everything Flashcards
(254 cards)
1
Q
define hyperplasia
A
increase in cell numbers
2
Q
define metaplasia
A
transformation of a cell
3
Q
what is the aim of the vascular part of inflammation?
A
increase blood flow to the region of damage via vasodilation
4
Q
how does the vascular reaction occur?
A
liquid moves into the surrounding tissue as artery blood vessel walls become leakier
chemical mediators cause endothelial layers to contract causing holes in the wall
5
Q
what is the aim of the chemical reaction of inflammation?
A
get the white blood cells to the damaged soft tissue
6
Q
how does the chemical reaction of inflammation occur?
A
margination, adhesions, rolling then transendothelial migration
7
Q
what are the 3 cells present in the chemical reaction of inflammation?
A
WBC/ platelets/ erythrocytes
8
Q
what are the two types of inflammation?
A
acute and chronic
9
Q
what are the predominate cells present in the acute response?
A
neutrophils
10
Q
what are the aims of the acute response of inflammation?
A
complete resolution sometimes cannot be achieved which results in fibrosis §
11
Q
what are the 2 predominate cells in the chronic stage of inflammation?
A
lymphocytes/ macrophages
12
Q
when will the chronic stage of inflammation occur?
A
exposure to persistent infection/ autoimmune (constant) reaction
13
Q
where does full regeneration occur during healing?
A
cells with high proliferative capacities
14
Q
when does healing by fibrosis occur?
A
when there has been damage to the underlying structure (stoma/parenchyma) because the building blocks are no longer there
15
Q
what 2 components are deposited during healing by fibrosis?
A
collagen, ECM components
16
Q
what are the 5 stages of healing?
A
inflammation angiogenesis/ neovascularisation migration/proliferation of parenchyma cells scar formation (unsuccessful response) connective tissue remodelling
17
Q
one complication of healing is deficient scar formation, what does this mean?
A
wound splits open
18
Q
explain what excessive granulation tissue means within healing?
A
microscopic blood vessels form on the surface of the wound
19
Q
explain a complication of healing that results in a hypertrophic scar?
A
excessive collagen formation
20
Q
define the innate immune response
A
non specific mechanism against bacteria/virus
21
Q
explain how skin provides an innate immune response?
A
keratin provides a physical barrier
cells continuously sloughed off
sweat contains antimicrobial materials
22
Q
name 3 non specific innate immune responses?
A
macrophages release protein signals (interleukin 1/6)
fever/heat
pain/swelling/redness
23
Q
explain what the adaptive immune response is?
A
relies on antigens
24
Q
what is the role of lymphocytes within the adaptive immune response?
A
produced in the bones marrow, rest in the lymphatic tissue, rapidly carried around the blood and produce b and t cells
25
where do t cells mature?
thymus
26
where do b cells mature?
bone marrow
27
what is the role of t cells in relation to the histocompatibility complex?
only recognise antigen presented by major histocompatibility complexes, they cannot be activated by the pathogen
28
how do t cells recognise an invader?
macrophage takes a antigen to a t helper cell for identification if foreign an immune response is launched
29
what is the immune response?
helper T cells (CD4)--> cytokines --> stimulate B cell division
30
what are opsonisation?
particles targeted for destruction by the phagocyte
31
what is the process of agglunation?
antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody
32
name 2 examples of immunodeficiency?
bone marrow dysfunction/ HIV
33
what are 6 causes of secondary immunodeficiency?
malnutrition/ burns/ uraemia/ diabetes mellitus/ alcohol/ recreational drugs
34
name 5 general examples of hyperactive immune system?
anaphylaxis, asthma, rhinitis, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, auto-immunity
35
name 5 examples of specific diseases where the person has an hyperactive immune system?
diabetes m, coeliac, MS, hashimotos thyroiditis, rheumatoid arthritis
36
what is an attenuated vaccination?
live weakened pathogen MMP
37
what is an inactivated vaccination?
part of the pathogen given hep B
38
what is a toxoid vaccination?
harmless version of the pathogens toxin- diphtheria
39
what is a conjugated vaccination?
antigen linked to protein carrier
40
how is plaque formed in a atheroma?
circulating platelets activated by ligands, depositing chemokine on the endothelial cells causing damage
chemokine bind to receptors on circulating macrophages
monocyte fies to the surface of the vessel
circulating LDL's enter the damaged wall and macrophages ingest them
41
what do the following symptoms show: chest pain radiating to the arm/jaw, SOB, palpitations, syncope, nausea
angina
42
what does NSTEMI stand for and what is it?
non ST segment elevation MI, partially blocked coronary arteries
43
what does STEMIs stand for and what is it?
