EVERY TOPIC Flashcards

1
Q

An increase or decrease in pH or temperature can cause an enzyme to ____________.

A

Denature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of organic compound gives the most calories of energy per gram

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction by lowering the amount of _____________energy to start the reaction

A

activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enzymes are always changed in the reaction and cannot be used again

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enzymes are specific and can only bond with or act on one particular substrate

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - glucose, fructose, strach

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - nucleotide

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - triglyceride

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - meat, fish, eggs

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - Adenine

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - polysaccharide

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - enzymes

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - phospholipid

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - protein

A

used as building blocks for the body, NOT energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - lipid

A

insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - nucleic acids

A

used to identify the characteristics of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - carbohydrates

A

quick main source of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - short term energy

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - store genetic material

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - builds muscle and helps with movement

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - long term energy

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - hormones like insulin

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - waxes, oils, butter

A

lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - pasta, bread, rice

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Match the example to its organic compound - DNA, RNA
nucleic acids
26
An organic compound will always have what 3 elements?
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
27
substrate
the reactant that the enzyme binds or attaches to
28
activation energy
the amount of energy needed to start a reaction
29
catalyst
a molecule that speeds up a reaction
30
active site
the place where the enzyme and substrate join
31
Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - nucleic acid
Nucleotide
32
Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - lipid
Fatty Acid
33
Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - carbohydrate
Monosaccharide
34
Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - protein
Amino Acid
35
The model of a substrate to an enzyme is called a lock and key model
true
36
Match the description to the organic compound - blueprint of an organism
nucleic acid
37
Match the description to the organic compound - ends in -ose
carbohydrate
38
Match the description to the organic compound - speeds up chemical reactions
protein
39
Match the description to the organic compound - builds cell membranes and provides waterproof coverings
lipid
40
Which of the following are parts of mitosis?
anaphase metaphase telophase prophase
41
Which of the following is an argument that supports the use of embryonic stem cells?
they can be used to cure diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimers
42
Daughter cells that are formed by mitosis have _______________chromosomes as the parent cell
the same number of
43
Apoptosis is
the destruction of a cell that has/contains an error programmed cell death a process in which a cell should destroy itself if an error is found and cannot be fixed
44
Place the phases of mitosis in order, starting with what happens immediately after interphase
prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
45
A malignant tumor can be described as
a mass of abnormal cells that can spread from where it originated
46
Organisms use the process of mitosis for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
differentiation
47
A benign tumor can be described as
a mass of abnormal cells that does not move beyond its original location
48
Stem cells can become any type of cell in the body?
True
49
Cancer cells are your own cells dividing uncontrollably
true
50
Why are checkpoints important throughout the cell cycle?
they make sure that the cell has no mistakes as it divides, so that any daughter cells formed are functional
51
What is the stage of the cell cycle when the cytoplasm of a cell actually splits and two daughter cells are formed
cytokinesis
52
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate itself?
Interphase - Synthesis
53
Put the phases of the cell cycle in the correct order, starting with the phase that happens immediately after a new cell is formed.
G1 S G2 M
54
Mitosis produces daughter cells that are _______ to their parents, which means that they have the exact same ________. These daughter cells are __________, or body cells. Unlike mitosis, meiosis forms daughter cells that have __________ the DNA of their parent cell. These cells made during meiosis are called _________.
identical DNA somatic half gametes
55
Which of the following is not true about stem cells?
only embryonic stem cells can differentiate
56
Differentiation can be described as
the process by which stem cells develop a specific purpose and become a specialized cell
57
Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Anaphase
Sister chromatids are pulled apart from each other and migrate to opposite poles / ends of the cell
