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LG 2024 > everything idk > Flashcards

everything idk Flashcards

1
Q

s’clav lymph nodes treated at what depth

A

3 cm

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2
Q

temporary epilation begins at what dose

A

2000 cGy

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3
Q

most common dose limiting toxicity for chemo drugs

A

myelosuppression

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4
Q

100-1000 cGy causes symptoms for which syndrome

A

hematopoietic

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5
Q

shock caused by sepsis, deep anesthesia, or administration of contrast is

A

vasogenic

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6
Q

1000-5000 cGy would result in what syndrome

A

GI

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7
Q

what cells are most radiosensitive

A

basal

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8
Q

areas where the dose equivalent exposure is 0.1 rem/week are classified as

A

uncontrolled areas

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9
Q

symptoms of unilateral hearing loss and an enlarged cervical lymph node have what diagnosis

A

nasopharyngeal

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10
Q

quality factor for xrays

A

1

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11
Q

once a woman is pregnant, she has limited radiation exposure to the embryo or fetus to

A

0.5 rem

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12
Q

what is the most radiosensitive stage of gestation

A

preimplantation

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13
Q

is radiolucent dark or bright on radiographs

A

dark

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14
Q

IMRT xray output consistency should be checked on a(n) _____ basis

A

daily

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15
Q

does NRC or NCRP regulate use of radioactive materials to ensure adequate protection of public health and safety

A

NRC

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16
Q

temporary azoospermia vs permanent azoospermia

A

temporary: <500 cGy
permanent: >500 cGy

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16
Q

does NRC or NCRP establish suggested dose limits for safe practices in the US

A

NCRP

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17
Q

most common type of bladder cancer

A

transitional cell

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18
Q

PCI is used for what primary diagnosis

A

small cell carcinoma

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19
Q

at what does will the spinal cord suffer myelopathy

A

4500 cGy +

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20
Q

wilm’s tumor originates in the

A

kidneys

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21
Q

neuroblastoma originates in the

A

sympathetic nervous system

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22
Q

billing for tangent breast

A

complex

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23
Q

in the H/N, what has the least nodal involvement

A

glottis

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24
Q

at what dose does neutron contamination occur

A

10 MV

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25
Q

what is the main site of breast lymph drainage

A

axillary

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26
Q

what is the chemo for non hodgkins

A

CHOP

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27
Q

what chemical prevents arcing in the waveguide

A

sulfur hexafluoride

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28
Q

difference between level 1 and level 2 axillary lymph nodes

A

level 1: under inf portion and lateral to pectoralis minor
level 2: under pectoralis muscle

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29
Q

base of tongue first spreads to what lymph node

A

jugulodigastric

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30
Q

what are MLC leaves made of

A

tungsten

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31
Q

what is the process posterior to the earlobe that can be used to mark the inf border of the whole brain field

A

mastoid

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32
Q

the prostate can be located by what body part

A

neck of femur

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33
Q

where is the most common site for heterotopic bone formation

A

acetabulum

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34
Q

what is the junction between the manubrium and the body of the sternum called

A

sternal angle

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35
Q

what vertebral body is the SSN

A

T2

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36
Q

what vertebral body is tip X

A

T10

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37
Q

what vertebral level is the cricoid

A

C6

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38
Q

what vertebral level is the hyoid

A

C3

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39
Q

what dose does erythema occur at

A

2000-3000 cGy

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40
Q

what dose does faint erythema occur at

A

1000-2000 cGy

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41
Q

what dose does dry desquamation occur at

A

3000-4000 cGy

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42
Q

what dose does moist desquamation occur at

A

4000 cGy

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43
Q

what vertebral level is the angle of Louis (sternal angle)

A

T4

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44
Q

highly reactive species with an unpaired valence or outer shell electron

A

free radicle

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45
Q

radiation exposure during the gestational period of ______ days affects the nervous system

