility
389
part of sperm cell that produces energy needed for motility
neck / midpiece
390
hardening of veins that drain the testes; sperms have tapered head
varicocele
391
stain of choice for sperm morphology determination
Papaniculaou stain
392
reagent used for assessment of sperm viability
Eosin-Nigrosin stain
393
color of living sperm cells on Eosin-Nigrosin stain
bluish-white / unstained
394
color of dead sperms on Eosin-Nigrosin stain
red against a purple background
395
Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA) determines (4)
sperm velocity, trajectory, morphology & concentration
396
measurement of neutral a-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the _
epididymis
397
test for fructose in seminal fluid
Resorcinol test (Seliwanoff's)
398
positive color in the Resorcinol test
orange-red
399
if fructose cannot be tested within 2 hours, the semen should be kept _
frozen
400
these are termed round cells found in semen
spermatids and leukocytes
401
immature sperm cells; mistaken as WBCs
spermatids
402
sperm maturation
spermatogonium > 1 spermatocyte > 2 spermatocyte > spermatid > spermatozoon
403
reagents used in the Florence test
potassium iodide & iodine crystals
404
reagents used in the Barbiero's test
saturated picric acid & TCA
405
after vasectomy, when should the patient submit semen for analysis
2 months
406
normal volume of synovial fluid
<3.5 mL
407
test(s) to determine an unknown body fluid as synovial
Ropes test > toluidine blue test
408
a normal synovial fluid forms a string that is _ long
4 to 6 cm
409
mucin clot test is also called _
Ropes test
410
synovial fluid forms solid or compact clot using mucin clot test, this is graded as _
good
411
synovial fluid WBC diluents (3)
1. NSS with methylene blue
2. hypotonic saline
3. saline with saponin
412
synovial fluid diluents should not contain _
acetic acid (form mucin clots)
413
methylene blue is added to the normal saline diluent for what purpose
to stain WBC nuclei
414
normal value for synovial fluid RBC count
none (0)
415
normal value for synovial WBC count
<200/uL
416
bacteria that account for the majority of septic arthritis in young & middle-age adults
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
417
bacteria that account for the majority of septic arthritis involving older adults
S. aureus
418
most common causative agents of arthritis in young children
Haemophilus, Staph spp., Strep spp.
419
neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes
ragocyte (RA cell)
420
neutrophil with ingested round body
LE cell
421
macrophage with ingested neutophils
reiter cell
422
macroscopically resemble polished rice; microscopically, collagen & fibrin
rice bodies
423
debris/pieces of pigmented cartilage with ground pepper appearance
ochronotic shards
424
birefringence of CPPD (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate) crystal
blue (+)
425
birefringence of MSU (monosodium urate) crystal
yellow (-)
426
birefringence of apatite crystal in synovial fluid
none
427
a control slide for polarization properties of MSU can be prepared using _
betamethasone acetate corticosteroid (BMAC)
428
MSU crystals are seen in _
gout
429
CPPD crystals are seen in _
pseudogout
430
normal synovial fluid glucose should be _ than the blood value
<10 mg/dL lower
431
normal synovial fluid protein level
<3 g/dL
432
anticoagulant for serous fluids submitted for chemistry tests
none / heparin
433
specimen requirement for pH measurement on serous fluids
heparinized syringe; anaerobic
434
normal appearance of serous fluids
clear, pale yellow
435
effusion due to hypoproteinemia, congestive heart failure & nephrotic syndrome
transudate
436
effusion caused by infection, inflammation & malignancies
exudate
437
most reliable tests to distinguish transudate from exudate
fluid:serum protein & LD ratios
438
total protein level that differentiates transudates (T) & exudates (E)
<3.0 g/dL (T), >3.0 g/dL (E)
439
method of collection for pleural fluid
thoracentesis
440
method of collection for pericardial fluid
pericardiocentesis
441
method of collection for ascites or peritoneal fluid
paracentesis
442
also increased in pleural effusions resulting from pancreatitis and pulmonary infarction
