Eukaryotic (Whitehouse) Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

In rna pol II’s CTD which 2 serines in the heptad repeat can be phosphorylated, and when do these occur?

A

Serine 5 - at the 5’ end of the gene for initiation

Serine 2 - later in the gene for productive elongation

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2
Q

When does 5’end capping occur?

A

Early in transcription after RNAPII has transcriber 20-25 nts

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3
Q

What enzymatic activities does mammalian capping enzyme (CE) have?

A

RNA triphosphatase

Guanylyltransferase

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4
Q

When is capping enzyme lost?

A

When pSer5 (RNAPII CTD) lost, after > 500 nts transcribed

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5
Q

What are the roles of the 5’ cap?

A
Increase RNA stability (protection from 5-3 exonucleases)
Increase translation (eIF4F binds cap interacts with 40s ribosome sub)
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6
Q

In splicing, where does the snRNP U1 bind?

A

To the GU sequence at 5’ splice site along with ASF/SF2, U2AF, SF1/BBP

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7
Q

In splicing which snRNPs catalyse transesterification?

And what does this do?

A

U6/U2

Makes 5’ end of intron ligate to an A within the intron form lariat loop structure

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8
Q

What does the spliceosome consist of?

A

snRNPs U1,2,4,5 and 6 and ~125 proteins

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9
Q

What percentage of human multi exon genes are alternatively spliced?

A

Almost 95%

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10
Q

In SMN2 gene alternative splicing what binds in exon 7 and in the down stream intron to prevent exon 7 inclusion?

A

Heterogenous nuclear ribonucleoprotein particle A1 (hnRNP A1)

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11
Q

At what 2 stages do FOX1 & 2 inhibit the spliceosome

A

E’ and E
Block binding of SF to branch point
Block TRA2 and SRP55 binding to exonic splicing enhancers

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12
Q

How do high elongation rates lead to exon skipping

A

Allow simultaneous presentation of strong and suboptimal 3’ splice sites to the splicing machinery

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13
Q

Which 2 complexes are recruited to mRNA in a splicing dependent manner?

A

hTREX (CBP80, Aly, TAP, UAP56, hTHO)

And EJC

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14
Q

The final step of transcription is endonucleolyic cleavage but where does this occur?

A

10-30 nucleotides down stream or AAUAAA polyA signal

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15
Q

What are the core components of the 3’ processing complex?

A
CPSF (binds AAUAAA)
CtsF (binds downstream U/GU rich DSE as a dimer) 
CF Im (binds UGUA as a dimer) 

PAP and CF IIm associate transiently

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16
Q

Describe PAP addition of As initially and after PABII binding

A

Adds around 12 As at a slow rate to 3’ OH generated by cleavage
Then binding of PABII to short polyA tail accelerates rate of addition
After 200-250 As PABII signals PAP to stop

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17
Q

What are the 2 models of 3’ end processing’s role in transcription termination
And which is right?

A

Anti-terminator and torpedo

Combo of both

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18
Q

What complex binds to aberrant short polyA tailed RNAs and what does this initiate?

A

TRAMP

RNA digestion by the exosome

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19
Q

NPCs are freely permeable to what size?

A

<40kDa

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20
Q

What configuration does mRNA adopt when passing through NPCs

A

Dumbbell

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21
Q

The nucleoplasmic entrance of the pore is initially closed by what?
And what causes opening?

A

Basket filaments

To which the mRNP docks and initiates distal basket ring formation

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22
Q

What does non sense mediated decay prevent?

A

Production of truncated proteins that could be deleterious

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23
Q

How to EJCs lead to nonsense mediated decay?

A

If there is a premature stop codon >55 nts upstream of EJC
UPF1 and SMG1 bind to EJC associated UPF2, this triggers UPF1 phosphorylation and NMD by translational repression and RNA degradation

24
Q

How could EJC enhance transaltion pioneer round?

A

Recruiting enhancer proteins PYM & SKAR onto newly exported mRNA, that enhance ribosome recruitment onto CBP80/20 capped RNA

25
What do the decapping enzymes Dcp1p/Dcp2p lead to?
5'-3' degradation by Xrn1p exonuclease | And removal of cap inhibits eIF4E binding therefore translation
26
What are Pbodies ?
RNA-protein granules in which mRNAs complexed with decapping machinery assemble
27
What are the 2 outcomes for mRNA In Pbodies?
Degradation by Xrn1p | Re-enter translation
28
What are stress granules?
Contain mRNAs and subset of translation initiation factors (eIF4E, 4G,4A) 40S ribosome and PABP. Also contain RBPs to self aggregate to form granules
29
Where is m6A methylation enriched?
Around stop codons 3'UTR and 5' cap
30
What causes retininis pigementosa?
Loss of cones and rosa in retinal pigment epithelium linked to mutations in splicing factor PRP31
31
FTBP-17 is caused by mutations in tau exon 10 that...?
Disrupt an exonic splicing enhancer, leads to mis-splicing that leads to aggregation
32
Mutations in PABPN1 cause what?
Oculopharnygeal muscular dystrophy
33
The gene linked to ataxia telangiectasia, ATM, encodes what type of enzyme? And what is this essential for?
Kinase, essential for p53 activity
34
Where are mutations in beta-globin gene that cause to thalalassemia?
Intron 2
35
How can AOs be used to treat thalassemia
Block 5' cryptic splice sites in intron 2 to restore normal splicing pattern
36
What's the difference between SMN1 gene product and SMN2?
SMN2 doesn't include exon 7 due to a silent mutation that disrupts and exonic splicing enhancer
37
How are KSHV encoded proteins exported if they are not spliced? (They wouldn't have hTREX)
KSHV encodes SR protein ORF57 that recruits hTREX components UAP56, Aly and CIP29
38
How long are miRNAs
~22 nt
39
What region of mRNA contains complimentary miRNA targets?
3'UTR | Usually in multiple copies
40
What does Lin-4 in c.elegans do?
Complimentary to Lin-14 leads to its degradation which is key for larval development
41
What enzyme transcribes miRNA?
RNAPII
42
Primary miRNA is cleaved by Drosha but requires what other enzyme?
DiGeorfe syndrome critical region in gene 8 protein (DGCR8)
43
Where does drosha cleave ?
11bps away from ssRNA stem loop junction on primiRNA
44
What does exportin 5 recognise ?
>14bp dsRNA stem loop with 3' overhang
45
What does exportin 5 recruit and how does this aid miRNA export?
RanGTP, hydrolysis of GTP in cytoplasm releases pre-miRNA
46
What activity does DICER have and what does it do?
RNase III | Cleaves 22nt away from pre existing terminus of pre-miR
47
TRBP and PRKRA are associated with what?
DICER
48
If there are few mismatches in miRNA: target mRNA what does this cause
mRNA cleavage
49
miR-223 roles in myeloid cell development?
Expression promoted by PU1 and CEBPB promotes differentiation of neurotrophils and monocytes by repressing NFA-1 Represses ELF like factor 2 modulate neutrophil differentiation
50
In CLL a region of Chr 13 is deleted, it contains which miRs? And what function do these have?
miR-15a and miR-16 | Regulate BCL2
51
PTEN and BIM are tumour suppressor and targets of which miR?
miR-17-92
52
What orientation to ICP0-a is HIV miR-H2-3p transcribed?
Antisense
53
KSHV encodes how many miRs from how many pre-miRs?
17 from 12
54
BCLAF1 is targeted by what virus and which miR?
KSHV's miR-K5
55
What type of cancer does miR-let-7 have an effect on and what is the effect?
Lung tumours, reduces tumour burdens in mice models