Evidence Based Practice Flashcards

(136 cards)

1
Q

Types of observational studies

A

Cohort studies
Case-control studies
Cross-sectional studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Evidence based medicine (EBM) approaches a clinical dilemma as a clinical question using what pneumonic?

A

PICO
P-patients problem
I- clinical intervention
C- comparison of the intervention with at least one alternative
O- desired outcome used to compare interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Margination

A

A process in which white blood cells, or leukocytes, relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to the periphery along the endothelium wall. As margination progresses, leukocytes adhere to endothelial cells, before migrating from the blood to the tissue, where they are responsible for limiting the harmful stimuli and beginning the process of repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of questions is the PICO model best applied to?

A

Foreground questions (specified knowledge questions that affect clinical decisions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inflammation

A

Reaction of vascularized tissue in the body to local injury or insult.
Excessive inflammation can be pathogenic
Clinical signs: redness, fever, swelling, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vascular and cellular components of inflammation

A

Vascular- following injury, the body increases blood flow to the site through dilation of the arterioles. This ultimately leads to dilation of the capillaries and venules. This allows increased permeability of macromolecules into the tissue space. This causes swelling/edema.

Cellular- as fluid is lost in the tissue space, large amounts of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets remain behind causing blood viscosity to increase. This increase in viscosity causes margination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Histamine

A

Mediator of inflammation
Stored in granular tissue of mast cells
Once released, produces vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Factor XII (Hageman factor)

A

Mediator of inflammation
Stored in an inactive form in plasma
Once activated, this plasma protein triggers the activation of 4 different cascades of systems important to inflammation and repair (coagulation cascade, kinin cascade, fibrinolytic cascade, complement cascade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Coagulation cascade

A

leads to thrombin formation, which converts fibrinogen into fibrin, ultimately leading to clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Kinin cascade

A

Leads to the production of bradykinin. Bradykinin is a peptide that causes vascular dilation and increases permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fibrinolytic cascade

A

Involves the conversion of plasminogen into the active protease plasmin. Plasmin has two important functions: degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Complement cascade

A

Has many important functions. Produces proteins that form the membrane attack complex, which attacks harmful microorganisms. Additional activated proteins in this cascade are mediators of inflammation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability, promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis, and initiating histamine release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Arachidonic acid

A

A fatty acid found in many cell membranes. Two different pathways metabolize arachidonic acid, which results in the production of potent inflammatory mediators.
Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are produced from arachidonic acid through the cyclooxygenase pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thromboxanes

A

Facilitate platelet aggregation, which is important to the healing and repair process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lipoxygenase pathway

A

results in the production of leukotrienes. Leukotrienes initiate chemotactic activities for WBC, causing vasodilation, and increase vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hemodynamics

A

Defined as the function of blood flow or circulation and the forces involved. Alterations or disturbances in the normal pattern of blood flow can be harmful to the organs and tissues of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Edema

A

The abnormal accumulation of fluids in the interstitial spaces of cells or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Water composition in the body

A

Intracellular compartment- contains approximately 2/3rds of total body water

Extracellular compartment- stores the remaining 1/3rd of total body water
The extracellular compartment is further divided into the interstitial space and plasma space, which are separated by the capillary wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is normal exchange of water controlled by?

A

Controlled by hydrostatic and osmotic pressure, which is regulated by plasma proteins. Disruption of this normal exchange explains the etiology of edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of edema

A
Increased hydrostatic pressure
Decreased osmotic pressure
Increased vascular permeability caused by inflammation
Obstruction of a lymphatic channel
Sodium retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Congestion

A

A passive process in which the drainage of blood from a given area is interrupted. An example of congestion can be seen in valvular stenosis. In this disorder, blood volume is increased in the cardiac chamber preceding the valve that is failing to open properly.
Increase in blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hyperemia

A

An active process in which blood flow is increased to a given area. An example of this process can be seen in acute inflammation.
Increase in blood volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hemorrhage

