Everything on Platelets and Granulocytes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MVP?

A

Mean platelet volume
Avg is 8-12 fL
An increase in MVP is assoc. with immature PLT’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the IPF?

A

A marker of thrombopoietic activity

Detects RNA in immature platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is platelet aggrogemetry?

A

Platelet Rich Plasma (PRP) is prepared and warmed to 37C. An agonist is added (ADP, epinephrine, collagen, ristocetin, or arachidonic acid) which should cause plt to aggregate and change the optical density.
This change is recorded in a graph and interpreted to identify the qualitative platelet disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the PFA-100?

A

Uses whole blood at a high shear rate
Blood is aspirated through a capillary with a membrane coated with an agonist.
Sensor detects the formation of a platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the clot retraction test?

A

Blood is added to a glass tube in at 37C water bath for 1-3 hrs. A normal clot should retract with in 30-60 min.
No retraction could indicate Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What antigens are on platelets?

A

ABO - Both intristic and adsorbed onto membrane
Lea , Leb, Ii, P, Pk
HLA Class I
Human Platelet Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a minor platelet incompatibility?

A

Donor plasma ABO incompatible with recipient red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a major platelet incompatibility?

A

Donor platelets are incompatible with recipients plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What HPA are found on glycoprotein IIIa

A

HPA-1a/b and HPA-4a/b
HPA-1a 98% of Caucasians (most common antibody)
HPA-1b 27% of Caucasions (2% are homozygous)
Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia Type I, a disorder of platelet function, lack glycoprotein IIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Phase I for testing for Platelet Specific Antigens and Antibodies?

A

Mixing patient serum with normal platelets and using platelet function-dependent endpoints such as

  • Platelet aggregation/inhibition of platelet aggregation
  • Inhibition of clot retraction
  • Inhibition of platelet migration
  • Complement fixation
  • Platelet Factor 3 release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Phase II for testing for Platelet Specific Antigens and Antibodies?

A

Phase II assays can be used to detect platelet antibodies as well as for crossmatching. The SPRCA assay (solid phase red cell adherence) is the most widely used of the Phase II assays. Chloroquine has been shown to disrupt the HLA Class I antigens found on the platelets. This makes it easier to determine if there are antibodies to platelet antigens or if there is just antibodies to Class I HLA antigens.
Can also use Flow cytometry or Radioimmunoassay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Phase III for testing for Platelet Specific Antigens and Antibodies?

A

detect platelet antigen by specific MoAbs
Monoclonal antibody immobilization of platelet antigens (MAIPA)
Antigen capture ELISA (ACE)
Modified antigen capture ELISA (MACE)
Immunobead assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Solid Phase platelet testing work?

A

Intact platelets are immobilized on round-bottom wells of microtiter plates and then sensitized with the antibody to be detected. After washing off the excess serum, red cells coated with an antibody specific for human immunoglobulins (indicator cells) are added. The tray is then spun and examined visually; if antibody is bound to the platelets, the indicator cells will be distributed evenly over the bottom of the well like a “carpet”; if no antibody is present, the indicator cells have nothing to “stick” to and a red cell pellet forms in the center of the well. A limitation of the SPRCA assay is that is unable to distinguish platelet specific antibodies from HLA or ABO antibodies. An example of a SPRCA assay that is commercially available for platelet crossmatching is Immucor Capture-P. Using whole platelets can detect antibodies that are missed by MACE because antigen is destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What criteria is used to determine if a patient is refractory to platelets?

A

CCI <7500 at 1 hour

CCI <5000 at 20 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are non-immune causes of platelet refractoriness?

A
Massive bleeding (consumption)
Fever
Sepsis
Splenomegaly (splenic sequestration)
DIC
Effects of drugs
TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are immune causes of platelet refractoriness?

A

HLA antibodies : most common cause!!
Platelet specific antibodies: anti-HPA-1a most frequently identified platelet specific antibody
ABO antibodies; some times overlooked as a cause!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are acquired disorders of platelets?

A

Heparin or asprin
Mechanical bypass - PLT’s are activated after contact with bypass machine
Uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are congenital disorders of platelets?

A

VonWillebrand disease (Not a platelet problem)
Bernard-Soulier
Glazmann’s thrombathenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is ITP?