ST segment elevation MI, complete blockage
44
what is the treatment of angina?
nitrovasodilators/ beta blockers
45
what is the treatment for a MI?
oxygen/pain relief
46
what does PICA stand for in the treatment of MI?
percutaneous transcuminal coronary angioplasty
| the use of a balloon to open up the artery
47
what does CABG stand for and what is it, within the treatment of MI?
coronary artery bypass grafting (new artery)
48
what does INR stand for?
international normalised ratio
49
what does INR do?
measure coagulation, higher the number the longer the blood takes to clot
50
where are the 3 reasons for high INR?
warfarin replacement therapy, vit K deficient, liver disease
51
what is the definition of thrombus?
inappropriate blood clotting meaning the formation of a solid mass
52
what is an embolism?
initial clot breaks off and travels to a different point
53
what are the 4 locations where a thrombus may form?
heart, arteries, capillaries, veins
54
what is rheumatic endocarditis?
inflammatory condition of the heart and valves, occurs after MI where scar tissue forms which is not as mobile= blood pooling
55
what conditions comes from blood pooling?
atrial fibrillation
56
what is an aneurysm?
heart muscle dies and becomes thinner, cant handle the pressure= dilation
57
what are the causes of abnormalities of clotting?
pregnancy, contraceptive pill, following trauma, damage to the liver, tumours, thickening of the blood (thrombocythaemia)
58
what is shock?
a medical emergency, decreased blood flow and increased waste products in the body
59
what are the 3 stages of shock?
compensated, non compensated, irreversible
60
explain the compensated part of shock?
non progressive, blood volume loss 15-25%
61
explain the non-compensated part of shock?
progressive, blood loss over 25%, need CPR/ blood transfusion
62
explain the irreversible part of shock?
failure to restore circulation, critical organ damage
63
what is hypovolaemic shock?
internal/external haemorrhage (burns)
64
what is cardiogenic shock?
large acute MI (cardiovascular disease)
65
what is septic shock?
systemic infection, endotoxins from gram negative/positive
66
what is neurogenic shock>?
trauma to spinal cord making the body believe that something major has occured
67
what is obstructive shock?
obstruction of a major organ
68
what is chronic gastritis?
ongoing inflammation of the stomach mucosa, provides an environment where dysplasia can occur
69
what do the following symptoms show? upper abdo pain, bloating, N+V, belching, loss of apetite
chronic gastritis
70
what are the 6 main causes of chronic gastritis?
h pylori, alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, autoimmune
71
what type of organism is h.pylori?
gram negative
72
how is h.pylori spread?
faecal-oral route
73
what are the 3 effects of h.pylori?
chypochlorhydria (production of hydrochloric acid are low), gastric atrophy, intenstinal metaplasia
74
where is a peptic ulcer normally located?
antrum, duodenum
75
what do the following symptoms show? pain worse at night and after meals
peptic ulcer
76
what are the complications of peptic ulcers?
bleeding anaemia, huge haematamesis, perforation leading to peritonitis
77
what is barretts oesophagus?
stratified squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium
78
what do the following symptoms show?dysphagia, weight loss, haemorrhage, sepsis, respiratory fistula with aspiration, more common in female
squamous cell carcinoma
79
what do the following symptoms show? history of barretts oesophagus, more common in males, dysphagia, weight loss, haetamesis, chest pain, vomitting
adenocarcinoma
80
name 4 syndromes that could lead to causing cancer?
pernicious anaemia, intestinal metaplasia, neoplastic poly, helicobacter gastritis
81
what is pernicious anaemia?