A

23 -37 days

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46
Q

interaction that is true absorption

A

photoelectric effect

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47
Q

primary lymphatic drainage of testicle

A

periaortic

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48
Q

what trimester in pregnancy can you get chemo

A

third

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49
Q

1 rem is ____ Sv

A

0.01

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50
Q

legal term that describes the actions of a therapist that would be used by another therapist in similar circumstances is

A

standard of care

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51
Q

myelopathy occurs at what dose for conventional fractionation

A

50 Gy

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52
Q

center number of a range of CT numbers displayed in an image

A

window level

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52
Q

indirect action of radiation is the result of the ionization of ________ surrounding the cell

A

water

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53
Q

effective dose equivalent limit for occupational exposure in a year in rem and mSv

A

5 rem/year
50 mSv/year

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54
Q

maximum exposure of radiation in a year in mrem and mSv for general public/population

A

1 mSv/year
100 mrem/year

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55
Q

what cancer is chemo concurrently administered with RT

A

lung

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56
Q

imaging size of CT scanner is most dependent on

A

SFOV

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57
Q

what angles the beam within the head of the gantry

A

bending magnet

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58
Q

cataracts occur at

A

total dose: 1000 cGy
single dose: 200 cGy

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59
Q

a cancerous tumor of the glandular tissue

A

adenocarcinoma

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60
Q

what 2 lymph node routes does ovarian cancer spread most often

A

para-aortic and pelvic

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61
Q

electron beam energy is reduced by _____ MeV per cm in unit density tissue

A

2 MeV per cm

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62
Q

with a 12 MeV beam at a depth of 2 cm, what is the electron energy reduced to

A

8 MeV

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63
Q

what converts light to an electrical signal

A

photodiode assembly

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64
Q

match: voxel and pixel to 3D and 2D

A

voxel: 3D
pixel: 2D

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65
Q

organ at greast risk when treating para aortics

A

kidney

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66
Q

what is used to drain the intrapleural space and mediastinum

A

thoracotomy tube

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67
Q

where does esophageal cancer distantly metastasize (5)

A

liver, lung, bone, adrenal glands, brain

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68
Q

what is TAR independent of

A

distance

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69
Q

contradictions to iodine based IV contrast (7)

A

pregnancy**
hypertension
poor kidney function
creatinine > 1.4 mg/dL **
old people
diabetes
multiple myeloma

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70
Q

is IMRT inverse or forward planning

A

inverse

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70
Q

field instrument used to detect x-radiation, gamma radiation, and beta radiation in real time

A

Geiger-Muller

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71
Q

codes used for billing professional and technical aspects of care are

A

current procedural terminology codes

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72
Q

what are common routes of distant mets for ALL (4)

A

liver
spleen
CNS
testicles

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73
Q

SI unit of absorbed dose

A

Grey

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74
Q

exterior assembly of a chest tube must always remain…

A

below patient’s chest

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75
Q

what are 3 dose limiting factors for cisplatin and carboplatin

A

myelosuppression
nephrotoxicity
vomiting

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76
Q

what vertebral body is adjacent to the base of the heart

A

T4

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77
Q

electron and photon output tolerances (daily and monthly)

A

monthly: 2%
daily: 3%

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78
Q

what is the primary element in cerrobend

A

bismuth

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79
Q

tolerance and frequency for gantry & collimator angles

A

monthly
1 degree

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80
Q

normal BUN level for an adult

A

7-20 mg/ul

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81
Q

the cricoid is the inferior border of the…

A

larynx

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82
Q

the ________ dose is the total dose that will significantly increase the probability of severe normal tissue reactions

A

tolerance

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83
Q

what determines exposure rates from patients with therapeutic doses of radioactive materials

A

cutie pie

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84
Q

surgical technique used in testicular cancer patients

A

radical orchiectomy

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85
Q

the sum of all weighted equivalent doses for all irradiated tissues or organs is defined as ______ dose.

