Exam 01 Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

The statement: Development is largely the result of genetics and the biological unfolding of an inborn timetable of growth. represents the ________________ view

a. Nurture
b. Plasticity
c. Nature
d. Dynamic systems

A

Nature

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2
Q

The Discontinuous-Continuous debate in child development is the contrast between

a. Laboratory studies and contextual studies.
b. Biological nature and environmental nurture.
c. Sudden abrupt change and gradual slow change.
d. Universal truths and culture relevant truths.

A

Sudden abrupt change and gradual slow change.

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3
Q

All contemporary child development theories view children as

a. following a universal genetically established maturation.
b. passive and fragile, especially in their self-esteem.
c. miniature adults with inborn skills that need training.
d. active, purposeful beings that influence their own development.

A

active, purposeful beings that influence their own development.

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4
Q

______________ is generally regarded as the founder of the child-study movement.

a. John Locke
b. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
c. Charles Darwin
d. G. Stanley Hall

A

G. Stanley Hall

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5
Q

Freud stressed the influence and importance of the Id’s ______________ to a child’s development and Erikson stressed the influence of _____________ on the conscious nature of the Ego.

a. Learning by observing/ cultural mentoring
b. Cultural mentoring/ biological maturation
c. Unconscious conflict/ social dynamics
d. Positive consequences/ learn by observing

A

Unconscious conflict/ social dynamics

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6
Q

Skinner focuses on how children learn to behave through ____________ while Bandura focused on how children learn through __________________

a. Observing role models/ cultural mentoring
b. Cultural mentoring/ biological maturation
c. Unconscious conflict/ social dynamics
d. Positive consequences/ observing role models

A

Positive consequences/ observing role models

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7
Q

According to Cognitive Developmental theory, to understand change you must know

a. If and how the child interacted with people more skilled at the particular activity.
b. A child’s thought processes, how he or she organizes information about their world.
c. The child’s unresolved unconscious parent-infant conflicts from early childhood.
d. A child’s past experiences, how their behavior was shaped by praise and punishment.

Answer __ refers to Freud’s Psychoanalytic developmental approach

Answer __ refers to Skinner’s Behaviorist approach.

Answer __ refers to Vygotsky’s Sociocultural approach

A

The child’s unresolved unconscious parent-infant conflicts from early childhood.

Answer C refers to Freud’s Psychoanalytic developmental approach

Answer D refers to Skinner’s Behaviorist approach.

Answer A refers to Vygotsky’s Sociocultural approach

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8
Q

Dr. Yoshi is a ____________ psychologist because she studies the influence of instinctual patterns of behavior while Dr Hamani is a _________ psychologist because he focuses on a child’s self-esteem and how that influences the behaviors the child chooses to engage in.

a. Behavioral/ Cognitive
b. Cognitive/ Psychodynamic
c. Evolutionary / Humanist
d. Humanist/ Sociocultural

A

Evolutionary / Humanist

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is consistent with Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological systems theory?

a. Developing mental ability is reflective of concurrent changes in brain structure.
b. Social interaction is necessary for children to acquire a culture’s ways of thinking.
c. Learning reflects levels of context,… example interplay of parent, child, and teacher values.
d. All children are naturally active thinkers, organizing and revising their mental structures.

Answer __ refers to a Sociocultural approach

Answer __ refers to a Cognitive Neuroscience approach.

Answer __ refers to a Cognitive Developmental approach

A

Learning reflects levels of context,… example interplay of parent, child, and teacher values.

Answer B refers to a Sociocultural approach
Answer A refers to a Cognitive Neuroscience approach.
Answer D refers to a Cognitive Developmental approach

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10
Q

Which of the following describes the Naturalistic study method?

a. Conducts a study of one or two people using various tests and observations over time.
b. Collects a large sample of people’s attitudes and opinions using a standard set of questions.
c. Watches behavior in real-life without interfering … has no control over who participates.
d. Use a situation similar to real-life, gives every participant opportunity to show how they’d react.

Answer __ refers to a Structured observation.
Answer __ refers to a Case study method.
Answer __ refers to a Survey method.

A

Watches behavior in real-life without interfering … has no control over who participates.

Answer D refers to a Structured observation.

Answer A refers to a Case study method.

Answer B refers to a Survey method.