A

ITP is a disorder of accelerated platelet destruction; this destruction is mediated by platelet autoantibodies, with removal of the platelets occurring in the spleen. Acute ITP is mainly seen in children with an abrupt onset of severe thrombocytopenia and bleeding, often after a viral infection. Chronic ITP is most often a disease of adults and affects twice as many females as males. Treatment consists of steroids, high dose IVIG, Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg), and splenectomy as a last result. Platelet transfusions not effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is NAIT?

A

NAIT stands for neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. Antibodies in maternal plasma (either platelet specific antibodies or HLA antibodies) cross the placenta and destroy the infant’s platelets. Immunization of the mother occurs as frequently in the first pregnancy as subsequent, so no way to predict NAIT. Mother is usually the platelet donor for the infant because she lacks the corresponding antigens. Must wash her platelets before infusing to infant to remove antibody in mother’s plasma. The most common cause of NAIT is anti-HPA-1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is TTP/HUS?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura/Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome are multisystem disorders in which platelet/fibrin thrombi occlude the microcirculation. They are characterized by varying degrees of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal dysfunction, neurologic abnormalities, and fever. Patients with fulminant TTP usually have platelet counts < 50,000 and LDH levels above 1000 IU/ml; peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes. Platelet transfusion not indicated. Treatment is therapeutic plasma exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier Syndrome?

A

Disorder of adhesion - For platelets to attach to collagen both von Willebrand factor (VWF) and GpIb/IX are required. VWF acts as a bridge. There is a lack of GPIb/IX in Bernard-Soulier Syndrome. Pts are giant, decreased, and not functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Glanzmann’s thromboashenia?

A

Aggregation requires fibrinogen and the GPIIb/IIIa complex. If either are absent plt will not aggregate.
Defective GPIIb/IIIa complex is Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia.
Rare autosomal recessive disease.
Plt lacks the site for fibrinogen to attach to. Plt aggregation is affected. May have the additional complication of endogenous platelets interfering with aggregation of normal transfused platelets, thus requiring more platelet transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is HIT type 1?

A

It is a non‐immunologic response to heparin treatment, mediated by a direct interaction between heparin and circulating platelets causing platelet clumping or sequestration. HIT type I affects up to 10% of patients, usually occurs within the first 48–72 h after initiation of heparin treatment, and is characterised by a mild and transient thrombocytopenia (rarely <100 000/mm3), often returning to normal within 4 days once the heparin is withdrawn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is HIT Type 2?

A

HIT type II is immune‐mediated and associated with a risk of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the pathophysiology of HIT?

A

Heparin binds to PF4 on PLT’s. This complex is very immunogenic but depends on MW of heparin
IgG antibodies to Heparin/PF4 complex are formed and activate platelets
Platelets release prothrombic secretions and are consumed in the process leading to thrombocytopenia
Excessive and unrestrained thrombin generation resulting in a prothrombotic condition, that may manifest as deep vein thrombosis, clot extension, or pulmonary embolism. Hypercoagulable state may last up to one week after last dose administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is HIT diagnosed?

A

Suspect when:
- drop >50% from baseline PLT count
- platelet count < 50 x 109/L
Drop occurs 5 to 10 days after start of Heparin in first time users. As soon as 24hrs in previously sensitized patients. (secondary response)
EIA test for heparin antibody is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is HIT treated?

A

Switch patient to danaparoid or hirudin
DO NOT switch to coumadin without using danaparoid or hirudin. Best to wait to platelets increase.
In life threatening emergencies, if the alternative anticoagulants are not available, plasma exchange may be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of human platelet antigens?

A

Platelets play roles in inflammation; innate, adaptive, and autoimmunity; cardiovascular disease; and even cancer. However, they are most well known for their function in forming clots to stem bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are HPA’s?

A

Glycoproteins (GPs) expressed on the cell-surface membranes of platelets.
Platelet membrane GPs are expressed in different forms due to single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in the genes that encode them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 6 platelet membrane glycoproteins?

A

GPIIb/GPIIIa, GPIb alpha and beta, GPIa, and CD109

Referred to platelet specific but are often found on other cells such as leukocytes and endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How are HPA named?