A

effective

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86
Q

respiratory gating is used when tumor motion varies by

A

> 5 mm

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87
Q

what is kinesics

A

nonverbal communication including body movement and facial expressions

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88
Q

what is used to check light field and radiation field agreement (2)

A

solid water
ready pack film

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89
Q

total dose equivalent limit for an embryo/fetus

A

5 mSv

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90
Q

lymphatic drainage from kidney

A

para-aortic

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91
Q

what blood study will be analyzed if myelosuppression is an issue

A

WBC

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92
Q

the most radiosensitive cell during female germ development

A

oocyte

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93
Q

radioactive sources must be physically inspected every

A

6 months

94
Q

maximum FS in LINAC

A

40x40

95
Q

veracity

A

the duty to tell the truth and avoid deception

96
Q

inguinal nodes drain to the

A

vulva, uterus, ovaries, and vagina

97
Q

what dosimeter is not affected by heat, moisture or pressure

A

OSL

98
Q

what lymph nodes in the H/N are most likely to be affected by mets

A

cervical

99
Q

radiation dose to prostate post op

A

65-70 GY @ 200 cGy/fx

100
Q

in wilms tumor, why would the field extend to the other side

A

to allow for symmetrical growth in spine

101
Q

difference between assault and slander

A

Falsely stating that a patient has HIV is an example of - slander

102
Q

what travels further droplet particles or airborne particles

A

airborne

103
Q

PPE put on first

A

gown

104
Q

PPE put on last

A

gloves

105
Q

PPE taken off first

A

gloves

106
Q

PPE removed last

A

mask

107
Q

contrast used for GI

A

barium sulfate

108
Q

contrast used in MRI

A

gadolinium

109
Q

contrast used in CT for blood vessels

A

iodinated contrast

110
Q

the SI unit of dose equivalent

A

Sv

111
Q

most efficient way to increase protection from radiation

A

distance

112
Q

power source for the waveguide

A

modulator

113
Q

amplifies microwaves

A

klystron

114
Q

T/F: frequency and wavelength are
inversely proportional

A

true

115
Q

what has the highest quality factor

A

alpha particles

116
Q

OER in human cells

A

2.5-3

117
Q

point on dose response relationship graph that represents cells capability to repair

A

Dq

118
Q

point on a dose response relationship graph that shows the cells radiosensitivity

A

Do

119
Q

unit that expresses amount of radiation absorbed by a person

A

Sv

120
Q

radiation instrument used to check linac’s beam output daily

A

diode

121
Q

radiation instrument used to calibrate ion chambers in a linac

A

thimble chambers

122
Q

elements with z numbers higher than ____ are more radiosensitive

A

92

123
Q

what source uses a nylon ribbon with an afterloader

A

iridium

124
Q

what type of radiation dose is typically monitored using personnel dosimeters

A

equivalent dose

125
Q

which of the 4 R’s is the most unfavorable for malignant tumors

A

repopulation

126
Q

Which of the following pathology types of testicular cancers is the most radio resistant?

A

nonseminoma

127
Q

Which of the following leukemia types is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML

128
Q

Which of the following leukemia types is NOT treated with BMT?

A

CLL

129
Q

Which type of chemotherapy is a radioprotector?

A

amifostine

130
Q

Which is an effect observed by a doctor? sign or symptom

A

sign

131
Q

What is the normal range for white blood cells?

A

3,900-10,800/mm3

132
Q

What is the normal range for red blood cells?

A

3.90-5.40 million/mm3

133
Q

What is the normal range for hemoglobin?

A

12.0-16.0 g/dL

134
Q

What is the normal range for platelets?

A

150,000-425,000/mm3

135
Q

SRS typically treats tumors sizes smaller than:

A

3 cm

136
Q

When the planner chooses the direction, number, size and shape of the beam and then the computer calculates isodose lines, this is called:

A

forward planning

137
Q

When the planner chooses the tolerance dose and then the computer generates a plan based off of these parameters, this is called:

A

inverse planning

138
Q

____ contrast media would appear dark on a radiographic image.

A

negative

139
Q

___ contrast media would appear bright on a radiographic image.

A

positive

140
Q

Name the tumor volume that encompasses the palpable tumor:

A

GTV

141
Q

Name the tumor volume that encompasses a margin for breathing:

A

ITV

142
Q

Name the tumor volume that encompasses a margin around the palpable tumor to include microscopic disease

A

CTV

143
Q

Where is the physical field size defined?