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11
Q

The_______________ interview is used to assess a child’s thoughts and reasoning processes but the questions asked and level of detail in the answers varies from person to person. The _____________ interview is standardized so the level of detail is more consistent from person to person.

a. Structured / Clinical
b. Clinical / Free-association
c. Clinical / Structured
d. Experimental / Structured

A

Clinical / Structured

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12
Q

Researchers report a strong correlation between parenting style and infant traits. Because it is a correlational method, the researchers can conclude

a. that traits cause a parent to adopt a style
b. that parenting styles cause infant traits
c. that parenting styles predict infant traits.
d. none of the above is appropriate.

To achieve results that allow you to conclude one event causes another event, the research method must be ______ .

A

that parenting styles predict infant traits.

To achieve results that allow you to conclude one event causes another event, the research method must be Experimental .

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13
Q

In __________ we compare pre-existing groups similar in most things but separated by differences in one important variable, for example comparing children with ADHD to children without ADHD.

a. Case studies
b. Field experiments
c. Experiments
d. Quasi-experiments

A

Quasi-experiments

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14
Q

Cohort effects occur when

a. participants become “test-wise” through repeated testing.
b. specific generational experiences influence development.
c. participants move away or drop out reducing sample size.
d. people who agree to participate are different from those who do not.

Answer __ refers to volunteer bias.
Answer __ refers to practice effects

A

specific generational experiences influence development.

Answer D refers to volunteer bias.

Answer A refers to practice effects

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15
Q

Which of the following would describe Sequential study?

a. Test children of different ages, different races, different neighborhoods one time and compare.
b. Start with a young age group, return and re-test these same children every two years.
c. Start with one age group, add a new cohort each time you re-test the previous cohorts.
d. Administer a somewhat difficult test and retest daily to see exactly when ability improves.

Answer __ refers to a Microgenetic design
Answer __ refers to the Longitudinal design
Answer __ refers to Cross-sectional design

A

Start with one age group, add a new cohort each time you re-test the previous cohorts.

Answer D refers to a Microgenetic design

Answer B refers to the Longitudinal design

Answer A refers to Cross-sectional design

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16
Q

Ethically, if parents have given approval for their children to participate in a research study then

a. It is permissible to give children no explanation as to the nature of the activity.
b. It is permissible to mislead children by telling them it is a game and only for fun.
c. Researchers must give age-appropriate information but can tell children they have no choice.
d. Researchers must give age-appropriate information.. allow children to refuse participation.

A

Researchers must give age-appropriate information.. allow children to refuse participation.

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17
Q

A child’s ______________ is their appearance, the way that their genetic information is expressed.

a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Archetype
d. Allotype

______ refers to your individual set of genetic information and ______ determine the individual differences in characteristics that we all share such as hair and eye color.

A

Phenotype

[Genotype] refers to your individual set of genetic information and [Allelles] determine the individual differences in characteristics that we all share such as hair and eye color.

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18
Q

Which of the following is true about meiosis?

a. It increases the total number of alleles.
b. It reduces the number of alleles.
c. It creates new combinations of genes.
d. It creates identical twin embryos.

With increasing age meiosis is more likely to produce ______ mutations such as Trisomy21.

A

It creates new combinations of genes.

With increasing age meiosis is more likely to produce [germline] mutations such as Trisomy21.

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19
Q

One of the most frequently occurring recessive genetic disorders is?

a. Phenylketonuria
b. Huntington’s
c. Schizophrenia
d. Down Syndrome

A

Phenylketonuria

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20
Q

In a cost-benefit analysis, ____________ is not likely to be tested for prior to birth because the treatment is relatively simple and inexpensive as symptoms are avoided by a change in diet.

a. Phenylketonuria
b. Huntington’s
c. Schizophrenia
d. Down Syndrome

A

Phenylketonuria

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21
Q

Rates of miscarriage, mental retardation, and birth defects are all?

a. higher for girls as compared to boys
b. higher for boys as compared to girls
c. the same, sex of the fetus does not matter
d. dependent on the age of mother

A

higher for boys as compared to girls

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22
Q

Which of the following describes Down syndrome?

a. Both boys and girls experience moderate mental retardation, faster aging and poor health.
b. It is a dominant genetic disorder causing brain deterioration in adult men and women.
c. Causes moderate to severe mental retardation for boys but girls have less severe symptoms.
d. A recessive genetic disorder causing brain deterioration and is fatal in early childhood.

Answer __ refers to Tay Sachs disease
Answer __ refers to Huntington’s disease.
Answer __ refers to Fragile X, a sex-linked disorder.

A

Both boys and girls experience moderate mental retardation, faster aging and poor health.