A

the loss or escape of blood from the circulatory system. Accumulation of this lost blood may be external or enclosed within the tissue space of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Hematoma
Referred to the accumulation of blood within the tissues and can range in severity for mild (bruise) to more severe (subdural hematoma)
26
Petechiae
Pinpoint hemorrhages seen most commonly on dermal or mucosal areas
27
Purpuras
Widespread hemorrhages slightly larger than petechiae usually found under the dermal surface
28
Ecchymoses
Larger, often blotchy hemorrhages that also are found on mucosal or dermal areas
29
Thrombosis
The pathologic process of formation of a blood clot within the circulatory system. The formed clot is referred to as a thrombus.
30
Virchows triad
Thrombus formation 1. ) Decreased blood flow 2. ) Injury or abnormality of the endothelial wall of the vessel 3. ) Changes to the normal properties or processes of blood coagulation
31
Most thrombi are formed because of what?
decreased blood flow | On the venous side, blood pressure is lower (as compared to the arterial blood)
32
Embolism
the lodging of a detached mass, or embolus, from one area of the bloodstream to another. Most emboli are formed from blood clots and are referred to as thromboemboli
33
Infarction
the process of forming an ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ
34
Shock
A serious condition involving decreased perfusion of tissues and organs because of inadequate blood flow. Signs and symptoms can include cold, mottled skin, mental status changes, and oliguria
35
Hypovolemic shock
Due to an inadequate volume of circulating blood most commonly caused by hemorrhage or trauma. In hypovolemic shock, cardiac output (CO) is reduced because of decreased venous return and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is high because of compensatory vasoconstriction
36
Distributive shock
Due to an inadequate volume of circulating blood; however, fluid is not actually leaving the body as is seen in hypovolemic shock. Infections (septic), anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock), and medications (neurogenic shock) are common causes of circulatory vasodilation leading to this type of shock. CO usually is normal to elevated and SVR is reduced in distributive shock
37
Cardiogenic shock
Caused by cardiac malfunction and is most commonly seen in patient suffering myocardial infarction or cardiac arrhythmias. CO is reduced and SVR is increased in cardiogenic shocl
38
Shock can potentially progress through which 3 stages?
Nonprogressive stage-reflex neurohumoral mechanisms are activated, and normal circulation is restored Progressive stage- tissue and organs remain hypoperfused, thereby increasing damage and decreasing likelihood of compensation. This condition can be seen in cases with severe blood loss. Irreversible stage
39
Agenesis
the failure of organ formation during embryo formation
40
Aplasia
failure of organ or tissue development
41
Hyperplasia
the enlargement in the size of an organ or tissue because of cellular proliferation
42
The maintenance of blood pressure depends on what 2 factors?
Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
43
What is HTN most commonly caused by?
Increases in SVR
44
ANP
Atrial natiuretic peptide is secreted by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood flow. ANP increases urinary excretion of sodium and water thereby causing a decrease in blood pressure.
45
Nitric oxide
Potent vasodilator released by the endothelial cells in response to changes in blood pressure. Oxidative stress has been suggested to cause a deficiency in nitric oxide, and thus HTN
46
Endothelin
Vasoconstricting substance. Overstimulation can cause HTN
47
Insulin is necessary for
the transport of glucose into cells, where it is stored as glycogen to be used for energy
48
Insulin is produced
by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas
49
In addition to glucose uptake, insulin stimulates
amino acid uptake, and thus, protein synthesis by muscle. It can also stimulate fatty acid storage in adipose tissues.
50
Symptoms of DM
polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, weight loss
51
How do most cases of T1DM happen?
Most result from an immune-mediated destruction of beta cells of the pancreas by T-lymphocytes.
52
The majority of calories should come from
Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and nuts | Intake of red meats and saturated fats should be limited
53
Calories recommended intake
1,800-2,000 kcal/day
54
Carb recommended intake
45-65% of total daily calories
55
Protein recommended intake
10-35% of total daily calories
56
Fat recommended intake
20-35% of total daily calories
57
Fish recommended intake
8 oz/week
58
Fiber recommended intake
14g/1000 calories eaten daily
59
Sodium recommended intake
<2,400 mg/day
60
Potassium recommended intake
4,700 mg/day
61
Whole grain recommended intake
>3 ounce equivalents