A

50% isodose line

143
Q

What % of transmission is permitted through the collimating jaws?

A

0.5%

144
Q

Which electron isodose line is considered the useful range of electrons?

A

50%

145
Q

Which electron isodose line is considered the therapeutic range of electrons?

A

90%

146
Q

what is TAR independent of

A

SSD

147
Q

Dose compensators have been replaced by:

A

IMRT

148
Q

The SI unit Becquerel matches which conventional unit?

A

curie

149
Q

equations in rem and mSv to calculate cumulative exposure

A

1 rem x age
10 mSv x age

150
Q

interaction between a photon and nucleus

A

pair production

151
Q

flattening filters…

A

decrease beam intensity along the CA

152
Q

A ring badge worn by a physicist handling radioactive sources is a type of:

A

TLD

153
Q

What is the maximum dose permitted to the lens of the eye to someone who does NOT work in radiation oncology or radiology?

A

1.5 rem

154
Q

What is the maximum annual dose permitted to the hands of a physicist who handles radioactive materials?

A

500 mSv

155
Q

common sites for lung mets (6)

A

liver, brain, bones, bone marrow, adrenal glands, and/or kidneys.

156
Q

The ethical principle that follows the principle to do no harm is:

A

beneficience

157
Q

The Mayneord’s F factor is a correction for which of the following:

A

distance

158
Q

The most common location for distant metastasis of sarcomas is to:

A

lung

159
Q

To find the therapeutic range of electrons, divide the energy by:

A

4

160
Q

therapeutic ratio formula

A

normal tissue tolerance/lethal tumor dose

161
Q

how do you avoid beam overlap for 3 or 4 field breast treatments

A

half-beam block and monoisocentric technique

OR

dual isocenters and couch rotations

OR

half beam block and couch rotations

162
Q

The depth of dose equilibrium is most dependent on:

A

beam energy

163
Q

Which type of photon interaction is most likely to occur during kV imaging?

A

photoelectric effect

164
Q

Which side effect is MOST likely to occur after partial brain treatments of 6000 cGy?

A

epilation

165
Q

Which of the following lung cancer pathologies has a higher incidence of metastatic spread?

A

small cell

166
Q

After what dose to the head and neck should the treatment plan be altered to go “off cord”?

A

4500 cGy

167
Q

What is the material that is used for OSLs?

A

aluminum oxide

168
Q

Which type of radiation travels the furthers through matter?

A

xrays

169
Q

Which isodose curve is used to define the physical radiation field for a 15 MV beam?

A

50%

170
Q

The x-ray interaction in which the photon’s energy is completely absorbed is:

A

photoelectric

171
Q

is physician’s objective a sign or symptom

A

sign

172
Q

To preserve the skin sparing properties of the MV photon beams, the compensator must be placed at least ____ from the skin.

A

15-20 cm

173
Q

Backscatter has a direct relationship with:

A

field size

174
Q

The ratio of a dose at a given point within a phantom compared to the dose at the same point in free space is called:

A

TAR

175
Q

If a partial arc is utilized for a treatment & the tumor is located 8 cm below the skin surface, where should the beam be aimed?

A

distal to the tumor

176
Q

Lymph drainage from the skin of the scrotum is likely to:

A

inguinal and iliac nodes

177
Q

The useful range in tissue of a 10 MeV electron beam is:

A

5 cm

178
Q

A wedge with a transmission factor of 0.91 means that ______ is attenuated by the beam.

A

9%

179
Q

When calculating for shielding for the linear area control room, which is directly monitored by the radiation safety officer, it should be limited to an exposure of:

A

1 mSv/week

180
Q

5 cm of lead is equivalent to _____ of cerrobend

A

6 cm

181
Q

CT images are initially acquired in which plane?