Answer D refers to Tay Sachs disease
Answer B refers to Huntington’s disease.
Answer C refers to Fragile X, a sex-linked disorder.

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23
Q

Which of the following has the highest probability of having a child with Down syndrome?

a. Isabella, who is 15 years old
b. Bonny, who is 24 years old
c. Raelyn, who is 33 years old
d. Katrina, who is 42 years old

A

Katrina, who is 42 years old

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24
Q

Angela and Tony’s first child died in infancy. They are considering a second pregnancy and want to find out if either of them is likely to carry a recessive disorder. Angela and Tony are candidates for

a. APGAR testing
b. Genetic counseling
c. Behavioral therapy
d. Amniocentesis

A

Genetic counseling

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25
If genetic testing is warranted, the doctor may suggest_____________ , a somewhat invasive procedure to collect fetal cells shed into the fluid surrounding the fetus. a. Amniocentesis b. Ultrasound c. Chorionic Sampling d. Fetoscopy
Amniocentesis
26
Adoption studies test the child and both biological and adoptive parents to specifically compare a. heritability within the population b. nature and nurture influences c. effect of mother’s age d. dominant-recessive patterns
nature and nurture influences
27
If you understand genetic Reaction Range theory, you understand that a. Genetics ensures that the necessary characteristic will appear to some degree in all environments. b. Good environments will have the same positive impact on all children in those environments. c. Each child’s genetics evokes responses making the experience of the situation slightly different. d. Genetics limits highs and lows of ability…environment can make difference less noticeable. Answer __ refers to Canalization theory. Answer __ refers to Gene-Environment correlation
Genetics limits highs and lows of ability…environment can make difference less noticeable. Answer A refers to Canalization theory. Answer C refers to Gene-Environment correlation
28
Bill is an easy going child while Erica, his sister, has a more fussy nature. Observations reveal that Bill receives more patient and sensitive interactions from his parents than does his sister. This example demonstrates the ____________ aspect of the gene–environment correlation theory. a. active b. dysfunctional c. passive d. evocative
evocative
29
________________ describes the idea that inherited traits are promoted through the course of development as we tend to choose environments consistent with our nature. a. Genotype b. Niche-picking c. Non-shared d. Reaction range
Niche-picking
30
With more and more women working, the largest number of first-time pregnancies is now a. Highest in the early twenties age group. b. Split between then early and the later twenties. c. Highest in the early thirties. d. Split between the early thirties and the late thirties.
Split between then early and the later twenties.
31
The average number of children per couple in North America today is a. 3.1 b. 2.7 c. 2.1 d. 1.8
1.8
32
The period of the zygote or germinal phase, lasts a. for about 6 weeks after placental connection. b. about 2 weeks, from fertilization to implantation. c. for about 13 weeks, or a trimester. d. from conception to fertilization. What percentage of zygotes do not survive the first two weeks?
about 2 weeks, from fertilization to implantation. about 50%
33
Prenatal care during the Embryonic stage is important because this period is when a. single cells rapidly multiply into a large mass of cells. b. the basic structures of brain, organ, and body actually take shape. c. neural maturation and weight gain enable survival outside the womb. d. creation of identical twins must occur if it is going to happen at all. Answer __ refers to the process happening in the fetal phase. Answer __ and __ refer to processes that occur in the germinal stage.
the basic structures of brain, organ, and body actually take shape. Answer C refers to the process happening in the fetal phase. Answer A and D refer to processes that occur in the germinal stage.
34
Age of Viability specifically means age at which a... a. Doctor can safely perform ultrasound imaging. b. Newborns can sustain themselves without medical intervention. c. Newborn can first survive, sustain functions with some assistance d. Zygote can survive in a test tube prior to artificial insemination. How many weeks define the age of viability?
Newborn can first survive, sustain functions with some assistance 22-26 weeks
35
The _________ is the time when positive or negative influences have the biggest impact on development. a. period of the zygote b. period of the embryo c. second-trimester d. third trimester
period of the embryo
36
A teratogen is any _________________ agent that causes damage during prenatal development. a. Chemical b. Viral c. Pollutant d. Environmental
Environmental
37
If a woman smokes during her pregnancy, research indicates the newborn is most at risk for a. Slow growth, brain tissue damage and moderate to severe cognitive delays. b. Impaired sensory systems, for example born blind and/or deaf. c. Born with no arms and/or legs but still having formed hands and feet. d. Low birth-weight and subtle negative effects caused by nutritional deficits. Answer __ describes the risk to the fetus if a woman drank alcohol during pregnancy. Answer __ describes the risk to the fetus if a woman took Thalidomide during pregnancy.