62
Fat free or low fat dairy recommended intake
3 cups
63
Vitamin B12 recommended intake
2.4mcg/day (esp patients >50 years of age)
64
Folic acid recommended intake
400-600 mcg/day
65
Vitamin D recommended intake
25 mcg/day or 1000 IU/day
66
5 vegetable subgroups
dark green, orange, legumes, starches, and other | 4.5 cups/day
67
What is the requirement to be whole grain?
Must be at least 51% whole grain ingredients by weight and be low in fat
68
Fat soluble vitamins
ADEK
69
Most dietary sources of fat should come from
Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) and monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFAs)
70
Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) include
Omega 6 fats- soybean, corn, safflower oils | Omega 3 fats- soybean, canola, and flaxseed oil, walnuts, fish
71
Avoid salt substitutes (potassium chloride) in patients with
kidney disease
72
BMI
Weight in kg/(height in m)^2
73
Obesity I
BMI 30-34.9
74
Obesity II
BMI 35-39.9
75
How much calorie reduction will prevent weight gain?
50-100kcal/day
76
What goal calorie reduction for weight loss?
500kcal/day reduction
77
What is the healthiest way to reduce calorie intake?
Reduce the amount of sugar, fat, and alcohol | Exercise
78
Resistance exercises (weight training or resistance bands) can reduce
osteoporosis as well as increase muscle strength and tone
79
A healthcare provider should be consulted before which individuals start an exercise program?
Men >40 and women >50 Individuals with a chronic disease Individuals who have symptoms such as chest pain or pressure, dizziness, or joint pain
80
How is the smoking pack year calculated?
Calculated by the number of packs (20 cig/pack) smoked in a day x years smoke. Example- if a person smokes 2 ppd for 5 years they have a 10 pack year smoking history
81
5 R's used to encourage pts to quit smoking
``` Relevance Risks Rewards Roadblocks Repetition ```
82
In counseling pts, pharmacists should use the five A's
``` Ask Advise Assess Assist Arrange ```
83
Withdrawal symptoms of smoking cessation
Peak 48 hours after cessation, gradually dissipate over the next 2-4 weeks, and completely resolve within 1 month. Increased appetite and weight gain may persist for 6 months
84
4 subsets of atherosclerotic disease
Coronary heart disease/ cardiovascular disease Cerebrovascular disease Peripheral arterial disease Aortic atherosclerosis including thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm
85
Risk assessment for atherosclerotic disease should begin
at age 20 and be assessed every 4-6 years in low-risk patients and more often in those at higher risk (every 2 years). Risk assessment after age 79 is not necessary
86
Nonmodifiable heart disease risk factors
Age (>45 in men, >55 in women) Gender (>men) Ethnicity (AA at highest risk) F/H (premature HD in male <55 years of age or females <65 years)
87
Which ASCVD risk score would benefit from statin therapy
>7.5
88
Which ASCVD risk score would benefit from low dose aspirin?
>10
89
Statin primary prevention
A pt with LDL > 190 A pt age 40-75 with DM and LDL > 70 A pt age 40-79 w/o DM and LDL >70 and ASCVD >7.5
90
High intensity statins
Atorvastatin 40-80 mg | Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg
91
Afib treatments
Rate control- beta blocker, non-dihydropyridine CCH (dilt or verapamil) Rhythm- amiodarone
92
Which diuretics cause metabolic alkalosis and hypocalcemia?
Loop
93
CCBs AE
peripheral edema, constipation
94
Non-dihydropyridine CCB AE
bradycardia and heart block and can worsen HF
95
beta blocker AE
fatigue, bradycardia, heart block, and bronchconstriction in pts with lung disease
96
Congestive heart failure treatment
ACE or ARB Beta blocker- metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol Hydralazine + isosorbide if AA Spironolactone or epleronone Digoxin is an add on
97
AE in HF treatments
``` Need to slowly titrate beta blockers to avoid worsening CHF symptoms Hyperkalemia with spironolactone Risk of toxicity form digoxin HA from isosorbide Lupus from hydralazine ```
98
Ischemic stroke treatment
Thrombolysis with alteplase is recommended in pts within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Aspirin within 24-48 hours Anticoagulation with IV heparin or other agents not recommended
99
Venous thromboembolism treatment (DVT/PE)
IV heparin titrated to PTT or LMWH or subcutaneous fondaparinux
100
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Caused by heparin or LMWH. Can be lifethreatening
101
F/U VTE therapy
at least 3 months with oral anticoagulation. | Newer agents >warfarin
102
Asthma treatment
SABA prn Add a low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) If more control needed, increase ICS dose or add LABA (salmeterol) or both If more control needed, add oral corticosteroid, consider omalizumab to high dose ICS + LABA
103
COPD treatment