58
Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Telophase
Chromatids are at opposite ends of the cell and a new nucleus begins to form around each set of chromatids
59
Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Metaphase
Sister chromatids are pulled to the equator and line up in the middle of the cell
60
Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Prophase
Sister chromatids first become visible and the nuclear membrane begins to break down
61
Cancer is the result of
cells that divide uncontrollably
62
Bacteria is an example of what type(s) of cell(s)?
prokaryotic
63
In order for a virus to reproduce it must invade a cell that becomes the ________ for the virus
host cell
64
A virus is a type of cell and is considered living.
false
65
Animal cells, plant cells, and fungal cells are examples of what type of cell?
eukaryotic
66
A cell that does not have a nucleus and usually forms unicellular organisms represents what type of cell?
prokaryotic
67
DNA is found in a double helix in what type of cell?
eukaryotic
68
What organelles are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
cell membrane cytoplasm ribosome genetic material
69
More complex, larger in size, and usually forms multicellular organisms would best describe what type of cell?
eukaryotic
70
Select all that apply. Which organelles are found in prokaryotic cells?
nucleoid cell membrane genetic material cytoplasm ribosome
71
Bacteria cell
Prokaryotic cell that is usually round and simple
72
Animal cell
Eukaryotic cell that is round and contains lysosomes and centrioles
73
Plant cell
Eukaryotic cell that is boxy and contains chloroplast and cell wall
74
Fungal cell
Eukaryotic cell that contains a cell wall and multiple nuclei
75
Which of the following are found in eukaryotic cells only?
vesicle cytoskeleton golgi body vacuoles mitochondria endoplasmic reticulum nucleus
76
Vacuole
Stores substances inside the cell (water, nutrients)
77
Ribosome
Makes proteins
78
Vesicle
The pouch that moves materials around the cell (sac)
79
Cell Wall
Provides shape and support for plant cells
80
Cell Membrane
Controls what can enter or leave the cell
81
Nucleus
Control center of the cell that directs all of the cells activities
82
Cytoplasm
Fluid, jelly like substance that holds the organelles
83
Mitochondria
Breaks down glucose to give the cell energy (ATP)
84
Chloroplast
A structure in plants that captures energy from the sun and converts it into glucose
85
Golgi Body
Packages and ships the proteins to be exported from the cell
86
Microtubules
Forms the cytoskeleton of the cell and enables organelles to move in the cell
87
Endoplasmic Reticulum
The highway used to transport materials throughout the cell
88
The "active" part of active transport means that it uses____________.
Energy in the form of ATP
89
Use the following information to answer the question. A cell contains 10% salt and a solution contains 30% salt. Which description correctly describes osmosis in this situation.
there will be a net flow of water leaving the cells
90
The cell membrane lets some molecules in and keeps others out. Which term does NOT accurately describe this property?
hemipermeable
91
Hypotonic
A cell is in a solution that has less solutes (salts and sugars) than the cell has on the inside water will enter the cell causing it to swell
92
Isotonic
A cell is in a solution that has the same amount of solutes (salts and sugars) as the inside of the cell
93
Hypertonic
A cell is in a solution that has more solutes (salts and sugar) than the cell has on the inside water will leave cell causing it to shrink
94
Homeostasis refers to the need for an organism to maintain constant or stable internal conditions.
true
95
Water moves through osmosis by going from _________areas to _________areas
hypotonic, hypertonic
96
What would be a reasonable definition for diffusion?
molecules moving from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
97
Osmosis is the diffusion of
water
98
light independent reaction
uses carbon dioxide to produce glucose
99
light dependent reaction
uses sunlight and water to produce oxygen
100
Why don't plants rely on animals or humans for the energy that they need.
plants can do both: make their own food and break it down for energy
101
Alcoholic fermentation breaks down pyruvic acid to produce ethyl alcohol and what other product?
carbon dioxide
102
In aerobic respiration, 1 molecule of glucose is converted to a net gain total of approximately _____ATP.
36
103
Which organisms below go through anaerobic lactic acid fermentation?
golden retriever people
104
Every living organism goes through glycolysis.
true
105
Select the overall products of photosynthesis.
glucose oxygen
106
Select the overall reactants for photosynthesis (there are 3).
water sunlight energy carbon dioxide
107
Anaerobic
without oxygen
108
Aerobic
with oxygen
109
How does an ATP molecule become an ADP molecule? (ATP ---> ADP)
a phosphate group is taken off
110
Select the overall reactants of cellular respiration.
glucose oxygen
111
kreb's cycle
uses pyruvic acid and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and 2 ATP
112
glycolysis
glucose is split to produce pyruvic acid and and a net gain of 2 ATP
113
electron transport chain
use electron carriers and oxygen to produce water and 32 ATP
114
Place the steps of aerobic respiration in order starting from the cytoplasm
glycolysis kreb's cycle electron transport chain
115
What builds up an ATP?
3 circle phosphates, ribose sugar connecting the adenine base
116
Which of the following do your muscle cells produce when they are in an environment with little to no oxygen?
Lactic Acid
117
Which of the following occurs when ATP becomes ADP?
energy is released
118
Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Aerobic Cellular Respiration
Mitochondria
119
Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Photosynthesis
Chloroplast
120
Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Anaerobic Cellular Respiration
Cytoplasm
121
Which organisms below go through anaerobic alcoholic fermentation or are used during the process of alcoholic fermentation?
yeast corn grapes staphylococcus aureus (bacteria)
122
Select the overall products of cellular respiration.
carbon dioxide ATP water
123
What is the DNA complement of GAGCTA? Use capital letters and no spaces.
CTCGAT
124
Chromosome
made up of genes
125
Nucleotides
the building blocks of DNA
126
DNA
organic molecule that contains the instructions for all living things
127
Gene
a section of a DNA molecule that contains the instructions for a specific protein
128
Match the process to what it produces - DNA Replication
DNA
129
Match the process to what it produces -Translation
protein
130
Match the process to what it produces - Transcription
RNA
131
The genetic code in DNA depends on the order of_______.
nucleotides
132
Which of the following is / are associated with DNA?
Deoxyribose sugar thymine double stranded
133
What is the end result of transcription?
RNA
134
What type of RNA is involved in translation?
tRNA mRNA rRNA
135
In terms of DNA, a mutation is
a mistake in the DNA that can cause a protein to be made incorrectly, which may lead to various problems
136
which of the following is part of a nucleotide?
nitrogen base deoxyribose phosphate ribose
137
What is the RNA complement of CTGCAT? Use capital letters and no spaces.
GACGUA
138
tRNA
carries the amino acid
139
rRNA
the location where the proteins are made
140
mRNA
the message using A, U, C, and G
141
what would the complimentary mRNA of this DNA strand be? Use capital letters and one space between each letter. T A C C C G A C C A T T (use caps and put one space in between each letter)
A U G G G C U G G U A A
142
A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - tRNA
Ribosomes would not have the amino acids they need to synthesize proteins
143
A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - mRNA
Genes' instructions would not be able to leave the nucleus, so ribosomes would not have a blueprint they need to synthesis proteins
144
A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - rRNA
Ribosomes would be missing a part and would not be able to synthesize proteins
145
Each tRNA attaches to a specific ______
amino acid
146
A. T, G, C, and U are all examples of...
nitrogen bases
147
tRNA contains a three nucleotide part called a
anticodon
148
Replication
the creation of 2 sets of DNA for cell division. Unwinding and adding in new nucleotides
149
Translation
uses the mRNA code to create a protein in the ribosomes found in the cytoplasm
150
Transcription
using DNA as a template to create an mRNA code, which occurs in the nucleus
151
tRNA attach to ____ and transfer them to the ribosomes
amino acids
152
which of the following bases is not found in RNA
T
153
How many codons are in this RNA sequence AUGGCCACAUAA?
4
154
Match the process to where it occurs - Translation
Cytoplasm
155
Match the process to where it occurs - Transcription
Nucleus
156
Which seems to be the most accurate description of RNA?
A copy of a gene that can leave the nucleus
157
Where does DNA replication occur?
nucleus
158
Is the following strand a strand of DNA or RNA? How do you know? AUGGAU
RNA because only RNA has U's
159
Which of the following is a segment of DNA that codes for a certain protein?
gene
160
Place the steps of DNA replication in order from beginning to end.
The DNA helix untwists Enzymes separate the 2 DNA stand The new nucleotides are added by enzymes 2 identical DNA molecules are produced
161
A black bull and a white cow are crossed. Half of the offspring are black and half are black and white spotted. What type of dominance controls hair color in the cows?
codominace
162
sex-linked traits
traits whose genes are located on the sex chromosomes (hemophilia)
163
incomplete dominance
neither trait is completely dominant over the other (red, pink, white)
164
law of dominance
when a dominant allele is present, it is expressed
165
multiple alleles
having more than 2 alleles for a trait (blood type)
166
codominance
both alleles are expressed in the phenotype (black, black and white, white)
167
polygenic traits
traits that have many genes that code for a trait (based on amount of dominate alleles present)(eye color)
168
Hemophilia
Inability of blood to clot
169
Huntington's
Late fife mental deterioration
170
Cystic Fibrosis
Excessive mucous production
171
Color Blindness
Inability to distinguish certain colors
172
Sickle Cell Anemia
Misshaped red blood cells
173
Albinism
Lack of skin and hair pigment
174
Kleinfelter's Syndrome
Males with an extra X chromosome that results in a hormone imbalance
175
Turner's Syndrome
Females with only one X chromosome that results in infertility
176
Tay Sachs
Build up of fat in the brain
177
Down Syndrome
Having an extra 21st pair of chromosomes that causes varying degrees of mental retardation
178
Female genotype
XX
179
Male genotype
XY
180
nondisjunction
a mistake in division that causes an abnormal number of chromosomes in each cell
181
mutagen
a substance that can cause mutations
182
mutation
a change in an organisms DNA
183
gene mutation
a mutation that affects a single gene
184
chromosomal mutation
a mutation that affects multiple genes or an entire chromosome
185
The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?
genetic variation
186
How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?
asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces offspring with traits
187
Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?