Low birth-weight and subtle negative effects caused by nutritional deficits. Answer A describes the risk to the fetus if a woman drank alcohol during pregnancy. Answer C describes the risk to the fetus if a woman took Thalidomide during pregnancy.
38
Pregnant women should avoid eating long-lived predatory fish to reduce the likelihood of exposure to a. radiation b. parasites c. mercury d. lead
mercury
39
Salt contains iodine to ensure that most everyone gets a daily dose and for pregnant women this is especially important because a lack of iodine in their diet will cause the fetus to have a. Fetal anemia and low birth-weight b. Thyroid deficiencies and stunted growth c. Too few brain cells and cognitive deficits d. Spina-bifida, failure of the spinal cord to close Lack of ______ in the mother’s diet causes fetal anemia resulting in low birth-weight. Lack of ______ in the mother’s diet is associated with neural deficits like spina-bifida
Thyroid deficiencies and stunted growth Lack of iron in the mother’s diet causes fetal anemia resulting in low birth-weight. Lack of folic acid in the mother’s diet is associated with neural deficits like spina-bifida
40
Dr. Smith is comparing the IQ scores of a sample of 325 five year olds. There are two groups: those whose mothers smoked while pregnant and a matched group of five year olds whose mothers never smoked (thus did not smoke while pregnant or expose the child to second hand smoke). Dr. Smith then returns to re-test these same children every 2 school years. What is the research method in the above study? a. Experimental b. Quasi-experimental c. Naturalistic observation d. Case study
Quasi-experimental
41
Dr. Smith is comparing the IQ scores of a sample of 325 five year olds. There are two groups: those whose mothers smoked while pregnant and a matched group of five year olds whose mothers never smoked (thus did not smoke while pregnant or expose the child to second hand smoke). Dr. Smith then returns to re-test these same children every 2 school years. What is the developmental design in the above study? a. Cross-sectional b. Ethnographic c. Longitudinal d. Sequential
Longitudinal
42
Which of the following statements is true about the average newborn infant? a. Both boys and girls average 5-6 pounds. b. Girls are slightly heavier than boys. c. The average newborn is 24 inches long. d. Boys are slightly longer than girls.
Boys are slightly longer than girls.
43
Proposed as an evolutionary mechanism, newborn infants are attractive because they a. have small undersized heads as compared to their bodies. b. have round faces, chubby cheeks, large foreheads, and big eyes. c. are scrawny, leggy and obviously in need of attention. d. look like little adults with even, elegant proportions.
have round faces, chubby cheeks, large foreheads, and big eyes.
44
Most natural childbirth programs draw on methods developed by Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze, who recognized a. Labor and delivery went more smoothly, with fewer complications if women were in hospital. b. Reducing cultural anxiety about pregnancy and birth would reduce birth complications. c. Reducing the stress and anxiety of birth through medication produces a less stressed infant. d. Being at home was the best place to facilitate a natural birth with few complications.
Reducing cultural anxiety about pregnancy and birth would reduce birth complications
45
Devin’s first Apgar score is 7, three minutes later his score is 10, attending medical staff should a. Provide medical assistance immediately. b. Note his low birth-weight on his chart. c. Note that his physical condition is good. d. Not possible to tell based on this information.
Note that his physical condition is good.
46
The most common function of many newborn reflexes is a. Defensive withdrawal b. Intellectual enhancement c. Preparatory motor skills d. Social independence
Preparatory motor skills
47
An infant born at 38 weeks with a birth weight of 4lbs 7oz would be classified as? a. Normal weight b. Developmental delayed c. Low birth weight d. Pre-term
Low birth weight
48
If a neonate is Small for Date, what does this suggest? a. Low weight but full term birth and catch up growth later. b. Prenatal deprivation and more serious long term problems. c. Genetic disorder producing chronic impairments. d. Low birth weight from being pre-term but catch up growth later.
Prenatal deprivation and more serious long term problems.
49
For pre-term infants Kangaroo skin-to-skin contact a. Fosters physical development, improved infant sleep states and alertness. b. Provides mothers with psychological comfort but has little effect on infants. c. Is used only when incubators and other medical interventions are not available. d. Is not recommended because close contact increases risk for infection.
Fosters physical development, improved infant sleep states and alertness.
50
Compared to full-term siblings, studies show that very preterm infants are more likely to receive a. more attentive care from parents as their infant obviously needs to catch up. b. more attentive care from parents as their infant sucks poorly and cries more. c. less attentive care from parents as their infant is less responsive, more irritable. d. less attentive care from parents as pre-term infants are calmer and less demanding
