Everything Flashcards
(135 cards)
1
Q
Who can serve an improvement notice for farm animal welfare concerns?
A
APHA
Local Authority
2
Q
What can people be fined up to for illegal actions under the AWA 2006?
A
£20000
3
Q
What are the potential consequences of not acting on a welfare improvement notice?
A
unlimited fines
6 months in prison
4
Q
What amount of iron must calves legally have in their blood?
A
4.5 mmol/litre
5
Q
What stocking density should chickens not exceed unless the premises is registered with local APHA?
A
<33kg/m2
6
Q
If lambs are <4 weeks old and are at a market, how long must they stay at the market for?
A
4 hours
7
Q
Why does the export of UK animals or POAO to the EU require veterinary certification?
A
because the UK is considered a third country
8
Q
Are HACCP principles required at the level of the farm?
A
No
9
Q
How long must farm medicine records be kept?
A
5 years
10
Q
What is the thermal comfort zone for broilers?
A
8-30 degrees
11
Q
what percentage of poultry deaths during transport is due to cold spots in the lorry?
A
70%
12
Q
How many seconds does it take for chickens to calm down after being shackled?
A
12 seconds
13
Q
What voltages induce cardiac arrest in chickens?
A
50-500Hz
14
Q
How long must rhythmic breathing in birds be suppressed for for it to be an effective stun?
A
8 seconds
15
Q
Which blood vessels are cut when killing poultry?
A
both carotid arteries
16
Q
What is the temperature used for scalding chicken carcasses?
A
51-65 degrees centigrade
17
Q
What temperature do chicken carcasses need to be chilled to after slaughter?
A
4 degrees
18
Q
Who is responsible for food traceability?
A
FBOs
19
Q
What four food treatments do not kill Trichinella spiralis?
A
curing
drying
smoking
fermenting
20
Q
What treatment of meat kills pig Trichinella species?
A
freezing
21
Q
Over what age should the heart of cattle be incised to check for Cysticercus bovis?
A
6 weeks
22
Q
What are three food borne zoonoses from the environment?
A
Bacillus spp
Clostridia spp
Listeria spp
23
Q
What temperature does food need to be cooked to to destroy Toxoplasma?
A
67 degrees C
24
Q
If someone gets injured at work who does the employer need to notify?
A
Health and Safety Executive
25
Under what scheme is it possible to claim disability benefits if a person acquires a listed disease?
industrial injuries scheme
26
Do Game Handling Establishments have to be approved?
yes
27
What do wild boar have to be tested for at GHEs?
trichinella
28
Are most emerging infectious disease events zoonotic?
yes
29
What is usutuvirus transmitted by?
mosquitoes
30
Is the usutuvirus zoonotic?
yes
31
What two animals does the RHDV virus affect?
rabbits
| hares
32
Is tularaemia present in the UK?
no
33
How is African Swine fever transmitted from wild boar to domestic pigs?
soft bodied ticks
34
Does African Swine fever survive in frozen meat products?
yes
35
Under what act are zoonotic diseases listed?
Animal Health Act 1981
36
Cattle over what age must be tested for BSE?
40 months
37
What can be used in abattoirs to prevent the establishment of campylobacter on the surface of chickens?
rapid surface chilling
38
Which government department is responsible for making policy and enforcing legislation about water?
DEFRA
39
Who audits waste water discharged by businesses?
Trade Effluent Inspectors
40
Who controls water which is discharged after waste water is treated?
Environmental Agency
41
How many cases of Legionella pneumophila are there in humans per year in the UK?
400-500
42
What is a disease outbreak caused by dam building?
schistosomiasis
43
What is a disease outbreak caused by an irrigation project in Sri Lanka?
Japanese encephalitis
44
Under what regulation is the sampling of animal derived food for microbiological testing required?
H1
45
What is the term for the measure of the bacteria in a sample that can survive on the surface of carcasses, can be harvested and grow in the presence of air?
Aerobic Colony Count
46
Whats the allowable number of Salmonella colonies allowed in a tested area of a carcass?
0
47
How many sites on animal carcasses need to be tested for microbiological testing in abattoirs?
4
48
How much lower is the acceptable threshold for microbiological testing for wet-dry swabbing compared with excision sampling?
20%
49
How many weeks of data must be charted for microbiological testing in abattoirs?
13 weeks
50
How long do microbiological testing results in abattoirs need to be kept for?
18 months
51
Does firearms or captive bolt stunning cause more post-stun kicking?
captive bolt
52
Can pithing be used on animals for human consumption?
no
53
What is the minimum current needed to stun pigs?
1.3 Amps
54
What is the only method which can be used to stick pigs?
thoracic method
55
What concentration does CO2 need to be to be used for controlled atmospheric stunning in pigs?
70%
56
What is a sign of successful unconsciousness in a pig after controlled atmospheric stunning?
paddling of feet
57
What is the legislation created by the UK to interpret Regulation (EC) 1099/2009?
Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing
58
Which article of (EC) 1099/2009 regulation lays down the requirements for fish?
article 3
59
A slaughter house which kills more than how many units requires an Animal Welfare Officer?
1000 units/year
60
Pigs over what age must have their carcass split?
5 weeks
61
Cattle over what age must have their carcass split?
8 months
62
What Article of Regulations (EC) 627/2019 states when fresh meat is not fit for human consumption?
Article 45
63
What are 8 specific hazards laid down by (EC) 627/2019?
```
TSE
Cysticercosis
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Tuberculosis
Brucellosis
Trichinosis
Glanders
```
64
Which two people are responsible for PMI of non-poultry?