Use GOLD guidelines 1. ) Begin with SABA prn plus LABA or long-acting anticholinergic (tiotropium) 2. ) Add second long acting bronchodilator from class not used 3. Consider addition of theophylline or roflumilast (if pt has chronic bronchitis)
104
What can worsen bronchoconstriction in COPD and asthma?
Non selective beta blockers
105
Peak expiratory flow rate
Used to monitor asthma severity
106
Spirometry
Used to monitor COPD, FEV1
107
CT scan of chest
Diagnostic of PE
108
Which drugs can cause esophagitis?
Tetracycline abx, biphosphanates
109
Which drugs worsen GERD by decreasing lower esophageal sphincter tone
Beta blockers. CCBs. and caffeine
110
PUD treatment
Clindamycin plus either metronidazole or amoxicillin Plus PPI for 10-14 days NSAID induced ulcers are treated with H2RAs or PPIs and the NSAID is stopped or changed to celecoxib. PPIs or misoprostol can be used to prevent NSAID induced ulcers
111
Which drugs cause hepatic dysfunction
acetaminophen, amiodarone, statins, phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproic acid, azole antifungals, Isoniazid
112
AST >ALT in
alcohol induced liver disease
113
Alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin are present in
elevated levels in cholestatic liver disease
114
Otitis media treatment
10 days of high dose amoxicillin 1st line | Oral cephalosporins, macrolides, and clindamycins used in allergy
115
Sinusitis treatment (abx)
Amoxicillin, doxycycline (adults only) | Resp FQ or clindamycin + cefepime if high risk
116
Pharyngitis treatment
Pen VK, amoxicillin, cephalosporins, azithromycin, clindamycin
117
CAP treatment outpatient
Doxycycline or azithromycin or clarithromycin | With comorbidities- rep quinolone or high dose Amoxicillin/ clavunate added to above
118
CAP treatment inpatient
Respiratory quinolone or a combo of cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) plus azith, clarith, or doxy
119
CAP in ICU
Pts require anti-pseudomonal coverage Cefepime, Pip/Tazo, meropenem And possible MRSA coverage Vanc
120
Skin and soft tissue infections abx
Nonpurlent, use penicillin, cephalexin, or clindamycin Severe- Pip/Tazo plus vancomycin Purulent infections should target MRSA Doxy or TMP-SMX used for moderate purulent infections, vanc, linezolid, daptomycin, or ceftaroline used for severe
121
CDiff associated diarrhea (CDAD) treatment
10-14 days with oral or IV metronidazole if less severe or oral vanc if more severe Most severe- metronidazole + oral vanc Recurrence treated with same agent or fidaxomicin. Frequent recurrences treated with long term oral vanc, fidaxomicin, or fecal microbiota transplant
122
Uncomplicated cystitis treatment
Nitrofurantoin for 5 days or TMP-SMX for 3 days | Alternatives include quinolone x 3 days or fosfomycin x 1 day
123
Outpatient pyelonephritis treatment
quinolone for 7 days or TMP-SMX for 14 days
124
Hospitalized UTI treatment
Quinolone Anti-pseudomonal Beta lactam Or both Aminoglycoside can be added but carry risk of nephrotoxicity
125
Endocarditis treatment
Most commonly caused by streptococcus viridans, staphylococci, and enterococci Pen G or ceftriaxone for 2-4 weeks. Alternative is vanc Prosthetic valve endocarditis requires combo with aminoglycoside and rifampin for 2-6 weeks
126
Meningitis treatment
Pneumococcus and Neisseria meningitides Empiric therapy of ceftriaxone + vancomycin for children >3 months and adults Ampicillin is added for listeria coverage if > 60 years old Ampicillin +cefotaxime or aminoglycoside added if <3 months old
127
Surgical prophylaxis
start within 60 minutes of incision (120 min for quinolones and vanc) Drugs should be redosed every 2 1/2 lifes during surgery (4 hours for cefazolin) Prophylaxis should not exceed 24 hours Cefazolin is DOC Clinda and vanc are alternates. Add metronidazole in colorectal surgery
128
Sepsis treatment
Rapid, aggressive crystalloid (NS, LR) fluid resuscitation to maintain MAP >65 mmHg and normalize hyperlactetemia Albumin in pts with higher fluid requirements For persistent shock, NE is vasopressor of choice, which addition of vasopressin or another catecholamine based on hemodynamic needs. Low dose corticosteroid can be considered for pts failing vasopressors
129
C. glabrata, C. krusei treatmetn
Echinocandins (caspofungin), amphotericin B, coriconazole
130
DOC for asperigillus
voriconazole
131
Histoplasma, blastomyces, coccidioides, cryptococcus tx
fluconazone or itraconazole if mild | amphotericin B +/- flucytosine for serious
132
Mucorales (zyhomycetes, rhizopus) tx
amphotericin B or isavuconazole
133
Aminoglycosides and vancomycin are
nephrotoxic
134
Linezolid can cause
anemia thrombocytopenia neuropathies- do not give with serotonergic drugs
135
Nephrotoxic drugs
aminoglycoside antibiotics, vancomycin, amphotericin B, IV contrast dye, NSAIDs, ACEIs and ARBs, β-lactams (notably piperacillin–tazobactam), and loop diuretics.
136
Low therapeutic index agents
phenytoin, carbamazepine, warfarin, digoxin, aminoglycosides, thyroid supplements, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, theophylline, lithium