deficiency in the production of RBC's via lack of vit B12
82
define the transcloemic spread of cancer?
spreads across peritoneal cavity
83
define the omentum spread of cancer?
spreads across the fold of peritoneum connecting stomach with organs
84
define the mesentery spread of cancer?
spreads across fold of peritoneum which attaches stomach/ small I, pancreas, spleen to the wall of the abdo
85
what is coeliacs disease?
allergic disease to gluten
86
what do the following symptoms show pain/discomfort, chronic constipation, diarhoea, growth stunt in children, anaemia, fatigue
coeliac disease
87
what are 3 risk factors of small bowel cancer?
chrons, coeliac, radiation
88
what do the following symptoms show? N+V, reduced appetite, tenderness, guarding, high white cell count...
appendicitis
89
how does c/diff arise?
abx change balance of bacteria in the gut
90
what do the following symptoms show? diarrhoea, pain, fever
c.diff
91
what are the complications of c.diff?
diarrhoea, dehydration, toxic mega colon, bowel perforation, sepsis/death
92
what are the steps in managing c.diff?
stop causative antibiotics (clindamycin, ciprofloxacin), start new abx (vancomycin, metronidazole)
93
what are the signs of crohns?
spreads unevenly, at all layers leading to thickened walls and granulomma fissures (cracks)
94
What do the following symptoms show?abdo pain, weight loss, N+V
crohns disease
95
what are the 4 complications of crohns disease?
anaemia, malabsorption, bowel obstruction, perforation
96
what are the factors associated with ulcerative colitis?
affects rectum and colon, spreads continously, only ulceration of the 1st layer
97
what do the following symptoms show? diarhoea with blood and mucus...
ulcerative colitis
98
what are the complications of ulcerative colitis?
blood loss, electrolyte disturbances, toxic dilation of the bowel
99
what is the national bowel screening programme?
targets people 60-75, faecal occult blood test
100
what do the following symptoms show?blood per rectum, change in bowel habits, iron deficiency, anaemia, weight loss, abdo pain, lump in back passage
bowel cancer
101
what type of cancer ends in -oma?
benign epithelial tumor
102
what type of cancer ends in -soma?
malignant epithelial tumor
103
name a few examples of premalignant conditions?
cirrhosis of the liver, chronic ulcerative colitis, xeroderma pigmentosum, familial polyp coli
104
what do the following symptoms show? crackles, peripheral oedema, ascites (fluid in abdo), pulmonary effusion (fluid outside the lungs)
heart failure
105
in terms of valvular disease what is stenosis?
narrowed valve
106
in terms of valvular disease, what is regurgitation?
leaky valve, allows blood flow in both directions
107
in terms of valvular disease, what is vegetations?
clot/infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever (blockage of some sort)
108
what do the following symptoms show? syncope, arrthymias, cardiac murmur, angina
valvular heart disease
109
what type of bacteria causes infective endocarditis?
L sided (strep) R side (staph)
110
what is cardiomyopathy?
dilation of heart chambers
111
what are 3 causes of cardiomyopathy?
alcohol, pregnancy, myocarditis
112
what do the following symptoms show? SOB, chest pain, palpitations, syncope, sudden death
cardiomyopathy
113
what causes primary hypertension?
diet, obesity, alcohol
114
what causes secondary hypertension?
problems with kidney, renal artery stenosis, renal parenchymal disease
115
what is a aneurysm?
abnormal dilation of the blood vessels
116
what do the following symptoms show, chest pain, breathlessness, calf swelling, syncope, sudden death?
pulmonary embolism
117
what is eisenmengers disease and where is it seen?
congenital heart disease, septic defect, deoxygenated blood travels around the body
118
what gender is lung cancer more prominent in?
male
119
what do the following symptoms show? cough, weight loss, chest pain, dyspnoea
lung carcinoma
120
what cancer presents as tightly packed ovioids, with little cytoplasms and no nuclei?
small cell carcinoma
121
what type of cancer causes keratin formation due to damage to cillia?
squamous cell carcinoma
122
where does adenocarcinoma occur in the lungs?