A

In order of discovery with high frequency antigens named “a” and low frequency named “b”
HPAs for which antibodies against only one of the two antithetical antigens have been detected are labeled with a “w” for “workshop,” such as HPA-6bw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the six bi allelic groups?

A

Twelve antigens are clustered into six biallelic groups (HPA-1, HPA-2, HPA-3, HPA-4, HPA-5, and HPA-15).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the first HPA to be discovered?

A

HPA-1a is the platelet alloantigen that was discovered

first and is most familiar. Originally named “Zwa” and more commonly referred to as “PlA1,”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of GPIIb/IIIa?

A

Binding of fibrinogen by GPIIb/IIIa results
in platelet aggregation, which leads to the
formation of the “platelet plug” to stop bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Glanzmann thrombasthenia?

A

Platelet GPIIb/IIIa is absent or dysfunctional due to inherited mutations (ITGA2B, ITGB3 genes).
Serious bleeding can occur.
Patients with Glanzmann thrombasthenia who are exposed to normal platelets by transfusion or pregnancy can make isoantibodies against GPIIb/IIIa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What HPA antibodies are the most common?

A

Anti-HPA-1a accounts for 80% of HPA specific antibodies
HPA-1a is on GPIIb/IIIa which is abundantly expressed making it very immunogenic
Anti-HPA-5 is second most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which antibody is common found in post transfusion pupura?

A

Anti-HPA-1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What % of the European population is HPA-1b/HPA-1b?

A

2% and can make anti-HPA-1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the clinical significance of HPA-4a/4b?

A

HPA-4a/4b antigens are also expressed on GPIIIa and have been implicated in fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT), PTP, and platelet transfusion refractoriness.
The low-frequency HPA-4b antigen is more common in populations of Japanese and Chinese ancestry.

41
Q

What is the clinical significance of HPA-3a/3b?

A

HPA-3a/3b antigens are expressed on GPIIb, but despite the high rate of incompatibility for both antigens in the general population, detection of HPA-3 antibodies is uncommon. Some HPA-3 antibodies are difficult to
detect because detergent used to extract antigen destroys epitope for antibody binding

42
Q

What low HPA are more common in Japanese?

A

HPA-6bw and HPA-21bw are expressed in of 1% and 2%, respectively, in people of Japanese ancestry
Can cause FNAIT

43
Q

What is the function of GPIb/V/IX complex?

A

The GPIb/V/IX complex forms the vWF receptor on platelets, and platelets express approximately 25,000 copies of the complex. Following vascular injury, binding of the GPIb/V/IX complex to vWF facilitates platelet adhesion to vascular subendothelium and initiates platelet activation, aggregation, and hemostasis.

44
Q

What HPA are on GPIb?

A

GPIb alpha carries HPA-2a/2b, and GPIb beta carries HPA-12bw. Antibodies against HPA-2a, -2b, and -12bw have all been implicated in causing FNAIT.

45
Q

What is Bernard Soulier syndrome?

A

BSS is a disorder characterized by prolonged bleeding time, thrombocytopenia, and the presence of “giant platelets” that affects approximately 1 in 1 million people. BSS patients are deficient of GPIb/V/IX and can produce antibodies when they are exposed to the protein complex on normal platelets through transfusions or pregnancy.

46
Q

What is the function of GPIa/IIa?

A

The integrin GPIa/IIa is a major collagen receptor on platelets

47
Q

What HPA antigens are on GPIa and what is there clinical significance?

A

The GPIa protein carries the HPA-5a/5b antigens. Antibodies against HPA-5 antigens are the second most frequently detected, after anti-HPA-1a, in patients with FNAIT and are also frequently detected in patients with PTP

48
Q

What is CD109?

A

CD109 is a glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)- linked protein and a member of the alpha 2 macroglobulin/ complement superfamily. Inhibits TGFb-mediated signals. Expressed on T Lymphocytes, CD34+ HPCs, endothelial cells. It carries the HPA-15 antigens

49
Q

What is the clinical significance of HPA-15 antibodies?

A

Low surface expression
Significance of antibodies is uncertain
Suspected of FNAIT and immune platelet refractoriness
Antibodies are difficult to detect because fresh platelets are required

50
Q

What is HPA-13bw associated with?