MHI
| OVs
65
Who is responsible for AMI of non-poultry?
OVs
66
What organ in sheep must be routinely incised at PMI?
liver
67
What two parts of young animals should be inspected at PMI?
joints
| umbilical region
68
Do small scale poultry slaughterhouses processing under 10000 birds/year need to be registered or approved?
registered
69
What is the usual outcome of poultry carcasses where pericarditis is seen?
rejection of the carcass
70
Who is responsible for placing ID marks on poultry?
FBOs
71
Do OVs check all the poultry carcasses which have been rejected or only a sample?
only a sample
72
What pH does meat drop from and too in 24 hours?
7 to 5.5
73
Do stressed animals undergo rigor mortis quickly or slowly?
quickly
74
Can poultry be called fresh having been frozen?
no
75
What temperature does raw red meat have to be stored at?
<7 degrees C (or equal to)
76
What temperature does offal have to be stored at?
<3 degrees C (or equal to)
77
How many bacteria are needed to produce malodour on meat?
10^7 cfu/g
78
How many bacteria are needed to produce slime on meat?
10^8 cfu/g
79
Does stressing animals increase or decrease the amount of lactic acid produced?
decrease (meaning the pH is higher)
80
What are 3 ways of preserving meat with antimicrobials?
adding nisin
adding nitrates/nitries
smoking
81
Does AHDB have much to do with poultry?
no
82
What does the EUROP scale measure about a sheep carcass?
how rounded it is
83
What is the acceptable level of skatole in pigs?
0.2ug/g
84
Is it a requirement to test for boar taint?
No
85
What is the term for dropping the pH of meat below 6 when the temperature is above 35 degrees C?
hot shortening
86
What is the term for the pH being about 6 when the temperature of the meat is below 12 degrees C?
cold shortening
87
What is the threshold for raw milk plate count?
<100,000 per ml
88
What is the threshold for Somatic Cell Count for raw milk?
<400,000 per ml
89
What temperature should milk be stored at?
<6 degrees C
90
Who does the Official Controls for cheese production?
local authorities
91
What does the thermisation process involve?
heating between 57-68 degrees C for 15 seconds
92
Is milk heated when producing soft cheese?
not often
93
When temperature should yogurt be stored at?
<5 degrees C
94
From what species did the SARS virus pandemic in the early 2000 originate?
palm civets
95
How many cases of Hepatitis E are seen in the UK per year?
800-1200
96
What species of animal is the reservoir host for small pox?
squirrels
97
What animals caused the outbreak of smallpox in America in 2003?
Gambian giant rats
98
What is the usual incubation period for rabies in humans?
20-60 days
99
What do horses with rabies usually present with?
choke
100
What route of infection of Salmonella is more common in stressed chickens?
airborne
101
What pH does an egg become in the first 24 hours of laying?
pH 9
102
What is the vaccination against Salmonella?
Salenvac
103
What order requires Salmonella monitoring in breeding and parent poultry flocks?
Poultry Order 2007
104
If eggs are positive for Salmonella what grade do they become?
Grade B
105
What does the pasteurisation of eggs involve?
heating to 64.4 degrees C for 2.5 minutes
106
If an egg is cracked but the membrane is intake what grade are they?
Grade C
107
Who enforces legislation around the production of eggs?
Egg Marketing Inspectors
108
Who do Egg Marketing Inspectors work for?
APHA
109
What is most gelatine made from?
pig skin
110
How long can sausage casings be stored for?
4 years
111
Do OVs have to certify sausage casings?
yes
112
What leaves are poisonous to sheep?
pieris leaves
113
What group deals with a disease outbreak investigation?
Incident Management Team
114
Infection which what strain of Avian Influenza requires the strict approach to human cases?
H5N8
115
Do vets acting as Authorised Enforcement Officers act under UK or EU law?
UK
116
What is the primary way of controlling scombrotoxin poisoning?
rapid cooling
117
What are 4 diseases humans can get due to bacteria in fish?
Scobrotoxin poisoning
listeriosis
Botulism
Streptococcus agalactia
118
What type of clostridia is associated with fish?
Type E Clostridia Botulinum
119
What are the two main viruses in bivalves which cause disease in humans?
hepatitis A
| norovirus
120
Are there regulatory standards for virus levels in bivalves?
no
121
What EU directive controls sewage pollution?
Water Framework Directive (EC) 60/2000
122
How long are bivalves in the purification tank for usually?
48 hrs
123
What temperature of water favours the growth of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in sea food?
15 degrees C
124
What can be done to decrease the risk of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in sea food?
increasing refrigeration time
125
What does Vibrio vulnificus cause in humans?
primary septicaemia
126
What are three ways of reducing Vibrio vulnificus in sea food?
pasteurisation
ultra-high pressure
freezing
127
Veterinary medicines under what schedule do not need a marketing authorisation?
Schedule 6
128
What is the minimum withdrawal period of veterinary medicines in chicken eggs and milk?
7 days
129
What is the minimum withdrawal period of veterinary medicines in meat?
28 days
130
How long is the prescription for controlled drugs in schedule 1-4 valid for?
28 days
131
For which controlled drugs schedules are repeat prescriptions permitted?
4 and 5
132
What causes American foulbrood in bees?
Paenibacillus larvae
133
What causes European foulbrood in bees?
Melissococcus plutonius
134
For how long does honey need to be stored after bee colonies have been treated for European foulbrood with antibiotics?
6 months
135
Does honey need health certificates?
yes