lobes of the lung, associated with TB
123
what are pleural tumors?
tumors of the connective tissue sac that covers and attaches lungs to the chest wall
124
what cancer presents 30 years on average after asbestos exposure?
malignant mesothelioma
125
what do the following symptoms show? chest pain, dysponea, pleural effusion
malignant mesothelial of the lungs
126
what do the following signs show: inflammation of the lung parenchyma, consolidated air spaces, exudate?
pneumonia
127
what are the symptoms of pneumonia?
fever, SOB, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum
128
what is emphysema?
enlargement of the air spaces, as the walls are broken down by antitrypsin
129
what do the following symptoms show? cough, wheeze, weight loss, pneumothorax
emphysema
130
what is chronic bronchitis?
persistent cough and sputum, due to irritation by chemicals
131
what is bronchiectasis?
severe infection/ permenant obstruction within the lungs
132
name 2 conditions that can cause the patient to have bronchiectasis?
cystic fibrosis, cartageners (ciliated cells dont function to clear mucous)
133
what do the following symptoms show, tachycardia, end inspiratory crackles, cyanosis, wheezing?
restrictive lung disease
134
what are the 4 main causes of pulmonary embolism?
sepsis, hormone replacement therapy, recent surgery, blockage of pulmonary artery
135
what are the symptoms of a minor PE?
acute pain, SOB, coughing up blood
136
what are the symptoms of a major PE?
cardiac arrest/ collapse/ death
137
what do the following symptoms show? increase venous pressure, SOB, pink frothy sputum, fluid at the bottom of the lungs...
pulmonary oedema
138
name two examples of miscellanous?
pneumothorax, atelectasis
139
what is a pneumothorax?
air in the pleural cavity so lung cannot expand as well
140
what is atelectasis?
incomplete expansion of the lungs, predisposes infection
141
when can atelectasis occur?
after surgery with general anaesthetic
142
what do the islets of langerhams do?
hormone secreting cells, insulin/glucagon
143
what are the actions of insulin?
uptake of amino acids/glucose, increase glycogen, promotes storage of fats (estirification)
144
what are the symptoms of diabetes?
polyuria, polydipsia, hunger, weight loss
145
what is gestational diabetes?
hormonal changes during pregnany causes the mother to get diabetes
146
what are the dangers associated with gestational diabetes to the mother?
risk of type 2 diabetes in later life, hypertension, pre eclampsia, oedema/albumin in urine, obstructed labour
147
what are the dangers associated with gestational diabetes to the child?
obesity, macrosomma, neonatal hypoglycaemia, neonatal jaundice, respiratory distress syndrome
148
what are the risk factors to mothers getting gestational diabetes?
maternal age, family history, african-north american nature, previous baby over 4kg, smoking
149
what can cause secondary diabetes mellitus?
chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, pancreatic surgery, haemachromatitis (high levels of haemoglobin), endocrine disease (cushings disease)
150
what are the biochemical diagnosis of diabetes?
fasting plasma glucose over 7.ommol, 2 hours after a 75g oral glucose load (11.1mmol), random glucose level over 11.1
151
what is diabetic retinopathy?
proliferation of blood vessels in the retina causing fluid exudation
152
what is diabetic neuropathy?
microangiopathy of vasa nervosum, causes peripheral numbness, tingling and pain
153
what hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?
oxytocin, ADH
154
what does the anterior pituitary gland produce?
TSH, ACH, FSH, LH, prolactin
155
what syndrommes come from a lack of ACTH?
cushings
156
what syndromes come from a disturbance in the levels of growth hormone?
quantism, acromegaly
157
what syndromes come from a disturbance in prolactin?
sexual dysfunction, infertility, galactorhoea (inappropriate production of milk), absence of menstruation
158
what causes hypopituitarism?
ischaemic necrosis of the pituitary (sheenans syndrome), non functioning adenomas, surgery, inflammatory regions
159
what causes hyperthyroidism?
graves, quevains thyroiditis, toxic multinodular goitre
160
what do the following symptoms show?rapid weight loss, intolerance to heat, bulging eyes, goitre, tacchycardia, finger clubbing, tremor
hyperthyroidism
161
what causes hypothyroidism?