A

HPA-13bw polymorphism found on GPIa/IIa

Functional defects associated with reduced platelet activation

51
Q

What cause HLA CLass I alloimmunization?

A

Multiple transfusion - leukoreduced unit lower incidence
Pregnancy - > 32% of women with 4 or more pregnancies
Present in 1.7% of never pregnant or transfused women and men

52
Q

What is FNAIT?

A

Also known as neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NATP, NAT, NAIT, NIT)
Destruction of fetal platelets by maternal IgG antibodies that cross the placenta
Most common cause of severe fetal/neonatal thrombocytopenia
Fetal bleeding complications such as Intracranial hemorrhage can occur

53
Q

How is FNAIT diagnosed?

A

Test maternal serum for antibodies

Genotyping on paternal DNA

54
Q

How is FNAIT treated?

A

IVIG

Transfused maternal PLT’s (washed to remove antibody)

55
Q

What is PTP?

A

Characterized by sudden, self-limiting thrombocytopenia 5-10 days after platelet tx
Caused by potent anti-platelet antibodies
HPA-1a most common
Other specificities to GPIIb/IIIa antigens
Patient’s own platelets are also destroyed
Induce pan-reactive anti-GPIIb/IIIa autoantibodies

56
Q

What drugs can induce thrombocytopenia?

A

Quinine, sulfa drugs, vancomycin, GPIIb/IIIa antagonists and heparin

57
Q

What is ITP?

A

Autoantibodies against platelet antigens
Chronic is most common in female adults
Treatment is Steroids or IVIG
Non-responders: Rituximab, splenectomy
Cause may be Idiopathic or 2° to HIV, malignancy or other autoimmune diseases
Acute occurs in children after viral infection and is usually self-limiting

58
Q

What test are used to detect HPA antibodies?

A

glycoprotein-specific assay - monoclonal antibodies capture specific GP and patient serum added to well. GP specific assays are most sensitive but may miss antibodies only detected by whole plts
intact/whole platelets
HPA genotyping

59
Q

What are pros and cons of using intact whole PLT testing?

A

PLT’s are immobilized onto a solid phase well and patients plasma is incubated. After washing, RBC coated with IgG are added and centrifuged
Used for PLT XM
Can’t distinguish PLT specific antibodies from non-specific antibodies
Can be FLOW or solid phase based

60
Q

How do antigen capture assays work?

A

Monoclonal antibody captures specific GP.
Patients plasma is incubated and if present antibody binds to specific glycoprotein. Labeled anti-IgG antibody binds to complex for detection

61
Q

What is the C-seronin release assay?

A

The assay uses washed platelets for detection of heparin-dependent antibodies. PLT’s are incubated with C-serotonin, which is taken up into their dense granules. The platelets are then exposed to the patient’s serum in the presence of low (0.1 U/mL) and high (100 U/mL) concentrations of heparin. Release of at least 20% of
the radioactivity at the low dose of heparin and inhibition of this release below 20% at the high dose confirms the presence of heparin-dependent antibodies.

62
Q

What diseases are caused by anti-neutrophil antibodies?

A

Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia (NAN)
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Immune neutropenia after HPC transplants
Refractory to granulocyte transfusion
Chronic benign autoimmune neutropenia of infancy (AIN)

63
Q

What antigens are on FcgRIIIb (CD16b)?

A

HNA-1 (3 alleles: -1a, -1b, -1c)
Receptor for Fc portion of IgG
Very high expression on neutrophils = Highly immunogenic
Anti-HNA-1a and -1b Implicated in TRALI, NAN and AIN

64
Q

What antigens are on CD177?

A
HNA-2
Missing CD177 in 3-5% of population 
Produce anti-HNA-2 antibodies
Epitope on CD177
Implicated in NAN, TRALI and neutropenia in marrow transplant recipients
65
Q

What antigen is on CTL2?

A

HNA-3a and -3b
Expressed on Neutrophils, T and B lymphocytes, and a small amount on platelets
Anti-HNA-3a antibodies are usually agglutinins
Occurs in Pregnancy
Most common cause of fatal TRALI
Anti-HNA-3b antibodies are detected during screening of serum from multiparous donors

66
Q

What is neonatal allo immune neutropenia?