neutrophils
443
thoracentesis is done on a patient; test revealed cholesterol of 100 mg/dL, this fluid is
pleural exudate
444
how to differentiate hemothorax and hemorrhagic exudate
run a hematocrit on the fluid
445
type of effusion in empyema
pleural exudate
446
adenosine deaminase level highly indicative of tuberculosis
>40 U/L
447
WBC count in peritoneal fluid is 775/uL, this indicates _
bacterial peritonitis, cirrhosis
448
significance of green peritoneal fluid
gallbladder/pancreatic disorder
449
significance of milky peritoneal fluid
lympathic trauma & blockage
450
significance of black pleural fluid
aspergillosis
451
amniotic fluid is a product of _; its constituents provide information about the metabolic processes taking place
fetal metabolism
452
major contributor to amnotic fluid volume DURING 1st trimester of pregnancy
maternal plasma
453
major contributor to amniotic fluid AFTER 1st trimester of pregnancy
fetal urine
454
ultimate source of amniotic fluid water and solutes
placenta
455
normal volume of amniotic fluid during 3rd trimester of pregnancy
800 to 1200 mL
456
amniotic fluid storage condition for fetal lung maturity (FLM) tests
refrigerated or frozen
457
amniotic fluid storage condition for cytogenetic studies
room temperature or 37C
458
amniotic fluid storage condition for HDN testing
protected from light
459
significance of dark green amniotif fluid
meconium
460
first fetal bowel movement
meconium
461
significance of dark red-brown amniotic fluid
fetal death
462
instrument used in the O.D 450 test
spectrophotometer
463
a significant rise in the O.D of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of _
bilirubin
464
a significant rise in the O.D of amniotic fluid at 410 nm indicates the presence of _
oxyhemoglobin
465
a significant rise in the O.D of amniotic fluid at 650 nm indicates the presence of _
lamellar bodies (phospholipids)
466
Liley graph zone: nonaffected/mildly affected fetus
zone 1 (no/mild HDN)
467
Liley graph zone: moderately affected fetus & requires careful monitoring
zone 2 (moderate HDN)
468
Liley graph zone: severely affected fetus & requires intervention
zone 3 (severe HDN)
469
alpha-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid is produced by _
fetal liver
470
maternal serum AFP is usually measured around _
15th to 18th week of pregnancy
471
when should assessment of Down syndrome be performed
15th to 18th week of pregnancy
472
test for FLM, fetal distress, HDN andd infection should be done around _
20th to 42nd week of pregnancy
473
Down syndrome is also known as
trisomy 21
474
reagent used in the foam stability test in amniotic fluid
95% ethanol
475
lung surfactant produced by type 2 pneumocytes
lamellar bodies
476
specimen requirement prior to lamellar bodies testing
centrifuge at 2,000 g for 10 mins
477
lamellar body count uses platelet channel of hematology analyzers that are based on
electrical impendance / optical light scatter
478
hCG is produced by _ cells of the placenta
syncytiotrophoblast
479
480
pregnancy test (hCG) is an indirect test because _
the analyte is not produced by the fetus
481
how many days will hCG disappear after ectopic pregnancy
3-7 days
482
source of anti-hCG in home-based pregnancy test kits
rabbit
483
the anti-hCG in the POCT PT kits is directed against what subunit
beta-subunit of the amino acid
484
positive cut-off point for pregnancy
25 mIU/mL
485
negative reaction in POCT pregnancy test
1 colored band
486
positive reaction in POCT pregnancy test
2 colored bands
487
protein that functions as a biological glue, attaching fetal sac to uterine lining
fetal fibronectin (fFN)
488
marker used as an indicator of pre-term delivery
fetal fibronectin (fFN)
489
normal volume of gastric fluid (fasting state)
20 to 50 mL
490
normal appearance of gastric fluid
pale gray, slightly mucoid
491
gastric tube inserted through the nose
Levin tube
492
gastric tube inserted through the mouth
Rehfuss tube
493
duration of gastric fluid collection
1 hour with 15-min interval (fasting)
494
tubeless gastric fluid analysis
Diagnex
495
specimen used in the Diagnex blue (tubeless) test
urine
496
produced by parietal cells that breaks down pepsinogen
HCl