iodine deficient, hashimotots thyroiditis, pituitary gland defect
162
what do the following symptoms show? hair loss, lethargic, constipation, muscle weakness, intolerance to cold, receeding hairlines, thick tongue
hypothyroidism
163
what is the most common thyroid cancer?
papilary carcinoma
164
what do the following symptoms show? muscle irratability, intermittent muscle spasms, lethargy, seizures
hypoparathyroidism
165
what do the following symptoms show? constipation, seizures, muscle wasting, polyuria, bone fractures, kidney stones
hyperparathyroidism
166
what are the 3 functions of the glucocorticoid cortisol?
regulates blood sugar, inhibits inflammation, stress response
167
what sequence controls the production of cortisol?
circadien rythme
168
what do the following symptoms show? emotional disturbances, moon face, osteoporosis, cardiac hypertrophy, buffalo hump, obesity, thin skin and increased abdo fat
cushings syndrome
169
what do the following symptoms show, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, hyper pigmentation, low sodium
addisons disease
170
what do the following symptoms show... fever, vomitting, loin pain and tenderness
pyelonephritis
171
what do the following symptoms show, flu like symptoms, swollen tender prostrate
prostatitis
172
what do the following signs indicate, low urine volume and rising plasma urea/creatine?
acute renal failure
173
what is glomerulonephritis?
leakage of protein/ urea into the blood
174
what are stones and what age do they occur most in?
20-40, crystal aggregates
175
what are the risk factors for kidney stones?
dehydration, loop diuretics, antacids, corticosteroids, theophylline, aspirin, recurrent UTI's
176
what age does renal cancer occur most freq in?
50-70 years
177
what do the following symptoms show?haematuria, loin pain, abdo pain, abdo mass
renal cancer
178
what changes occur in the prostrate during benign prostatic hyperplasia?
goes from 20gsm to 60-100 gsm
179
what do the following symptoms show? increased freq urine, nocturia, terminal dribbling, enlarged prostrate
benign prostatic hyperplasia
180
what do the following symptoms show, nocturia, hesitancy, poor stream, terminal dribbling, hard irregular prostrate?
prostrate cancer
181
what is the main sign of prostrate Ca?
raised prostrate specific antigen
182
what is the treatment for testicular torsions?
bilateral surgery, orchidopex
183
what age range does testicular cancer most freq occur in?
15-44 years old
184
what is the fibroocystic disease of the breast?
lumpiness of the breast, least to pain and tenderness
185
what age groups do mamographys occur in?
50-70 years old
186
what do the following symptoms show, red/tendr/warm breasts
mastitis
187
what benign tumours can be found in the breast?
fibroadenoma, papilloma
188
what malignant tumours can be found in the breast?
ductal carcinoma, lobular carcinoma, padgets disease
189
what is the name of the cancer where it presents as mobile lumps in the breast?
fibroadenoma
190
how does breast cancer present?
lump, skin dimpling, change in colour and texture of the nipple, nipple discharge
191
what is padgets disease of the nipple?
eczema type rash with itching, bleeding, shows signs of an underlying cancer
192
what is HPV?
virus transmitted by sex
193
what are low risk examples of HIV?
warts/ veruccas
194
what are high risk examples of HIV?
cervical ca
195
abnormal discharge and bleeding in women is signs of...
cervical cancer
196
what are endocervical polyps made up of?
benign stromal cells and glandular epithelium
197
what is menorrhagia?
heavy menstrual periods (80ml+), lasting more than 7 days
198
what can be the causes of menorrhagia?
fibroids, endometriosis, polyp, dysfunctional uterine bleeding
199
what is the treatment for menorrhagia?
mirena coil, metanamic acid/ traneaximic acid, cocp, endometrial ablation
200
where do fibroids arise from?
myometrium (uterine muscular walls)
201
pelvic pain and heavy periods is signs of...
fibroids
202
abnormal bleeding, pelvic pain and painful sex are symptoms of...