A

axial

182
Q

The most common location for hematogenous spread of the pancreas is:

A

liver

183
Q

The photon interaction with an outer shell electron that does not affect the photon’s energy is:

A

coherent scattering

184
Q

The machine that operates at an energy range of 150-500 kV is known as:

A

ortho

185
Q

Which type of radiation penetrates the LEAST in human tissue?

A

alpha particles

186
Q

beta particles have a QF of

A

1

187
Q

what organ is not involved in the Whipple procedure

A

liver

188
Q

Aside from collimating jaws, scatter also occurs with:

A

flattening filter

189
Q

What is the dmax for a 9 MeV beam?

A

2.2 cm

190
Q

A photon strikes an object and scattered radiation occurs. This is due to:

A

compton effects

190
Q

The main purpose of a beam spoiler in a photon beam is to:

A

increase the build up region

191
Q

Stochastic effects are also called:

A

probabilistic effect

192
Q

The prescription for a patient’s radiation therapy treatment includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A

MUs

193
Q

vertebral level of pancreas

A

L1

194
Q

a medical event is when the total dose delivered is at least ___ different from the prescription

A

20%

195
Q

what cancer can spread via skip metastasis

A

esophagus

196
Q

Which of the following radiation measurements takes into account the quality factor?

A

Sv

197
Q

Tumors within the vagina are MOST likely to spread to which lymph nodes?

A

inguinal

198
Q

The energy range of a superficial therapy unit is:

A

50-150 kV

199
Q

3/3 esophagus

A

5500 cGy

200
Q

3/3 stomach

A

5000 cGy

201
Q

3/3 small intestine

A

4000 cGy

202
Q

3/3 colon

A

4500 cGy

203
Q

3/3 rectum

A

6000 cGy

204
Q

3/3 bladder

A

6500 cGy

205
Q

3/3 femoral head

A

5200 cGy

206
Q

3/3 TMJ

A

5200 cGy

207
Q

3/3 rib cage

A

5000 cGy

208
Q

3/3 spinal cord

A

4700 cGy

209
Q

cauda equine

A

6000 cGy

210
Q

brachial plexus

A

6000 cGy

211
Q

3/3 brain stem

A

5000 cGy

212
Q

3/3 optic nerve

A

5000 cGy

213
Q

3/3 optic chiasma

A

5000 cGy

214
Q

3/3 eye lens

A

1000 cGy

215
Q

3/3 eye retina

A

4500 cGy

216
Q

3/3 larynx necrosis

A

7000 cGy

217
Q

3/3 larynx edema

A

4500 cGy

218
Q

3/3 parotid

A

3200 cGy

219
Q

3/3 lung

A

1750 cGy

220
Q

3/3 heart

A

4000 cGy

221
Q

3/3 liver

A

3000 cGy

222
Q

3/3 skin

A

5500 cGy

223
Q

3/3 ear

A

3000 cGy

224
Q

dose at permanent epilation

A

4500 cGy

225
Q

dose at temporary and permanent mouth changes (stomatitis, xerostomia…)

A

temporary: 2000-3000 cGy
permanent: 4000-5000 cGy

226
Q

what dose does pharyngitis occur at

A

2000-3000 cGy

227
Q

what dose does laryngitis occur at

A

4000 cGy

228
Q

what dose does esophagitis occur at

A

2000-3000 cGy

229
Q

what dose does nausea/vomiting occur at

A

1000-2000 cGy

230
Q

what dose does diarrhea/colic occur at

A

2000-5000 cGy

231
Q

what dose does cystitis occur at

A

3000-4000 cGy

232
Q

what dose does temporary and permanent sterility of testes occur at

A

temporary: <500 cGy
permanent: >500 cGy

233
Q

what dose does bone and soft tissue necrosis occur at

A

6000 cGy

LG 2024 (4 decks)

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