sexual reproduction
188
A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can best be inferred from this example?
individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce
189
Some organisms are able to reproduce asexually through mitosis, while cells of organisms that reproduce sexually, will undergo meiosis to produce gametes. Which process do you predict would be most beneficial to a species during a drastic change in environmental conditions?
Meiosis; it results in more genetic variation, which would help ensure the species will survive
190
The differences in the bird beaks Darwin observed are most likely a result of
available food sources
191
Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape thrived, while those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur.
limited food resources
192
Mutations within a DNA sequence are
natural processes that produce genetic diversity
193
Which process produces the most variation within a species?
sexual reproduction
194
Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?
an organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully
195
A large group of brown mice live in a coastal area. One day, a flood creates a river, separating the mice into two separate groups. Hundreds of years later, the mice on on side of the river are mostly dark brown while mice on the other side of the river are mostly light brown. This scenario best demonstrates which pattern of evolution?
Divergent Evolution
196
Which of the following can be determined by observing developing embryos?
certain organisms share common ancestry
197
What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?
technological advances allowed scientists to better compare organisms
198
Analogous Structure
Similar in function but evolve separately (bat wings and fly wings)
199
Anatomy
The study of bone, muscle structure, and other features that show evolution of organisms
200
DNA Evidence
Biochemical evidence that shows amino acid similarities and differences
201
Evolution
Change over time
202
Vestigial Structure
A structure that once had a use but no longer has a use to the organism (hind limb in whale, appendix in humans)
203
Paleontology
the study of fossils
204
Speciation
A population splits and each group evolves separately, eventually becoming 2 separate groups
205
Embryology
Branch of science that studies fetal development
206
Phylogenetic Tree
Diagram modeling the relationships between organisms
207
Homologous Structures
Similar ins structure and evolved from a common ancestor (whale flipper and human arm)
208
A symbiotic relationship means
one or both parties benefit
209
Which of the following most likely would be a part of the first community on a newly formed volcanic island?
lichens
210
A farmer stips cultivating a large tract of farmland and abandons it. The natural changes taking place soon afterwards, such as the growth of wild grasses and weeds, can be considered
secondary succession because there is already soil present
211
By what process is CO2 removed from the atmosphere?
photosynthesis
212
If human civilization had never started burning fossil fuels, would there be a greenhouse effect?
Yes, the greenhouse effect is caused by naturally occurring gases
213
A population of foxes live in the woods. Their population is reaching the carrying capacity of the ecosystem. What type of limiting factor affects large populations?
density dependent
214
An ecosystem has a stable population of white tailed deer. What is the most likely outcome if a new species of deer that competed for the same resources were introduced?
the producer population would decrease
215
A small farming community in Texas covers 14 square kilometers. There are 420 individuals who live within the town limits. What is the population density of individuals in this community?
30
216
A species of Great Blue Heron feeds on small fish in a freshwater ecosystem. What would be the most direct result of a sudden decrease in the Great Blue Heron population
the fish population would increase
217
As industry continues to grow and new construction takes place, what will happen to the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere over time?
increase
218
Which of the following is most likely a climax community?
forest land that has just been cleared out
219
Man-of-war fish cluster around the venomous tentacles of jellyfish to escape larger predators. The presence of the man-of-war fish does not harm or benefit the jellyfish. This type of relationship is
commensalism
220
Commensalism
a relationship where one organism benefits but the other is not affected
221
Abiotic Factor
a non-living thing in the environment (wind, sunlight, water)
222
Carbon Cycle
the movement of carbon through the ecosystem
223
Mutualism
a relationship between organisms in which they both benefit from the relationship
224
Primary Succession
when rock is converted into sediment over a long period of time to create an ecosystem
225
Invasive Species
an organism that is not native to an ecosystem and does not have any native predators (usually bad for the ecosystem)
226
Density Independent Factor
factors that affect the population regardless of the population size (natural disaster, temperature change)
227
Biotic Factor
a living thing in the environment (tree, bird, bacteria)
228
Greenhouse Effect
a layer of gases surround the Earth that allows life t occur on Earth
229
Ecology
the study of relationships between organisms
230
Parasitism
a relationship in which one organism benefits (parasite) and the other is harmed (host)
231
Secondary Succession
when an ecosystem is destroyed by a natural disaster but the soil remains in tact
232
Density Dependent Factor
factors that affect large populations (crowding, competition, predation, disease)