A

NAN is caused by maternal antibodies against
antigens on fetal neutrophils; the most frequent
specificities are against HNA-1a, HNA-
1b, and HNA-2 antigens

67
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ITP?

A

Platelet autoantibodies bind to GP on PLT
FC receptors on macrophages in the spleen and liver will sequester platelets
Platelets will survive 2-3 days or minutes

68
Q

What are the clinical signs of ITP?

A
Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
Mild fever
Petechiae
Ecchymosis
Gingival bleeding
Epistaxis
Menorrhagia
Spontaneous bleeding (plt count < 10,000/uL; severity of bleeding correlate with plt count)
Intracranial hemorrhage (is the most serious, but rare; 1%-2% of severe thrombocytopenia)
69
Q

What are the laboratory findings in ITP?

A

PLT count at time of diagnosis: 25,000 to 30,000/uL
Abnormal large size: 3 to 4 um
Plt fragments may be seen
Abnormal morphology
Possible increase in Mean Plt Volume (MPV)
Antibody testing not useful because low sensitity and specificity

70
Q

What is acute ITP?

A

It is mainly a childhood disease characterized by abrupt onset of severe thrombocytopenia and bleeding,
usually proceed by an Infection (i.e. Varicella zoster & Epstein-Barr)
Majority of cases have a duration of 4 to 6 weeks
Usually benign and self-limiting

71
Q

What is chronic ITP?

A

ITP is most often a disease in adults, characterized by an insidious onset and mild thrombocytopenia
may exist for months to years before diagnosis
It may be idiopathic or associated with other diseases (i.e. HIV infection, malignancy, other autoimmune conditions).
Females are twice as likely to be affected as males

72
Q

What is the treatment for ITP?

A

Steroids (First-line Therapy; stops plasma cells from making antibodies)
High dose IVIG or RhIG
IVIG or RHIG in D+
Removal of the spleen in nonresponders
Rituximab an Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that causes B-Cell lysis and B-Cell depletion

73
Q

What clinical symptoms are associated with TTP?

A

microvascular thrombosis
thrombocytopenia
microangiopathic hemolysis
organ dysfunction

74
Q

What is the pathophysiology of TTP?

A

ADAMST13 is responsible for cleaving large vWF to create smaller multimers.
Deficiency in ADAMST13 result in ultralarge vWF multimers (ULVWF) to accumulate.
ULVWF remain attached to the vascular endothelial cells and then adhere to platelets causing the formation of thrombi. vWF is relentlessly activated by shear stress, leading to vWF-platelet aggregation and microvascular thrombosis of TTP. Thrombosis increases the shear stress in the microcirculation, leading to further cycles of vWF-platelet aggregation

75
Q

What causes deficiency of ADAMST13?

A

Acquired: Autoimmune inhibitors of the protease (Autoantibody to ADAMST13)
Has been associated with HIV and pregnancy
Inherited: Genetic mutation

76
Q

What are the signs of TTP?

A

Fever
Purpura: Nonpalpable small purpuric spots or petechiae occur with thrombocytopenia (i.e., platelet count <50 x 109/L).
Jaundice (i.e., hemolysis)
Severe hypertension (i.e., renal failure)
Neurologic deficits (eg, altered mental status, seizure)
Splenomegaly

77
Q

What are the lab findings in TTP?

A

Severe thrombocytopenia (8-44 x 109/L)
Can be masked by compensatory thrombopoiesis.
Hemolysis (<10.5 g/dL) with schistocytes
Decreased haptoglobin.
Increased total and unconjugated bilirubin (i.e. intravascular hemolysis).
Coagulation tests PT, PTT, D-dimer are normal or mildly increased (Compared to DIC, which is prolonged).
Hematuria and proteinuria may be found in patients with renal glomerular thrombosis

78
Q

What is the treatment for TTP?

A

Performed daily until plt count is normal, then the exchange is performed less often until plt count becomes stable before discontinuing.

Provides needed ADAMTS13 and removes autoantibody.

NEVER give platelets because this feeds the thrombosis

79
Q

What is the minimum number of platelets that are in a random platelet unit?

A

5.5 x 10*10

80
Q

What is the minimum number of platelets that are in an apheresis unit?