endometritis
203
what is endometriosis
endometrial tissue in the wrong location
204
heavy/painful periods, pelvic pain, painful sex are all examples of
endometriosis
205
what does post menopausal bleeding suggest?
endometrial cancer
206
what are cystadenomas?
large fluid filled cysts
207
irregular periods, no periods and infertility could all be associated with...
polycystic ovarian syndrome
208
what is the treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome?
cocp, metformin, clomifene
209
what is the function of the skin in relation to a vitamin?
vit D synthesis allowing the body to absorb calcium from the gut which mineralises bone
210
what is the function of the epidermis
blocks uv radiation
211
what is the cellular function of the basal layer?
tall nuclei, keratinocytes (not yet matured),
212
what is the spinosum?
cell to cell protein bridges
213
what occurs in the corneum?
melin is produced that protects from uv
214
what is a macule?
flat patch of area of altered color
215
what is a patch
flat area of altered colour/texture
216
what is a papule?
lesion under 0.5 cm
217
what is a nodule?
lesion over 0.5 cm
218
what is a vesicle?
raised clear fluid filled lesion under 0.5 cm
219
what is a bulla?
raised clear fluid filled lesion over 0.5cm
220
where does fibroepithelial polyps occur?
sights of friction
221
what is a naevi?
proliferation of benign melanocytes
222
what is seborrheic keratosis?
occurs at head/trunk/neck, brown stuck on appearance
223
what is a haemogioma?
vascular tumour of the dermis, red/bluey surface, made up of RBC and epidermis
224
what are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?
slow growing, occurs at sun exposed sites, only invades locally, rolled edges, dilated blood vessels
225
what is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma?
bowens disease
226
what are 2 features of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?
large nuclei, keratinised pearls
227
what is a melanoma and where does it occur?
sun damaged skin, aggressive and spreads rapidly, proliferaiton of melanocytes
228
what are the features of melanoma
```
A- asymetry
B- border is irregular
C- colour varies
D- diameter is over 6mm
E- evolution (changes rapidly)
```
229
what does a melanoma look like under the microscope?
white gaps dye to a collection of non supportive melanocytes, melanocytes all have white gaps around them
230
what is psoriasis?
increased skin turnover, elbows/ knees/scalp/ penis
231
how does psoriasis show?
salmon pink plaques with skin scaling and raised ares
232
how does scabies present/
affects in between fingers and spreads down the hands, blistering and redness, grey areas are burrows
233
what do the following symptoms show? headache, stiff neck, dislike of bright lights, cold hands/feet, deteriorate rapidly, rash that turns into purple bruising ..
meningitis
234
what population is at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis?
women (due to decreased oestrogen)
235
what is the treatment of osteoporosis?
aledronic acid/ bisphophates
236
what is gout?
produced by the breakdown of purine bases by xathine oxidase, urate deposited as crystals
237
what is a sign of gout?
raised uric acid
238
what do the following symptoms show? sudden onset excrutiating pain in joint, redness, warmth, tenderness, stiffness, 1st attack on big toe
gout
239
what is pseudogout?
calcium pyrophosphate crystals in connective tissue, crystal shedding in joint and cartilage ruptures
240
what is a primary bone cancer?
osteoidosteoma
241
what is a herniation?
where one part of the brain moves to a different section of the brain
242
what does the frontal lobe do?
logical thinking
243
what does the parietal lobe do?
movement
244
what does the occipital lobe do?
vision
245
what does the temporal lobe do?
language
246
what does the cerebellum do?
balance
247
what does the brain stem do?
resp/cv function
248
what does the broccas area of the brain do?
frontal lobe and for speech production
249
what does the wernickes area of the brain do?
temporal lobe, speech comprehension of written/spoken language
250
what are the symptoms of a intracerebral haemorrhage?
headache, rapid decrease in conscious levels, few survive
251
what are the signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
sponteanous/catastrophic, meningitis symtoms, thunderclap headache
252
what are the signs of a subdural headache?
fluctuating conscious levels
253
what are the signs of a extradural haemorrhage?
post head injury, slowly falling conscious levels
254
what is parkinsons caused by?
accumulation of AB amyloid, tau-neurofibrillarly tangles