less attentive care from parents as their infant is less responsive, more irritable.
51
When parents practice proximal care, infant crying in the early months is reduced by about a. one-fourth. b. one-half. c. one-third. d. two-thirds.
one-third.
52
Which of the following most closely describes the neonate’s arousal states? a. Generally infants are described as either awake or asleep. b. Alternating between active /quiet awake, drowsiness and active/quiet sleep c. Active alertness, drowsiness and deep sleep but no REM sleep yet. d. Active alertness, drowsiness and REM sleep but no deep sleep.
Alternating between active /quiet awake, drowsiness and active/quiet sleep
53
REM sleep accounts for ____ percent of a newborn baby’s sleep time. a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 The function of REM sleep is to stimulate synaptic development in the ______ because the newborn sleeps so many hours per day.
50 The function of REM sleep is to stimulate synaptic development in the cortex because the newborn sleeps so many hours per day.
54
Which sense is well developed at birth and contributes significantly to both physical growth and emotional responsiveness of the newborn? a. Hearing b. Vision c. Taste d. Touch
Touch
55
Which of the following describes the infant’s sensation/ perception at birth? a. Facial expression conveys infants can smell and taste. b. No obvious reaction to different odors but can taste. c. No taste preference but will react to strong odors. d. Infants cannot taste or smell until about 8 weeks after birth
Facial expression conveys infants can smell and taste.
56
The assertion that infants are born with reflexes which predispose the infant to learn a language reflects the ____________ side of the debate as to what causes development. a. Continuity b. Nature c. Diversity d. Nurture
Nature
57
Eye scan research has informed us about how infants take in the visual world. Given what we know, we would tell parents that when decorating an infant’s room they should a. Use high contrast color. b. Use low contrast color. c. Use a single solid color. d. Color and contrast do not matter.
Use high contrast color.
58
Recordings of infant eye scans gives us a visual of how an infant looked at an object and from that psychologists infer what mental activity is occurring. This type of research is consistent with a. Cognitive developmental theory b. Psychodynamic theory c. Operant conditioning theory d. Information processing theory
Information processing theory
59
Giving an infant the Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) several times enables researchers to a. Predict future ability to learn and risk for emotional problems. b. Assess degree of neurological progress and medical health. c. Evaluate sensory acuity in vision, touch, hearing, and odor detection. d. None of the above
Predict future ability to learn and risk for emotional problems.
60
In the transition to parenthood, parents who have a parental alliance and practice shared parenting will more likely a. be poor parents as they will experience interpersonal conflict. b. be more sensitive to infant’s needs and happier with their infant. c. be more stressed and therefore perceive their infant more negatively. d. be more self-centered and therefore ignore their infant’s needs.
be more sensitive to infant’s needs and happier with their infant.
61
Victoria and Cindy are both in their mid-twenties. Their drinking is not extreme but both will occasionally have a beer or glass of wine. Cindy smokes, Victoria does not. Both have somewhat irregular eating habits as they are both employed in multiple part-time jobs. Victoria pays attention to her cycle and visits her physician as soon as she suspects she might be pregnant. Cindy does not pay close attention to her cycle and is pregnant for some time before suspecting it. Cindy finally visits her physician and begins prenatal care after over two months having missed her third menstrual period. (7 sentences)
Cindy is at greater risk of facing developmental problems because she is a smoker Smoking is a teratogen, an environmental agent that can lead to birth defects Because both women drink alcohol, they also run risk of causing FAS (fetal alcohol syndrome) Their irregular eating habits could cause subtle cognitive defects and low birth weight Victoria visits her doctor at the beginning of the embryonic phase while Cindy visits her doctor near the end of the embryonic stage All of the structures and parts form during this phase Victoria could potentially change behavior before finalization of embryonic stage
62
After collecting their results, researchers concluded: Simply thinking it was a pre-term infant caused people to be more stressed and have more negative opinions than if they thought the infant was full-term. Connect the following statements to aspects of the scientific method that enabled researchers to draw this conclusion
The independent variable is that they were all told if the hypothetical baby was full-term or pre-term This was deliberate to create two separate groups to conduct an experimental method of study The hypothesis is that the pre-term group would endure the highest levels of stress Stress was measured as the dependent variable (blood pressure, heart rate, and survey results) Informed consent was given before the study and debriefing occurred after