A

3 x 10*11

81
Q

How much will a random unit of platelets increase the patients platelet count by?

A

5-10,000

82
Q

How much will an apheresis platelet increase the patients platelet count by?

A

40-60,000

83
Q

How many single donor platelets are equal to an apheresis unit.

A

Minimum 6 units but most apheresis platelets have high yield so up to 8 units

84
Q

How do you calculate the CCI?

A

(CI x BSA) / unit platelet content (x 10*11 )

BSA = 2 or Height (cm) x weight (kg) / 3600 = BSA (m2)

85
Q

What CCI indicates the patient is refractory?

A

CCI ≥ 7500 is successful (sample collected 10 min-1 hr post)

CCI < 5000 in ≥ 2 transfusions means the person is refractory.

86
Q

What disease states cause reduced levels of granulocyte antigens?

A

Reduced expression of granulocyte antigens occurs in PNH, chronic myelogenous leukemia, and in premature infants.

87
Q

What is the minimum number of granulocytes required to be in a granulocyte unit?

A

Contain at least 1.0 x 10^10 granulocytes in 200-300 ml plasma and anticoagulant.

88
Q

What drugs are used to mobilize granulocytes in donors?

A
Hydroxyethyl Starch (HES)
Corticosteroids (Oral prednisone) ^not used as much because can cause cataracts
Growth Factors = G-CSF – 8-12 hours before ^not FDA approved so must get donor consent
89
Q

What testing is done on donor for Granulocytes?

A

ABO and Rh, antibody screening, infectious diseases

RBCs shall be compatible with the recipients plasma because unit will have > 2ml of RBC and will need to be XM’d

90
Q

What special attributes should granulocytes have?

A

Should be irradiated to prevent GVHD
Should be CMV neg if patient is immunocompromised
ABO compatible with patient
Don’t leukoreduce - Use standard blood admin filter
Use HLA matched in patient has HLA antiodies

91
Q

What diseases are granulocyte transfusions used for?

A

Neutropenia (less than 500/uL) associated with:
fever unresponsive to antibiotic therapy
bacterial sepsis unresponsive to antibiotics
myeloid hypoplasia
reasonable chance for bone marrow recovery
for neonatal patients with sepsis
patients with hereditrary neutrophil function defects, including chronic granulomatous disease

92
Q

When is granulocyte transfusion indicated in children?

A

Neonates more susceptible to severe bacterial infections because of quantitative and qualitative defects of neutrophil function
Lack humoral immunity - NO antibody production
Group B streptococcus
Candidates
-Strong evidence of bacterial septicemia
-Absolute neutrophil count <3000/microliter
-Diminished marrow storage pool

93
Q

What is the dose for granulocyte transfusion in children?

A

1x10*9 neutrophils/kg in a volume of 15 ml/kg

Might use a buffy coat prepared from WB

94
Q

What is a risk of transfusing granulocytes?

A

Patient may form HLA or anti-neutrophil antibodies

  • Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia
  • Immune neutropenia after bone marrow transplantation
  • Refractoriness to granulocyte transfusion
  • TRALI
95
Q

What platelet antigen is on CD36?

A

GPIV is on CD36 which is also present on mono/macros, and NRBC’s
Anti-CD36 has caused NAIT, PTP, and PLT refractoriness
CD36 expression can very so a PLT may appear XM compatible because it has low levels of CD36
Rare for caucassion to be CD36 neg but 5-11% asians are CD36 negative

96
Q

What are the adverse effects that occur when ABO incompatible platelets are transfused?

A

Promotes HLA and platelet specific alloimmuniztion
Immune complexes form and bind to platelets; shorten life span
May have high ABO titer and platelets are sequestered by the spleen
In leukemic patients, ABO identical gave better survival rates and longer remissions
High titer in Group O donors may cause HTR

97
Q

What is VonWillebrand Disease?

A

Defective or deficient vWF; often have low F-VIII. Not a PLT problem. Platelet transfusions generally have little if any benefit.

98
Q

What clinical syndromes can neutrophil antibodies cause?

A

Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia
Transfusion acute lung injury
Febrile non-hemolytic TRN RXN
Immune neutropenia after BMT
Refractoriness to granulocyte transfusion
Chronic autoimmune neutropenia of infancy